Trivia Quiz: Do You Know About Mobile And Wireless Networks Security?

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light?

    • Plenum cable
    • Fiber optic cable
    • Twisted pair cable
    • Coaxial cable
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About This Quiz

Do You Know About Mobile And Wireless Networks Security? If you own a mobile phone that does not have access to the internet, there is much that you will miss out on as a lot of things are happening online. How do you keep your data secure while using the wireless network? The quiz below will help you learn a thing or two about using wireless networks

Trivia Quiz: Do You Know About Mobile And Wireless Networks Security? - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The software Metasploit is used for _______.

    • Anti-virus

    • Vulnerability Assessment

    • Anti-malware

    • . None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability Assessment
    Explanation
    Metasploit is a software tool used for conducting vulnerability assessments. It helps in identifying and evaluating vulnerabilities in computer systems, networks, and applications. By simulating real-world attacks, Metasploit allows security professionals to assess the security posture of their systems and identify potential weaknesses. It provides a comprehensive framework for penetration testing and helps organizations proactively address vulnerabilities before they can be exploited by malicious actors. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "Vulnerability Assessment".

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  • 3. 

    The operating system back track is used for _______.

    • Penetration testing

    • Virus scanning and removal

    • Malware scanning and removal

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration testing
    Explanation
    The operating system back track is used for penetration testing. This means that it is a specialized operating system designed for testing the security of computer systems and networks. It provides a wide range of tools and resources for assessing vulnerabilities, identifying potential exploits, and evaluating the effectiveness of security measures. By simulating real-world attacks, back track allows security professionals to identify and address weaknesses in a system's defenses, ultimately enhancing its overall security posture.

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  • 4. 

    John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program: #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int buffer(char *str) { char buffer1[10]; strcpy(buffer1, str); return 1; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { buffer (argv[1]); printf("Executed\n"); return 1; } His program is vulnerable to a __________ attack.

    • Denial-of-Service

    • Buffer overflow

    • Cross site scripting

    • SQL injection

    Correct Answer
    A. Buffer overflow
    Explanation
    The given C program is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack. In the buffer() function, there is a buffer1 array of size 10. However, the strcpy() function is used to copy the contents of the input string (str) into buffer1 without checking the length. If the input string is longer than the size of buffer1, it will overflow and overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, crashes, or even allow an attacker to execute arbitrary code. Therefore, the correct answer is buffer overflow.

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  • 5. 

    A _______________device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.

    • Biometric

    • MRI Scanner

    • Artificial Humanoid Scanner

    • Body Analyzer

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometric
    Explanation
    A biometric device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits. Biometric devices can include fingerprint scanners, iris scanners, voice recognition systems, and facial recognition systems. These devices capture and analyze unique characteristics of an individual's body or behavior, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, voice patterns, or facial features, and use them to verify or identify a person's identity. This technology is commonly used in various applications, such as access control systems, time and attendance tracking, and border security.

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  • 6. 

    Registry key can be altered directly with?

    • Control Panel

    • Registry Editor

    • Key Editor

    • Control Editor

    Correct Answer
    A. Registry Editor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Registry Editor". The Registry Editor is a tool in Windows operating systems that allows users to view, modify, and manage the registry database. The registry is a hierarchical database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. By using the Registry Editor, users can directly alter registry keys and values to customize system settings or troubleshoot issues. Control Panel, Key Editor, and Control Editor are not valid options for directly altering registry keys.

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  • 7. 

    TDMA Stands for

    • Time Division Multiple Access

    • Time Division Mono Application

    • Time Data Multiple Authority

    • Non of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Division Multiple Access
    Explanation
    TDMA stands for Time Division Multiple Access. This is a digital technology used in telecommunications to allow multiple users to share the same frequency channel by dividing the signal into different time slots. Each user is assigned a specific time slot during which they can transmit their data. This method helps to maximize the efficiency of the channel and allows for multiple users to access it simultaneously without interference.

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  • 8. 

    The term DDoS expands to _______.

    • Divisive Denial of Service

    • Distributed Denial of Service

    • Detailed Denial of Service

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Distributed Denial of Service
    Explanation
    DDoS stands for Distributed Denial of Service. This term refers to a type of cyber attack where multiple compromised computers are used to flood a target system or network with a massive amount of traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing it to become inaccessible to legitimate users. The distributed nature of this attack makes it difficult to mitigate and trace back to its source, as it involves multiple sources launching the attack simultaneously.

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  • 9. 

    CDMA stand for

    • Code data multiple access

    • Code division multiple access

    • Code data management authority

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Code division multiple access
    Explanation
    CDMA stands for code division multiple access. This technology allows multiple users to share the same frequency band simultaneously by assigning a unique code to each user. It is a digital cellular technology widely used in mobile communication systems. Unlike other access methods, CDMA allows for efficient use of the available bandwidth and provides better call quality and capacity.

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  • 10. 

    FAT stands for

    • File allocation tables

    • Forensic analysis tool

    • File allocation transfer

    • Format allocation test

    Correct Answer
    A. File allocation tables
    Explanation
    FAT stands for file allocation tables. This is a file system used by older versions of Windows operating systems to organize and manage files on a storage device. The file allocation tables keep track of the location of each file on the storage device, allowing the operating system to access and retrieve the files efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    The term XSS refers to _______.

    • EXtended Site Scripting

    • EXtreme Secured Services

    • Cross site scripting

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross site scripting
    Explanation
    Cross-site scripting (XSS) refers to a type of security vulnerability where attackers inject malicious scripts into trusted websites viewed by other users. This allows the attacker to bypass security measures and execute malicious code on the victim's browser. XSS attacks can lead to various consequences, such as stealing sensitive information, session hijacking, or defacing websites. The correct answer is "Cross site scripting."

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an attack on a website that changes the visual appearance of the site and seriously damages the trust and reputation of the website?

    • Website defacement

    • Zero-day attack

    • Spoofing

    • Buffer overflow

    Correct Answer
    A. Website defacement
    Explanation
    Website defacement is an attack on a website that changes its visual appearance, often by replacing the original content with offensive or misleading information. This attack can seriously damage the trust and reputation of the website, as visitors may perceive it as compromised or untrustworthy. It can also lead to financial losses and legal consequences for the website owner.

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  • 13. 

    EXPLOITS DEPEND ON

    • OS AND THEIR CONFIGURATION

    • LAN

    • SOFTWARE CONFIGURATION

    • ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    A. ALL OF THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    Exploits depend on various factors, including the operating system (OS) and its configuration, the local area network (LAN), and the software configuration. These factors play a crucial role in determining the vulnerabilities and weaknesses that can be exploited by attackers. By targeting these aspects, hackers can gain unauthorized access, manipulate systems, or steal sensitive information. Therefore, all of the options mentioned in the question contribute to the likelihood and success of exploits.

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  • 14. 

    Power-On Passwords are function of

    • Computer Hardware

    • Operating System Software

    • Application Software

    • Peripherals

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Hardware
    Explanation
    Power-On Passwords are a security feature that is implemented at the hardware level of a computer. This means that the password is stored in the computer's BIOS or firmware, which is independent of the operating system or any software installed on the computer. The power-on password is typically required to be entered before the computer boots up, providing an extra layer of protection against unauthorized access to the system. Therefore, the correct answer is Computer Hardware.

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  • 15. 

    ______________________ is typically carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it is not authorized or allowed.

    • Network Reconnaissance

    • System Auditing

    • Event Viewer

    • Fingerprint

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Reconnaissance
    Explanation
    Network reconnaissance is the process of gathering information about a network or system with the intention of gaining unauthorized access. It involves scanning and probing the network to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses that can be exploited. This activity is usually carried out by remote attackers who are not authorized to access the network. The goal of network reconnaissance is to gather enough information to plan and execute an attack, making it a crucial step in the hacking process.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is designed to detect the unwanted presence of fire by monitoring environmental changes associated with combustion?

    • Fire suppression system

    • Fire alarm system

    • Fire sprinkler

    • Gaseous fire suppression

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire alarm system
    Explanation
    A fire alarm system is designed to detect the unwanted presence of fire by monitoring environmental changes associated with combustion. It typically includes smoke detectors, heat detectors, or both, which can sense the presence of smoke or heat caused by a fire. When a fire is detected, the system will activate an alarm, alerting occupants of the building and allowing them to evacuate safely. This system is essential in providing early warning and preventing the spread of fires, potentially saving lives and minimizing property damage.

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  • 17. 

    Forensic ToolKit (FTK) is a?

    • Software

    • Hardware

    • Both Hardware as well as Software

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Software
    Explanation
    FTK (Forensic ToolKit) is a software used in digital forensics. It is a powerful tool that helps investigators analyze and recover digital evidence from various devices. With its advanced features and capabilities, FTK enables the examination of data, including deleted files and hidden information, to uncover crucial evidence for investigations. It is widely used by law enforcement agencies, government organizations, and cybersecurity professionals in solving criminal cases and conducting digital investigations. Therefore, the correct answer is software.

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  • 18. 

    The tool OllDbg is used for analyzing code for which operating system _______.

    • Microsoft Windows

    • Linux

    • Macintosh

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Microsoft Windows
    Explanation
    OllDbg is a tool that is specifically designed for analyzing code on the Microsoft Windows operating system. It is not compatible with Linux or Macintosh operating systems. Therefore, the correct answer is Microsoft Windows.

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  • 19. 

    An access token dose not contain?

    • Security identifier

    • Group identifier

    • Date and time

    • User rights and permissions

    Correct Answer
    A. Group identifier
    Explanation
    An access token is a credential that is used to authenticate and authorize a user or a process in a computer system. It contains information such as the security identifier (SID) which uniquely identifies the user or group, the date and time when the token was issued, and the user's rights and permissions. However, it does not contain the group identifier. Group identifiers are typically stored in separate data structures and are used to manage access control and group membership.

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  • 20. 

    Which element of the Intellectual property law provides the creator of a work exclusive right for 17 Years?

    • Patent

    • Copyright

    • Trade secret

    • Trademark

    Correct Answer
    A. Patent
    Explanation
    Patent law provides the creator of a work exclusive rights for 17 years. A patent is a legal protection granted to inventors for their inventions, giving them the exclusive right to make, use, and sell their invention for a specific period of time. This exclusive right allows inventors to profit from their inventions and encourages innovation by providing a temporary monopoly. Copyright, on the other hand, protects original works of authorship such as books, music, and artwork. Trade secret and trademark laws protect confidential business information and brand names respectively.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is evidence that is not based on personal knowledge but that was told to the witness?

    • Best evidence

    • Secondary evidence

    • Conclusive evidence

    • Hearsay evidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Hearsay evidence
    Explanation
    Hearsay evidence refers to information that is not based on the personal knowledge of the witness but rather on what someone else has told them. It is considered unreliable because it is second-hand information and can be subject to distortion or misinterpretation. Therefore, hearsay evidence is not considered as strong or credible as evidence that is based on personal knowledge or direct observation.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following techniques is used for drawing symbols in public places for advertising an open Wi-Fi wireless network?

    • Warchalking

    • Spamming

    • War driving

    • War dialing

    Correct Answer
    A. Warchalking
    Explanation
    Warchalking is the technique used for drawing symbols in public places to advertise an open Wi-Fi wireless network. It involves creating specific symbols or codes on walls or pavements to indicate the presence of a Wi-Fi network and its characteristics, such as its security status. This practice was popularized in the early 2000s as a way for tech-savvy individuals to share information about accessible Wi-Fi networks with others.

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  • 23. 

    International roaming is not a problem for

    • CDMA

    • GSM

    • FOR BOTH

    • NONE OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    A. GSM
    Explanation
    GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) is a standard for mobile phones that allows for international roaming. This means that GSM phones can be used in different countries without any issues, as long as the network supports GSM technology. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access), on the other hand, is a different technology that is not as widely supported internationally. Therefore, international roaming can be a problem for CDMA phones. The correct answer, GSM, is the technology that does not face any issues with international roaming.

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  • 24. 

    Enhanced GPRS can provide a maximum data rate of _______ by using eight-time slots.

    • 275 kbps

    • 115 kbps

    • 144 kbps

    • 384 kbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 384 kbps
    Explanation
    Enhanced GPRS can provide a maximum data rate of 384 kbps by using eight-time slots. This means that when all eight-time slots are utilized, the data transmission rate can reach up to 384 kbps. The other options, 275 kbps, 115 kbps, and 144 kbps, are not capable of achieving this maximum data rate with eight-time slots.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following federal Law makes it a crime to knowingly and intentionally use cellular telephones that are altered or have been cloned?

    • 18 USC 2701

    • 18 USC 2511

    • 18 USC 2319

    • 18 USC 1029

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 USC 1029
    Explanation
    18 USC 1029 is the correct answer because it is the federal law that specifically addresses the crime of knowingly and intentionally using altered or cloned cellular telephones. This law deals with fraudulent activities related to access devices, including cell phones, and prohibits the unauthorized use or trafficking of such devices. The other options, 18 USC 2701, 18 USC 2511, and 18 USC 2319, do not pertain to the specific crime mentioned in the question.

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  • 26. 

    At which layer of the OSI communication model dose bridge operate?

    • Transport

    • Datalink

    • Network

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Datalink
    Explanation
    Bridges operate at the datalink layer of the OSI communication model. The datalink layer is responsible for transferring data between adjacent network nodes and ensuring error-free transmission. Bridges are devices that connect two or more local area networks (LANs) together, and they use MAC addresses to forward data packets between networks. Therefore, it is correct to say that bridges operate at the datalink layer.

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  • 27. 

    ACL in the NT Security environment stands for

    • Axis Control List

    • Area Control List

    • Account Control LIst

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. None of these
  • 28. 

    Digital certificates are used in the IPSec connection, What type of network infrastructure device issue digital certificate?

    • SECP

    • ACS

    • SA

    • CA

    Correct Answer
    A. CA
    Explanation
    CA stands for Certificate Authority. A Certificate Authority is a trusted third-party entity that issues digital certificates. These certificates are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of data transmitted over a network. In the context of IPSec connections, a CA would issue digital certificates to the network infrastructure devices involved in the communication, such as routers or firewalls. These certificates would then be used to establish secure and encrypted connections between these devices, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.

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  • 29. 

    CDMA 2000-1x is network, which achieves data rates up to ...

    • 4.2mbit/s

    • 3.6mbit/s

    • 2.4mbit/s

    • 3.8mbit/s

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.4mbit/s
    Explanation
    CDMA 2000-1x is a network technology that allows for data transmission at a maximum rate of 2.4mbit/s. This means that the network is capable of achieving data rates up to 2.4 megabits per second.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? 

    • Performance Monitor

    • Wireless sniffer

    • Spectrum analyzer

    • Protocol analyzer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wireless sniffer
    A. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A wireless sniffer and a protocol analyzer are both tools used to analyze network traffic. A wireless sniffer is specifically designed to intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network, including wireless networks. It can capture and analyze packets of data to trace specific transactions. A protocol analyzer, on the other hand, is a more general term that refers to a tool used to analyze and monitor network protocols. It can also intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network, making it another correct answer to the question.

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  • 31. 

    Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.

    • Quantitative

    • Security Risk Analysis

    • System Auditing

    • Quantifiers

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantitative
    Explanation
    The term "quantitative" refers to the process of analyzing the effect of a risk event and deriving a numerical value. In this context, it suggests that the risk analysis process involves quantifying the impact of a risk event in order to assess its significance. This approach allows for a more objective evaluation of risks and enables decision-makers to prioritize and allocate resources effectively.

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  • 32. 

    Forensic Examiners are interested in following file because these contain portions of all documents and other materials a user produce while using the computer ?

    • Temporary

    • Swap

    • Slack

    • Unallocated

    Correct Answer
    A. Swap
    Explanation
    Forensic Examiners are interested in the swap file because it contains portions of all documents and other materials a user produces while using the computer. The swap file is a type of temporary file that the operating system uses to store data that cannot fit into the computer's RAM. It acts as a virtual memory extension and helps the system manage memory resources efficiently. Therefore, examining the swap file can provide valuable insights into the user's activities and the files they have accessed or created on the computer.

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  • 33. 

    TACS Stands for ?

    • Total Access Communication System

    • Time and Code System

    • Total Advanced Code System

    • Time Access Code System

    Correct Answer
    A. Total Access Communication System
    Explanation
    TACS stands for Total Access Communication System. This term refers to a first-generation analog cellular phone system that was widely used in the 1980s. It was primarily used in Europe and offered improved coverage and capacity compared to previous systems. TACS allowed users to have total access to communication through their cellular devices.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following are the two primary U.S.Laws that address Cybercrime?

    • 1030 and 2701

    • 2510 and 1029

    • 2510 and 2701

    • 1029 and 1030

    Correct Answer
    A. 2510 and 2701
    Explanation
    The two primary U.S. laws that address Cybercrime are 2510 and 2701. These laws specifically target different aspects of cybercrime. Law 2510 focuses on the interception of electronic communications, while law 2701 deals with unauthorized access to stored electronic communications. Together, these laws aim to address various forms of cybercrime and protect against unauthorized access and interception of electronic communications.

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  • 35. 

    You are an Administrator for a network at an investment bank. You are concerned about individuals breeching your network and being able to steal data before you can detect their presence and shut down their access. Which of the following is the best way to address this issue?

    • Implement a strong password policy.

    • Implement a strong firewall.

    • Implement a honey pot.

    • Implement network based anti virus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Implement a honey pot.
    Explanation
    Implementing a honey pot is the best way to address the issue of individuals breaching the network and stealing data before detection and access shutdown. A honey pot is a decoy system that appears to be part of the network but is actually isolated and closely monitored. It attracts attackers and allows the administrator to study their techniques and gather information about their activities without risking the actual network. This helps in identifying vulnerabilities and improving security measures to prevent future attacks.

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  • 36. 

     ------------------------------- is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.

    • Traffic Analyzer

    • NetRanger

    • Net Monitor

    • Bandwidth Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. NetRanger
    Explanation
    NetRanger is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive network configuration and information toolkit that utilizes multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies to optimize speed and efficiency. It provides a range of tools and features for analyzing and monitoring network traffic, making it an effective solution for managing and controlling bandwidth usage.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?

    • Acknowledgment Number

    • Header Length

    • Sequence Number

    • Source Port Address

    Correct Answer
    A. Source Port Address
    Explanation
    The 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment is the Source Port Address. This field is used to keep track of the source port number of the sender, allowing the recipient to identify the application program that sent the segment.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a process that detects a problem, determines its cause, minimizes the damages, resolves the problem, and documents each step of response for future reference?

    • Incident response

    • Incident handling

    • Incident management

    • Incident planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident response
    Explanation
    Incident response is the correct answer because it involves the entire process of detecting a problem, identifying its cause, minimizing any damages caused, resolving the problem, and documenting each step taken for future reference. This process ensures that incidents are effectively managed and responded to in a systematic and organized manner. Incident handling, incident management, and incident planning are all related concepts but do not encompass the complete process described in the question.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system rather than the network packets on its external interfaces?

    • IPS

    • HIDS

    • DMZ

    • NIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. HIDS
    Explanation
    A Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system rather than the network packets on its external interfaces. Unlike Network-based Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) that focus on monitoring network traffic, HIDS is installed on individual hosts and monitors activities within the host, such as file system changes, log file analysis, and system call monitoring. HIDS is particularly useful for detecting attacks that originate from within the system, such as unauthorized access attempts, malware infections, or suspicious behavior by users or processes.

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  • 40. 

     A______________________ network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or token-passing scheme is used for preventing the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time.

    • Token Ring

    • FDDI Bus

    • Data Frame Header

    • Hybrid System

    Correct Answer
    A. Token Ring
    Explanation
    A Token Ring network is a local area network (LAN) where all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or token-passing scheme is used to prevent data collision between two computers trying to send messages simultaneously. In this network, a token is passed from one computer to another, allowing only the computer with the token to send data. This ensures orderly data transmission and prevents data collisions.

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  • 41. 

    The _____________is an application layer protocol that is used between workstations and routers for transporting SNA/NetBIOS traffic over TCP sessions.

    • DCAP

    • NTLM

    • CDP

    • EBGP

    Correct Answer
    A. DCAP
    Explanation
    DCAP stands for Data Link Switching Client Access Protocol. It is an application layer protocol that is used between workstations and routers for transporting SNA/NetBIOS traffic over TCP sessions. This protocol allows for the communication between devices on a network using the SNA/NetBIOS protocols, which are commonly used in IBM mainframe environments. DCAP helps to ensure the reliable and efficient transfer of data between workstations and routers, enabling seamless connectivity and communication within a network.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following types of VPN uses the Internet as its main backbone, allowing users, customers, and branch offices to access corporate network resources across various network architectures?

    • Intranet-based VPN

    • PPTP VPN

    • Remote access VPN

    • Extranet-based VPN

    Correct Answer
    A. Extranet-based VPN
    Explanation
    An extranet-based VPN uses the Internet as its main backbone, allowing users, customers, and branch offices to access corporate network resources across various network architectures. This type of VPN extends the corporate network to trusted external entities, such as business partners or suppliers, while still maintaining security and control over the network. It enables secure communication and collaboration between different organizations, allowing them to share resources and information while keeping sensitive data protected.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is the practice of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with commercial content, in large quantities to an indiscriminate set of recipients? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Email jamming

    • E-mail spam

    • Junk mail

    • Email spoofing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. E-mail spam
    A. Junk mail
    Explanation
    E-mail spam and junk mail are both practices of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with commercial content, in large quantities to an indiscriminate set of recipients. E-mail spam refers specifically to unwanted e-mails sent electronically, while junk mail refers to unwanted physical mail sent through traditional mail systems. Both practices are considered forms of unsolicited advertising or marketing. Email jamming and email spoofing are not related to sending unwanted e-mail messages in large quantities to indiscriminate recipients.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?

    • Hping

    • NetRanger

    • PSAD

    • Nmap

    Correct Answer
    A. PSAD
    Explanation
    PSAD (Port Scan Attack Detector) is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic. PSAD is specifically designed to monitor and analyze network traffic and identify potential security threats, such as port scans, which can be indicative of an attacker attempting to gain unauthorized access to a system. By analyzing the iptables log messages, PSAD can identify patterns and anomalies in the network traffic, allowing administrators to take appropriate actions to protect their systems.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is a distributed multi-access network that helps in supporting integrated communications using a dual bus and distributed queuing?

    • CSMA/CA

    • Logical Link Control

    • Token Ring network

    • Distributed-queue dual-bus

    Correct Answer
    A. Distributed-queue dual-bus
    Explanation
    A distributed-queue dual-bus is a distributed multi-access network that supports integrated communications using a dual bus and distributed queuing. It allows multiple devices to access the network simultaneously by using two separate buses for transmitting and receiving data. The distributed queuing mechanism ensures fair access to the network resources, preventing congestion and improving overall network performance.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is a network that supports mobile communications across an arbitrary number of wireless LANs and satellite coverage areas?

    • WAN

    • GAN

    • HAN

    • LAN

    Correct Answer
    A. GAN
    Explanation
    GAN stands for Global Area Network, which is a network that supports mobile communications across an arbitrary number of wireless LANs and satellite coverage areas. GAN allows seamless connectivity and roaming capabilities for mobile devices, allowing them to stay connected even when moving between different wireless LANs and satellite coverage areas. This makes GAN an ideal network for mobile communications on a global scale.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments?

    • Lightweight Presentation Protocol

    • Internet Relay Chat Protocol

    • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

    • Network News Transfer Protocol

    Correct Answer
    A. Lightweight Presentation Protocol
    Explanation
    The Lightweight Presentation Protocol is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments. This protocol is specifically designed to minimize the overhead associated with the presentation layer of the OSI model, making it suitable for resource-constrained devices or networks where efficiency is crucial. It allows for the efficient transfer of data between applications, ensuring that the necessary presentation layer functions are performed without adding unnecessary complexity or overhead.

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  • 48. 

    In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 

    • The router does not find a valid operating system image.

    • The user interrupts the boot sequence.

    • The router does not have a configuration file.

    • There is a need to set operating parameters.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
    A. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
    Explanation
    The system enters ROM monitor mode when the router does not find a valid operating system image or when the user interrupts the boot sequence. In the first case, if the router cannot find a valid operating system image to load, it will automatically enter ROM monitor mode. In the second case, if the user interrupts the boot sequence by pressing certain keys during the startup process, the router will also enter ROM monitor mode.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is a distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or workloads between service providers and service requesters? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 

    • Peer-to-peer networking

    • Client-server networking

    • Peer-to-peer (P2P) computing

    • Client-server computing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Client-server networking
    A. Client-server computing
    Explanation
    Client-server networking and client-server computing are both distributed application architectures that involve the partitioning of tasks or workloads between service providers and service requesters. In client-server networking, the tasks are divided between the client (service requester) and the server (service provider), where the client sends requests to the server for specific services or resources. Similarly, in client-server computing, the workload is divided between the client and the server, with the client responsible for initiating requests and the server responsible for processing and delivering the requested services or resources. Peer-to-peer networking and peer-to-peer computing, on the other hand, do not involve the partitioning of tasks between service providers and requesters, as they rely on direct communication and sharing of resources between peers without the need for a central server.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Appintestlab
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