1.
End of test report is given at
Correct Answer
B. End of every cycle
Explanation
The correct answer is "End of every cycle." This means that the test report is generated at the end of each cycle of testing. This allows for the evaluation of the testing process and the identification of any issues or improvements that need to be made before moving on to the next cycle. By generating a test report at the end of every cycle, the testing team can track progress, communicate results, and ensure that the testing objectives are being met effectively.
2.
New online shopping
Correct Answer
A. Fresh Development
Explanation
The correct answer is "Fresh Development" because the question is asking for the requirement related to new online shopping. "Fresh Development" implies that there is a need for new development or creation in the online shopping domain. The other options, such as maintenance or none of the above, do not directly address the requirement aspect mentioned in the question.
3.
Software Quality ensures zero defects.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Software quality does not ensure zero defects. While software quality practices aim to minimize defects, it is virtually impossible to achieve zero defects in any complex software system. Defects can arise due to various factors such as human error, changing requirements, and unforeseen circumstances. Therefore, it is more realistic to focus on reducing defects and improving software quality rather than aiming for perfection.
4.
Exception condition in usecase cannot be converted into test scenario.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because exception conditions in a use case can indeed be converted into test scenarios. Exception conditions represent situations that deviate from the normal flow of the use case and may require specific handling. By identifying and testing these exception conditions, developers can ensure that the system behaves correctly and handles unexpected scenarios appropriately. Therefore, it is possible to convert exception conditions into test scenarios for thorough testing and validation.
5.
Type of testing done before actual execution.
Correct Answer
A. Smoke Testing
Explanation
Smoke testing is a type of testing that is performed before the actual execution of a software application. It is used to quickly assess whether the critical functionalities of the application are working correctly and to identify any major issues or defects that could prevent further testing. Smoke testing is usually conducted after a new build or release to ensure that the application is stable enough for further testing. It helps in identifying any showstopper defects early in the testing process, allowing the development team to fix them before proceeding with more comprehensive testing.
6.
Process of documenting,analyzing,tracing,prioritizing,agreeing on requirements and control change and communicating to stakeholders.
Correct Answer
A. REQUIREMENT MANAGEMENT
Explanation
Requirement management is the process of documenting, analyzing, tracing, prioritizing, agreeing on requirements, controlling changes, and communicating them to stakeholders. It involves various activities such as requirement analysis, requirement gathering, and eliciting requirements. This process ensures that the project team understands and meets the needs of the stakeholders, and that any changes to the requirements are properly managed and communicated.
7.
If there are less number of defects found by testing team, then
Correct Answer
C. Re-analyze the testing process
Explanation
If there are fewer defects found by the testing team, it suggests that the testing process may be more effective than before. Re-analyzing the testing process would involve reviewing the testing strategies, techniques, and methodologies used to identify any potential areas of improvement. This analysis would help identify any gaps or weaknesses in the testing process and allow for adjustments to be made to ensure even better results in future testing efforts.
8.
All the projects does not require a separate test strategy and test plan document.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Not all projects require a separate test strategy and test plan document. The need for a separate test strategy and test plan document depends on various factors such as the complexity of the project, the size of the team, the budget, and the timeline. Smaller, less complex projects may not require a separate test strategy and test plan document, as the testing approach can be integrated into the overall project plan. However, for larger and more complex projects, a separate test strategy and test plan document may be necessary to ensure proper planning, organization, and execution of the testing activities.
9.
Users can log defects for functionality(s) tested out of scope.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Users cannot log defects for functionality that is tested out of scope. Defects can only be logged for the functionality that was actually tested and falls within the defined scope of the testing. If a functionality is intentionally excluded from the scope, any defects related to it should not be logged. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
10.
RTM consists of
Correct Answer(s)
A. Use cases
B. Traceability matrix
D. Testcases
E. Test Data
Explanation
All the options are applicable because except DFD all the options to be provided in RTM sheet.
11.
White box testing is used as
Correct Answer
A. A business scenario.
12.
Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , test ware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
Correct Answer
A. I,ii,iv are true and iii is false
Explanation
The major tasks of test planning include determining the scope and risks, identifying the objectives of testing, determining the test approach (including techniques, test items, coverage, and interfacing with the teams involved in testing), and determining the exit criteria. Reviewing the Test Basis, such as requirements, architecture, design, and interface, is not mentioned as one of the major tasks of test planning. Therefore, the correct answer is that i, ii, and iv are true, and iii is false.
13.
One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalence class value.
Correct Answer
D. CLa01ss
Explanation
The given answer, "CLa01ss," is the invalid Equivalence class value because it contains a numeric character (0) and a combination of upper and lower case alphabets. The text box on the form only accepts alphabets in either lower or upper case, so any value that includes numeric characters or a mix of upper and lower case alphabets would be considered invalid.
14.
RTM is bi-directional?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
RTM stands for Requirements Traceability Matrix. It is a document that links requirements to their respective design, development, and testing activities. It helps in ensuring that all requirements are addressed and tested. The bi-directional nature of RTM means that it allows tracing requirements both forwards and backwards. Forward tracing ensures that each requirement is linked to its corresponding design and testing activities, while backward tracing ensures that each design and testing activity is linked to its corresponding requirement. Therefore, the given answer "True" is correct as RTM is indeed bi-directional.
15.
A single requirement is mapped for a single scenario:
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
This statement is false because in many cases, multiple requirements can be mapped to a single scenario. Scenarios are used to illustrate how a system will behave in different situations, and it is common for multiple requirements to be associated with a single scenario to ensure all aspects of the system's behavior are covered.
16.
Fresh development project does not include:
Correct Answer(s)
B. Impact Analysis
C. Regression Testing
Explanation
Fresh development projects typically involve starting from scratch and building a new system or application. In this context, impact analysis is not relevant as there are no existing components or dependencies to analyze. Regression testing is also not applicable as there are no previous versions or changes to test against. However, test data preparation is necessary to ensure that appropriate data sets are available for testing the new system.
17.
____________ Data gives details about the system and its business rules.
Correct Answer
D. Setup Data
Explanation
Setup Data refers to the data that is used to configure or set up a system or application. This data includes the system's business rules, which are the guidelines and regulations that govern how the system operates. Therefore, the given statement suggests that Setup Data provides details about the system and its business rules, making it the correct answer.
18.
Results of informal review is not reported in any format
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement "Results of informal review is not reported in any format" means that the outcomes of an informal review are not documented or recorded in any specific format. This suggests that informal reviews do not have a formalized reporting process, and the results are not officially documented or shared. Therefore, the correct answer is True, as it confirms that informal reviews do not produce any reported results.
19.
Test scenarios are higher level and do not cover all permutations and combinations. This gap is addressed by usage of
Correct Answer
C. Test conditions
Explanation
Test conditions are used to address the gap in test scenarios by providing specific details about the inputs, actions, and expected results for each test case. Test scenarios are higher level and may not cover all possible combinations and variations, whereas test conditions define the specific conditions that need to be tested. By using test conditions, testers can ensure that all possible permutations and combinations are covered, resulting in more thorough testing and better quality assurance.
20.
A process followed when an unforseen event occurred during test execution needs to be arrived and agreed upon the stake holders
Correct Answer
A. Escalation
Explanation
When an unforeseen event occurs during test execution, it is necessary to follow a process to address and resolve the issue. This process involves escalating the problem to the appropriate stakeholders, such as project managers or higher-level management, for their attention and decision-making. Escalation ensures that the issue is brought to the attention of those who have the authority and ability to resolve it, allowing for prompt action and agreement on the necessary steps to be taken.
21.
Defect Fixing does not introduce new defects
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement "Defect Fixing does not introduce new defects" is false. When fixing a defect, there is always a possibility of introducing new defects or issues into the system. This can happen due to various reasons such as a lack of understanding of the root cause, incorrect implementation of the fix, or unintended consequences of the fix. Therefore, it is important to thoroughly test the system after fixing a defect to ensure that new defects have not been introduced.
22.
Severity is given by
Correct Answer
B. Testing Team
Explanation
The correct answer is "Testing Team" because severity is typically determined by the testing team. Business users may provide input on the impact of a defect, but the testing team is responsible for assessing the severity based on factors such as the impact on functionality, the likelihood of occurrence, and the potential risks associated with the defect. The test lead may also be involved in this process, but ultimately, it is the testing team's responsibility to determine the severity of a defect.
23.
Test closure is involved in
Correct Answer(s)
A. Preparation of TSR
B. Preparation of Application stability report
C. Restrospection of the testing activities that are planned and executed
D. Is the formal activity to check adherence to the test plan
Explanation
Test closure is the formal activity that involves the preparation of TSR (Test Summary Report), preparation of Application Stability Report, and retrospection of the testing activities that are planned and executed. It is done to check adherence to the test plan and ensure that all testing activities have been completed successfully. This process helps in gathering important information about the testing process and its outcomes, which can be used for future reference and improvement. Additionally, it provides a comprehensive overview of the testing efforts and the stability of the application being tested.
24.
If the defect is fixed in later releases or postponed then the status is
Correct Answer
D. Deferred
Explanation
If the defect is fixed in later releases or postponed, it means that it is not immediately addressed but rather delayed for a future release. Therefore, the correct status for such a situation would be "Deferred." This indicates that the defect has been acknowledged but will be dealt with at a later time.
25.
The hardware, software and the human resources are released from the project during
After Test Closure
PROJECT RELEASE
RELEASE PROJECT RESOURCES
Ramp Up
Correct Answer
E. Ii,iii are true and i,iv are false
Explanation
After Test Closure, the hardware, software, and human resources are released from the project. This means that they are no longer needed for the project and can be allocated to other tasks or projects. The term "PROJECT RELEASE" refers to the act of releasing these resources. On the other hand, "Ramp Up" refers to the process of increasing the resources and activities in order to meet project demands. Therefore, the correct answer is that statements ii and iii are true (the hardware, software, and human resources are released from the project during Test Closure), while statements i and iv are false.
26.
A practice which is consistently yielding good and effective results can be defined as BEST Practice.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A practice that consistently produces positive and effective outcomes can be considered a best practice. This implies that it has been proven to work well and deliver the desired results. Therefore, the statement "A practice which is consistently yielding good and effective results can be defined as BEST Practice" is true.
27.
Test cases and Test data are entry criteria for Test case development
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Test cases and test data are not entry criteria for test case development. Entry criteria for test case development include understanding the requirements, having a clear understanding of the system under test, and having a test plan in place. Test cases and test data are developed based on these criteria and are not considered as entry criteria themselves.
28.
The following are exit criteria /Deliverables of
Completed RTM with execution status
Test cases updated with results
Defect reports
Correct Answer
B. Test Execution
Explanation
The given answer, "Test Execution," is the correct one because it is one of the exit criteria or deliverables of a completed Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) with execution status. Test execution refers to the actual running of test cases and recording the results. It is an important part of the testing process and is necessary to ensure that the software meets the specified requirements.
29.
Review and baseline of test cases are done in
Correct Answer
A. Test Development
Explanation
The correct answer is Test Development because it involves the review and baseline of test cases. This process includes creating, designing, and documenting test cases for the software being tested. It is an important step in the testing process as it ensures that the test cases are accurate and effective in identifying any defects or issues in the software. Test Development also involves setting up the necessary tools and resources for executing the test cases.
30.
Effort estimation document signed off during
Correct Answer
D. Test Planning
Explanation
During the Test Planning phase, the effort estimation document is signed off. This document outlines the estimated effort required for the testing activities, including the resources, time, and budget needed. It helps in determining the scope of the testing, identifying potential risks, and allocating resources accordingly. By signing off on the effort estimation document during Test Planning, the stakeholders agree on the proposed effort and can proceed with the testing activities accordingly.
31.
Prepare environment checklist during
Correct Answer
A. Test Environment Setup
Explanation
The correct answer is "Test Environment Setup". During the Test Environment Setup phase, it is essential to prepare an environment checklist. This checklist includes all the necessary tasks and requirements for setting up the test environment, such as installing the required software, configuring hardware, and establishing network connections. By having a checklist, the testing team can ensure that all the necessary components are in place before starting the testing process, which helps to avoid any issues or delays during test execution.
32.
Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
Correct Answer
C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
Explanation
Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, and Use Case Testing are black box testing techniques because they focus on testing the functionality and behavior of the system without considering the internal structure or implementation details. These techniques involve testing different input values, system states, and user interactions to ensure that the system behaves as expected and meets the specified requirements. Black box testing is primarily concerned with validating the system's external behavior and is often used to verify the correctness and completeness of the system from the user's perspective.
33.
Factors considered for defect triage meeting
Correct Answer(s)
A. Validity of the Defects
B. When to Fix
C. What to fix depends on severity and priority levels
Explanation
During a defect triage meeting, several factors are considered to prioritize and address defects effectively. The validity of the defects is crucial as it determines if the reported issues are genuine and need to be addressed. The timing of when to fix the defects is also important to ensure that they are resolved in a timely manner. Additionally, the severity and priority levels of the defects play a significant role in determining what to fix first, as high-severity and high-priority issues may require immediate attention. The client's decision is also considered to understand their priorities and address any specific concerns they may have.
34.
Testers need to test only the features mentioned in
Correct Answer
C. Release notes
Explanation
The release notes provide information about the features and changes included in a specific release of a software or product. Testers need to refer to the release notes to understand which features are included in the release and focus their testing efforts accordingly. The release notes act as a guide for testers to ensure they are testing the correct features and functionalities mentioned in the release notes.
35.
Expected results are derived based on test conditions
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The given statement is false. Expected results are not derived based on test conditions. Instead, expected results are determined by the desired outcome or behavior that is expected from a system or process. Test conditions are used to define the specific scenarios or inputs that will be used to test the system, but they do not determine the expected results themselves. The expected results are typically defined separately and are based on the requirements or specifications of the system being tested.
36.
Test summary report summarize the following
Correct Answer(s)
A. Scope of testing
B. Stability of the application
C. All the test result
D. Risk of moving the application to next pHase
Explanation
The test summary report is a document that provides an overview of the testing activities conducted on an application. It includes information about the scope of testing, which outlines what aspects of the application were tested. The report also covers the stability of the application, indicating how well it performed during testing. Additionally, it includes all the test results, providing details on the outcomes of each test case. Lastly, the report assesses the risk of moving the application to the next phase, highlighting any potential issues or challenges that may arise.
37.
Status of test cases that is yet to be executed
Correct Answer
B. No Run
Explanation
The correct answer is "No Run" because it indicates that the test cases have not been executed yet. This status is used when the test cases have not been run due to some reasons such as dependencies, issues with the test environment, or other external factors. It signifies that the execution of these test cases is pending and they have not been marked as passed or failed.
38.
The root cause for the leaking the defects from one phase to another are identified using
Correct Answer
C. Both A and B
Explanation
Both the Fish bone Diagram and Pareto Chart are tools used in quality management to identify the root causes of defects. The Fish bone Diagram, also known as the Ishikawa Diagram, helps to visually analyze the potential causes of a problem by categorizing them into different branches. On the other hand, the Pareto Chart is a bar chart that displays the frequency or impact of different causes in descending order, allowing the identification of the most significant ones. By using both A (Fish bone Diagram) and B (Pareto Chart), it is possible to comprehensively analyze and identify the root causes of defects, thus preventing them from leaking from one phase to another.