Routing And Switching Ch 3, 4, & 5

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LAN Switching Quizzes & Trivia

The use of LAN systems has been on the rise off late. With a router, you are able to distribute and use internet on several devices. The quiz below tests on chapters 3,4 and 5 of routing and switching.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does a switch do with a frame if the destination address is not in the MAC address database?

    • A.

      It floods the frame out of all ports except the one which it was received.

    • B.

      It forwards the frame out each ports until it receives a receipt acknowledgment from the destination.

    • C.

      It discards the frame.

    • D.

      It buffers the frame until the destination until the destination is learned.

    Correct Answer
    A. It floods the frame out of all ports except the one which it was received.
    Explanation
    When a switch receives a frame with a destination address that is not in its MAC address database, it does not know which port to forward the frame to. In this case, the switch will flood the frame out of all ports except the one it was received on. By doing so, the switch ensures that the frame reaches its intended destination, even if it does not have the address information in its database. This flooding technique allows the switch to discover the port where the destination device is connected, as the device will respond to the frame and its MAC address will be learned by the switch.

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  • 2. 

    What type of switching technology is most often used by modern LAN switches?

    • A.

      Store-And-Forward

    • B.

      Fast-forward

    • C.

      Fragment-free

    • D.

      Adaptive

    Correct Answer
    A. Store-And-Forward
    Explanation
    Store-and-forward switching technology is most often used by modern LAN switches. This technology involves receiving and storing the entire frame before forwarding it to the destination. It checks for errors, ensures the integrity of the frame, and performs error correction if necessary. This method ensures reliable and accurate transmission of data, as any damaged or incomplete frames are discarded. Store-and-forward switching is preferred in LAN switches as it provides better error handling and improves network performance by preventing the transmission of corrupted or incomplete frames.

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  • 3. 

    What type of switching is most appropriate for connecting multiple hosts to a server farm?

    • A.

      Symmetric

    • B.

      Asymmetric

    • C.

      Cut-through

    • D.

      Store and Forward

    Correct Answer
    B. Asymmetric
    Explanation
    Asymmetric switching is the most appropriate type of switching for connecting multiple hosts to a server farm. This type of switching allows for efficient bandwidth utilization and faster transmission by allowing data to flow in different directions at different speeds. It is particularly useful in scenarios where there is a significant difference in the bandwidth requirements between hosts. By allowing for asymmetric traffic flow, it ensures that each host receives the necessary bandwidth without causing congestion or slowing down the network.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of switching would not switch runts? 

    • A.

      Store-and-Forward

    • B.

      Fragment Free

    • C.

      Fast Forward

    • D.

      Adaptive

    • E.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    E. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both store-and-forward and fragment free switching would not switch runts. Store-and-forward switching checks the integrity of the entire frame before forwarding it, and if a frame is a runt (less than the minimum frame size), it is discarded. Fragment free switching also checks the integrity of the frame, but only the first 64 bytes, so it would also not switch runts.

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  • 5. 

    Which security measures that should be implemented in a switched network?

    • A.

      Disable Telnet and HTTP access

    • B.

      Disable unused ports

    • C.

      Enable port security

    • D.

      Restricted access to the physical switch

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the mentioned security measures should be implemented in a switched network. Disabling Telnet and HTTP access helps to prevent unauthorized access to the network. Disabling unused ports reduces the potential attack surface and prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. Enabling port security allows the network administrator to control which devices can connect to specific switch ports. Restricted access to the physical switch ensures that only authorized personnel can physically access and configure the switch. Implementing all of these measures collectively enhances the overall security of the switched network.

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  • 6. 

    Which can be  the result of redundancy in a switch network?

    • A.

      MAC database instability

    • B.

      Broadcast storms

    • C.

      Multiple Frame transmission

    • D.

      Increased availability

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    Redundancy in a switch network can lead to multiple consequences. MAC database instability can occur due to the presence of duplicate MAC addresses in the network, causing confusion and instability in the switch's MAC table. Broadcast storms can occur when redundant paths create loops in the network, resulting in an excessive amount of broadcast traffic that can overwhelm the network. Multiple frame transmission can occur when redundant paths cause frames to be forwarded multiple times, leading to inefficient use of network resources. Lastly, redundancy can also increase network availability by providing alternate paths in case of link failures. Therefore, all of the mentioned consequences can be the result of redundancy in a switch network.

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  • 7. 

    Which open standard was developed to reduce the time required for a switch network to reach convergence?

    • A.

      BackboneFast

    • B.

      PortFast

    • C.

      UplinkFast

    • D.

      RSTP

    Correct Answer
    D. RSTP
    Explanation
    RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is an open standard that was developed to reduce the time required for a switch network to reach convergence. It improves the convergence time by reducing the amount of time it takes for a port to transition from blocking to forwarding state. By quickly identifying and transitioning the forwarding path, RSTP helps to minimize network downtime and improve network performance.

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  • 8. 

    Which protocol is used to create a loop-free environment in a switched network that has redundant links?

    • A.

      BPDU

    • B.

      STP

    • C.

      VLAN

    • D.

      VTP

    Correct Answer
    B. STP
    Explanation
    STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is used to create a loop-free environment in a switched network with redundant links. It accomplishes this by preventing loops in the network while still allowing redundant links to be used for backup purposes. STP works by electing a root bridge and then blocking certain ports to avoid loops. It also allows for dynamic reconfiguration of the network if any changes occur. By using STP, a switched network can maintain redundancy and high availability while avoiding the issues that loops can cause.

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  • 9. 

    When a new host is connected to a switch with STP enabled, what mode is the port placed into?

    • A.

      Blocking

    • B.

      Listening

    • C.

      Learning

    • D.

      Forwarding

    • E.

      Disabled

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocking
    Explanation
    When a new host is connected to a switch with STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) enabled, the port is initially placed into the Blocking mode. This mode allows the switch to gather information about the network and prevent loops by blocking the forwarding of data. During this phase, the switch listens to Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDU) from other switches to determine the best path for data transmission. Once the switch has gathered enough information and determined a safe path, it transitions the port to the Listening, Learning, and eventually Forwarding modes.

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  • 10. 

    In which STP mode does a switch listen for BPDUs?

    • A.

      Blocking

    • B.

      Listening

    • C.

      Learning

    • D.

      Forwarding

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    In all STP modes, a switch listens for BPDUs. In the Blocking mode, the switch does not forward any frames and simply listens for BPDUs to determine the root bridge. In the Listening mode, the switch still does not forward frames but starts to process BPDUs and prepares to transition to the Learning mode. In the Learning mode, the switch populates its MAC address table by learning the source MAC addresses from received frames. Finally, in the Forwarding mode, the switch forwards frames based on its MAC address table. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."

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  • 11. 

    In a switch network, what is used to contain broadcasts and group physically seperated hosts together in communities of interest.

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Router

    • C.

      VLAN

    • D.

      Active topology

    Correct Answer
    C. VLAN
    Explanation
    VLAN stands for Virtual Local Area Network. It is used in a switch network to contain broadcasts and group physically separated hosts together in communities of interest. VLANs provide a way to logically divide a network into smaller, isolated networks, allowing for better network management and security. By creating VLANs, broadcasts are contained within the specific VLAN, reducing network congestion and improving overall network performance. VLANs also allow for easier management of network resources and provide flexibility in assigning network resources to different groups or departments within an organization.

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  • 12. 

    On a cisco switch, which VLAN is used for untagged traffic?

    • A.

      VLAN 1

    • B.

      Management VLAN

    • C.

      Native VLAN

    • D.

      Untagged VLAN

    Correct Answer
    C. Native VLAN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Native VLAN. On a Cisco switch, the Native VLAN is used for untagged traffic. Untagged traffic refers to the traffic that does not have a VLAN tag attached to it. The Native VLAN is typically VLAN 1 by default, but it can be changed to a different VLAN if needed. The Native VLAN is used for communication between devices that do not support VLAN tagging or when VLAN tags are removed by a device.

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  • 13. 

    What is the best route summarization for the following list of networks? 209.48.200.0 209.48.201.0 209.48.202.0 209.48.203.0

    • A.

      209.48.200.0/20

    • B.

      209.48.200.0/22

    • C.

      209.48.200.0/20

    • D.

      209.48.201.0/21

    Correct Answer
    B. 209.48.200.0/22
  • 14. 

    Given a host with IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong.

    • A.

      172.32.65.0

    • B.

      172.32.65.32

    • C.

      172.32.0.0

    • D.

      172.32.32.0

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.32.0.0
    Explanation
    The given host IP address, 172.32.65.13, falls within the range of the network 172.32.0.0 when using the default subnet mask. The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0, which means the first two octets (172.32) represent the network portion, and the last two octets (65.13) represent the host portion. Therefore, the host belongs to the network 172.32.0.0.

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  • 15. 

    A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks.  Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks.  What bit mask must be used to create eight small subnetworks, each having two host addresses?

    • A.

      /26

    • B.

      /27

    • C.

      /28

    • D.

      /29

    • E.

      /30

    • F.

      /31

    Correct Answer
    E. /30
    Explanation
    To create eight small subnetworks, each with two host addresses, a /30 bit mask must be used. A /30 bit mask provides 2 host addresses per subnet, with 2^2 - 2 = 2 usable host addresses. This is the smallest subnet size that can accommodate 2 host addresses while still allowing for network and broadcast addresses.

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  • 16. 

    Which address is valid subnet if a 26-bit mask is used for subnetting?

    • A.

      172.16.43.16

    • B.

      172.16.128.32

    • C.

      172.16.243.64

    • D.

      172.16.157.96

    • E.

      172.16.47.224

    • F.

      172.16.192.252

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.16.243.64
  • 17. 

    Which of the following is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

    • A.

      PAT uses the word overload at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.

    • B.

      Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

    • C.

      Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.

    • D.

      PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguished between translations.

    Correct Answer
    D. PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguished between translations.
  • 18. 

    What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?

    • A.

      A subnet mask is necessary when a default gateway is not specified.

    • B.

      A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.

    • C.

      A subnet mask is used to identify the network portion of an IP address

    • D.

      A subnet mask is used to seperate the 48 bits address into OUI and vendor serial

    Correct Answer
    C. A subnet mask is used to identify the network portion of an IP address
    Explanation
    A subnet mask is used to identify the network portion of an IP address. It helps in distinguishing the network part from the host part of an IP address. By using the subnet mask, the network devices can determine which part of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. This information is crucial for routing packets within a network and ensuring that they reach the correct destination. The subnet mask is used in conjunction with the IP address to determine the network address and the host address.

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  • 19. 

    How many addresses will be available for Dynamic NAT translation when router is configured with the following commands? router(config)# ip nat pool TAME 10 186.2.24 10.186.2.30 netmask 255.255.255.224

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      9

    • E.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 7
    Explanation
    When the router is configured with the given commands, the IP NAT pool is set from 10.186.2.24 to 10.186.2.30 with a netmask of 255.255.255.224. This netmask allows for a total of 32 addresses. However, the first address (10.186.2.24) is reserved as the network address and cannot be used for translation. The last address (10.186.2.31) is reserved as the broadcast address and also cannot be used. Therefore, the available addresses for Dynamic NAT translation are from 10.186.2.25 to 10.186.2.30, which is a total of 6 addresses. Adding the router's own IP address, we have a total of 7 available addresses for Dynamic NAT translation.

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  • 20. 

    Given a host with IP address 192.168.200.75 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, to which subnetwork, does the host belong?

    • A.

      192.168.200.0

    • B.

      192.168.200.32

    • C.

      192.168.200.64

    • D.

      192.168.200.96

    Correct Answer
    C. 192.168.200.64
    Explanation
    The given host with IP address 192.168.200.75 and subnet mask 255.255.255.224 belongs to the subnetwork 192.168.200.64. This is because the subnet mask 255.255.255.224 has a binary representation of 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000, which means that the first 27 bits of the IP address represent the network address, and the remaining 5 bits represent the host address. When we apply this subnet mask to the IP address 192.168.200.75, we find that the network address is 192.168.200.64.

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  • 21. 

    You have been assigned a Class C address 192.168.2.0/24.  You need to subnet it to provide multiple network segments.  The first (and largest) subnet has 100 hosts.  What is VLSM block required for the first subnet mask will be configured for hosts on that subnet? 

    • A.

      VSLM block:: 512, mask: 255.255.255.0

    • B.

      VSLM block:: 128, mask: 255.255.255.128

    • C.

      VSLM block:: 256, mask: 255.255.255.192

    • D.

      VSLM block:: 64, mask: 255.255.255.224

    Correct Answer
    B. VSLM block:: 128, mask: 255.255.255.128
    Explanation
    The first subnet requires 100 hosts, which falls within the range of 2^7 to 2^8. The VLSM block with 128 hosts (2^7) is the closest option that can accommodate the required number of hosts. The subnet mask for this block is 255.255.255.128, which allows for 128 addresses in total, with 126 usable addresses for hosts.

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  • 22. 

    What measures can a network designer implement to improve the performance of an enterprise network?

    • A.

      Redundancey

    • B.

      QoS

    • C.

      Packet Filtering

    • D.

      Hierarchical

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    The network designer can implement redundancy measures to improve the performance of an enterprise network. Redundancy ensures that there are backup components or paths available in case of failures, minimizing downtime and improving network reliability. Quality of Service (QoS) can be implemented to prioritize certain types of network traffic, ensuring that critical applications or services receive sufficient bandwidth and reducing latency. Packet filtering can be used to control and manage network traffic, improving network security and performance. A hierarchical network design can be implemented to organize and optimize network resources, improving scalability and performance.

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  • 23. 

    What type of network topology provides the most reliability?

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Extended star

    • C.

      Partial Mesh

    • D.

      Full Mesh

    Correct Answer
    D. Full Mesh
    Explanation
    A full mesh network topology provides the most reliability because it allows for direct connections between all nodes in the network. Each node is connected to every other node, creating redundant paths for data transmission. This redundancy ensures that if one connection fails, there are alternative paths available, minimizing the risk of network downtime. Additionally, the direct connections in a full mesh topology enable efficient and fast communication between nodes. However, it is important to note that a full mesh topology can be expensive and complex to implement, especially in large networks.

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  • 24. 

    When EIGRP learns a route from the autonomous system in which the route originates, how is that route identified in the routing table.

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      E EX

    • C.

      D

    • D.

      D EX

    Correct Answer
    C. D
    Explanation
    When EIGRP learns a route from the autonomous system in which the route originates, that route is identified in the routing table with the "D" prefix. This indicates that the route is directly connected within the same autonomous system. The "EX" prefix is used when EIGRP learns a route from an external autonomous system. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is "D" because the route is learned from the same autonomous system.

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  • 25. 

    What type of routing can provide a backup for primary WAN route?

    • A.

      Default route

    • B.

      Dynamic route

    • C.

      Static route

    • D.

      Floating static system

    Correct Answer
    D. Floating static system
    Explanation
    A floating static system can provide a backup for the primary WAN route. This is because a floating static route is a backup route that is configured with a higher administrative distance than the primary route. If the primary route fails, the floating static route will be used as a backup, ensuring continuous connectivity.

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  • 26. 

    How often does RIPv2 send out its routing table?

    • A.

      RIPv2 uses only triggers update

    • B.

      Every 30 seconds

    • C.

      When asked by neighbor router

    • D.

      Every 60 seconds

    Correct Answer
    B. Every 30 seconds
    Explanation
    RIPv2 sends out its routing table every 30 seconds. This means that it periodically updates its routing information to neighboring routers to ensure that they have the most up-to-date routing information. By sending updates every 30 seconds, RIPv2 can quickly adapt to any changes in the network topology and ensure efficient routing. This frequent update interval helps in maintaining network stability and reducing convergence time.

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  • 27. 

    What affect would issuing the following commands have on the routing process? R1(config)# router rip R19config-router)# passive-interface ethernet0

    • A.

      Ethernet() will no longer send RIP routing updates, but will accept them.

    • B.

      Ethernet() will no longer send or receive RIP routing update

    • C.

      Ethernet() will no longer receive RIP routing updates, but will send them.

    • D.

      Ethernet() will no longer send RIP or receive RIPv1 updates, but will send and receive RIPv2

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethernet() will no longer send RIP routing updates, but will accept them.
    Explanation
    Issuing the command "passive-interface ethernet0" in the router rip configuration mode will make the Ethernet0 interface stop sending RIP routing updates, but it will still accept them. This means that the interface will no longer actively participate in the routing process by advertising its connected networks to other routers, but it will still listen to and process incoming RIP updates from other routers.

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  • 28. 

    What command can be used  to see all of the routes known  to RIP?

    • A.

      Show ip route rip

    • B.

      Show ip rip route

    • C.

      Show ip rip database

    • D.

      Show IP rip protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Show ip rip database
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "show ip rip database". This command is used to display all the routes known to the Routing Information Protocol (RIP). It provides a comprehensive view of the RIP database, showing all the routes that RIP has learned from neighboring routers. This command is useful for troubleshooting and verifying the routing table in a RIP network.

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  • 29. 

    EIGRP maintains which of the following tables?  

    • A.

      Adjacency

    • B.

      Neighbor

    • C.

      Topology

    • D.

      Routing

    • E.

      Neighbor, topology, and Routing

    Correct Answer
    E. Neighbor, topology, and Routing
    Explanation
    EIGRP maintains three tables: the Neighbor table, the Topology table, and the Routing table. The Neighbor table keeps track of neighboring routers and their IP addresses. The Topology table contains information about all the routes known to EIGRP, including their metrics and feasibility conditions. The Routing table is used to make forwarding decisions and stores the best routes to each destination. Therefore, the correct answer is Neighbor, topology, and Routing.

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  • 30. 

    Which EIGRP packet type is responsible for establishing adjacency with neighboring routers?

    • A.

      Acknowledgment

    • B.

      Hello

    • C.

      Query

    • D.

      Reply

    • E.

      Update

    Correct Answer
    B. Hello
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hello." In EIGRP, the Hello packet type is responsible for establishing adjacency with neighboring routers. Hello packets are sent periodically to discover and maintain neighbor relationships. By exchanging Hello packets, routers can determine if they are on the same subnet and form an adjacency. This allows them to exchange routing information and establish a neighbor relationship for efficient communication within the EIGRP network.

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  • 31. 

    EIGRP uses which type of packet transmission?

    • A.

      Unicast

    • B.

      Multicast

    • C.

      Broadcast

    • D.

      Unicast and multicast

    Correct Answer
    D. Unicast and multicast
    Explanation
    EIGRP uses both unicast and multicast packet transmission. Unicast transmission is used for neighbor discovery and updates, where packets are sent directly to a specific neighbor. Multicast transmission is used for sending routing updates to a group of routers, allowing multiple routers to receive the same update simultaneously. This helps in efficient and reliable communication within the EIGRP network.

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  • 32. 

    By default, what factors contribute to EIGRP composite metric.

    • A.

      Bandwidth

    • B.

      Delay

    • C.

      Reliability

    • D.

      Load

    • E.

      Bandwidth and Delay

    Correct Answer
    E. Bandwidth and Delay
    Explanation
    The EIGRP composite metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. Bandwidth refers to the capacity of a network link, while delay refers to the time it takes for data to travel across that link. These two factors are important in determining the efficiency and performance of a network. By considering both bandwidth and delay, EIGRP can make intelligent routing decisions and choose the most optimal path for data transmission. Other factors such as reliability and load are not directly included in the EIGRP composite metric calculation.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 22, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Tiffshirk
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