2AX7X Vol 2 Unit 4 Aircraft Maintenance

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| By Jbrower1081
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2AX7X Vol 2 Unit 4 Aircraft Maintenance - Quiz


UREs from Vol 2 Unit 4 edit code 05


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who designates cannibalization authorities?

    • A.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B.

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander

    • C.

      MXG Vice Commander

    • D.

      MXG Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander designates cannibalization authorities. This means that the MXG Commander is responsible for assigning individuals or teams within the Maintenance Group who are authorized to cannibalize parts from one aircraft to repair another. Cannibalization is a process where parts from one aircraft that is no longer operational are used to fix another aircraft that requires the same part. The MXG Commander has the authority to make decisions regarding cannibalization and ensure that it is carried out efficiently and effectively within the Maintenance Group.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

    • A.

      Weapons loading operations

    • B.

      Radiographic inspections

    • C.

      Fuel system repair

    • D.

      Aircraft on jacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance tasks are performed that require additional safety precautions or specialized equipment. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require restricted maintenance areas due to safety concerns or the need for controlled conditions. However, weapons loading operations typically occur in designated areas that are separate from restricted maintenance areas, as they involve the loading and unloading of weapons onto aircraft rather than maintenance tasks.

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  • 3. 

    Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • A.

      Air aborts

    • B.

      Late takeoffs

    • C.

      Ground aborts

    • D.

      Aircraft status changes

    Correct Answer
    D. Aircraft status changes
    Explanation
    Red Ball maintenance is a type of maintenance that focuses on urgent repairs that need to be done quickly in order to get an aircraft back into service as soon as possible. It is not specifically designed to prevent aircraft status changes, which refer to any changes in the condition or status of an aircraft that may affect its ability to fly. Red Ball maintenance is more concerned with addressing immediate issues and getting the aircraft back in the air, rather than preventing or managing changes in its status.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

    • A.

      Wing Commander (WG/CC)

    • B.

      Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)

    • C.

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)

    • D.

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and oversight to ensure that proper procedures are in place to effectively manage and control the tools and equipment used in maintenance operations. This includes developing guidelines, protocols, and regulations to ensure the safe and efficient use of tools/equipment in these areas.

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  • 5. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    B. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 6. 

    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally within the 

    • A.

      Maintenance Flight

    • B.

      Quality Assurance section

    • C.

      Engine Management section

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality Assurance section
    Explanation
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally within the Quality Assurance section. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are performed correctly and to the highest standards. The FOD monitor is responsible for inspecting and monitoring the aircraft and runway for any foreign objects that could potentially cause damage. This role falls under the Quality Assurance section as it is crucial for maintaining the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    The wing foreign object damage monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how may hours of a FOD incident?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24. The wing foreign object damage monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that any potential damage or safety hazards caused by foreign objects on the wing are reported and addressed promptly. By notifying the manager within 24 hours, necessary actions can be taken to prevent further incidents and ensure the safety of the aircraft and personnel.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Bolt

    • B.

      Panel

    • C.

      Safety pin

    • D.

      Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    D. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could potentially cause harm or damage if they fall from aircraft or other elevated positions.

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  • 9. 

    A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or properly damage must be reported IAW

    • A.

      AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting

    • B.

      AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals

    • C.

      AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports

    • D.

      AFI 91-221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting
    Explanation
    AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting is the correct answer because it pertains to reporting incidents, accidents, and safety-related matters in the Air Force. This includes reporting dropped objects that have caused casualties or damage. The other options listed are not directly related to reporting incidents or accidents, making AFI 10-206 the most appropriate choice.

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  • 10. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • A.

      AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • B.

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • C.

      AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • D.

      AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and best practices for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, documentation, and resource management. Therefore, it is the most appropriate publication to consult for guidance on executing an effective maintenance recovery operation.

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  • 11. 

    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

    • A.

      Quality Assurance

    • B.

      Programs and Resource Flight

    • C.

      Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)

    • D.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    Correct Answer
    D. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, it means that a part or component from that item is removed and used to repair or maintain another item. In such cases, the Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) department needs to be notified. This is because PS&D is responsible for maintaining records of all maintenance activities, including cannibalization. By notifying PS&D, they can update the records and ensure that the necessary plans and schedules are adjusted accordingly. This helps in maintaining an accurate inventory and tracking the usage of serially controlled items.

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  • 12. 

    Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

    • A.

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander

    • B.

      MXG Impoundment Release Authority

    • C.

      Applicable Impoundment Authority

    • D.

      Applicable Squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Applicable Impoundment Authority
    Explanation
    The Applicable Impoundment Authority designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for the specific impoundment situation has the power to appoint the Impoundment Official. The other options, including the Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander, MXG Impoundment Release Authority, and Applicable Squadron commander, do not have the authority to designate the Impoundment Official in this context.

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 12, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 22, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jbrower1081
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