Air Force EOC 2T251 Sep 2013

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Questions: 100 | Attempts: 2,426 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

If you are performing duties in Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 2T251, which title describes you best?
- A.
  
  A. Air Transportation Apprentice.
- B.
  
  B. Air Transportation Journeyman
- C.
  
  C. Traffic Management Apprentice.
- D.
  
  D. Traffic Management Journeyman.
Correct Answer
B. B. Air Transportation Journeyman

Explanation
The correct answer is b. Air Transportation Journeyman. This is the best title that describes someone performing duties in AFSC 2T251 because it indicates a higher level of skill and experience than an apprentice. A journeyman is someone who has completed their training and is considered proficient in their field. Therefore, if you are in AFSC 2T251, the title of Air Transportation Journeyman would be the most appropriate description for your role.

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2.

If you are a part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?
- A.
  
  Ensuring maximum utilization and providing oversight to all other work centers.
- B.
  
  B. Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage.
- C.
  
  C. Managing the inspection and repair of the vehicle and equipment fleet.
- D.
  
  D. Organizing vehicle transportation to support operational missions.
Correct Answer
B. B. Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage.
3.

Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?
- A.
  
  Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?
- B.
  
  Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?
- C.
  
  US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
- D.
  
  Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).
Correct Answer
C. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

Explanation
The correct answer is US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). USTRANSCOM is responsible for providing common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. They coordinate and execute the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for the Department of Defense. This command plays a crucial role in supporting military operations and maintaining the logistical capabilities of the armed forces.

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4.

Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?
- A.
  
  Sustainment Mobility System (SMS).
- B.
  
  National Air Mobility System (NAMS).
- C.
  
  Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS).
- D.
  
  Global Deployment and Mobility System (GDMS).
Correct Answer
B. National Air Mobility System (NAMS).

Explanation
The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is responsible for coordinating and executing the transportation of personnel and cargo for the military. It ensures that resources are efficiently and effectively transported to support military operations worldwide. The NAMS plays a crucial role in maintaining the Air Force's ability to rapidly respond to any global contingency or crisis.

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5.

The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments’ logistics forces is called
- A.
  
  The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments’ logistics forces is called
- B.
  
  Joint mission.
- C.
  
  Joint logistics.
- D.
  
  Joint command.
Correct Answer
C. Joint logistics.

Explanation
Joint logistics refers to the coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments' logistics forces. It involves the integration of resources, capabilities, and processes to support joint military operations. Joint logistics ensures efficient and effective logistics support to all participating military departments, enabling them to work together seamlessly and achieve their mission objectives. Joint logistics is essential for enhancing interoperability, reducing redundancies, and maximizing the overall effectiveness of military operations.

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6.

How many pallets can the C–17 hold in its aerial delivery system and its logistics rail system, respectively?
- A.
  
  9 and 18.
- B.
  
  11 and 18.
- C.
  
  18 and 9.
- D.
  
  18 and 11.
Correct Answer
B. 11 and 18.

Explanation
The C-17 can hold 11 pallets in its aerial delivery system and 18 pallets in its logistics rail system.

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7.

Which pallet positions on a C–130J (stretch) require safety aisles?
- A.
  
  3, 4, and 6 only.
- B.
  
  4, 5, and 8 only.
- C.
  
  3 and 4 only.
- D.
  
  4 and 5 only.
Correct Answer
B. 4, 5, and 8 only.
8.

If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts and machinery?
- A.
  
  Secure them to minimize the hazard.
- B.
  
  Take them off to eliminate the hazard.
- C.
  
  Report them to make your supervisor aware of the hazard.
- D.
  
  Wear your personal protective equipment to reduce the hazard.
Correct Answer
A. Secure them to minimize the hazard.

Explanation
When working around moving parts and machinery, it is important to secure any eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings to minimize the hazard. This is because loose items can get caught in the machinery, causing accidents and injuries. By securing them, the risk of entanglement and potential harm is reduced, ensuring a safer working environment.

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9.

If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should you do if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area?
- A.
  
  . Get out of the way.
- B.
  
  Turn your vehicle around to face the opposite direction.
- C.
  
  Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead.
- D.
  
  Maintain a minimum distance of at least 25 feet in all directions of the aircraft.
Correct Answer
C. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead.

Explanation
When stopped on the flight line at night with headlights on, turning the headlights off and emergency flashers on is the correct action to take if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area. This is because the headlights can blind the pilots and interfere with their vision, potentially causing accidents or confusion. By turning off the headlights and using emergency flashers, you can alert the pilots to your presence without compromising their visibility.

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10.

If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take?
- A.
  
  If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take?
- B.
  
  Return to the starting point.
- C.
  
  Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.
- D.
  
  General warning. Exercise extreme caution.
Correct Answer
C. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

Explanation
When crossing an active runway and encountering a steady red light signal, the correct action to take is to stop. This signal indicates that your vehicle should not be moved, emphasizing the importance of halting any further movement. It is crucial to comply with this signal to ensure the safety of all individuals and aircraft in the vicinity.

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11.

When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration?
- A.
  
  Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs.
- B.
  
  Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
- C.
  
  Assigning them to the same duties every day.
- D.
  
  Considering their safety and security.
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.

Explanation
Assigning personnel to the same duties every day is not a consideration when assigning work crews. This implies that the work crews should not be limited to performing the same tasks repeatedly, but instead, their assignments should vary based on the work center's current and future needs. By assigning different duties, the personnel can gain a broader skill set and adapt to different tasks, leading to a more efficient and flexible workforce.

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12.

You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determine if he and his family are allowed to fly space-available on a DOD aircraft. In which publication would you look?
- A.
  
  DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility.
- B.
  
  DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG).
- C.
  
  DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG).
- D.
  
  DTR, 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation.
Correct Answer
C. DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG).

Explanation
The correct answer is DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG). This publication provides information on eligibility and procedures for foreign clearance, which includes determining if individuals are allowed to fly space-available on a DOD aircraft. The other options, DOD 4515.13-R and DTR 4500.9-R, are not specifically related to eligibility for flying space-available on a DOD aircraft.

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13.

You are loading tanks on a C–17 aircraft and want to find specific loading procedures for these items. Which section of the 1C–17A–9 technical order (TO) would you refer to first?
- A.
  
  Section II.
- B.
  
  Section IV.
- C.
  
  Section V.
- D.
  
  Section VI.
Correct Answer
D. Section VI.

Explanation
Section VI of the 1C-17A-9 technical order (TO) would be the first section to refer to when looking for specific loading procedures for tanks on a C-17 aircraft.

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14.

War reserve material (WRM) is equipment and other resources, authorized for wartime to maximize war-fighting capability, that are positioned as
- A.
  
  Daily operating stock and starter stock or a combination of both.
- B.
  
  Daily operating stock and swing stock or a combination of both.
- C.
  
  Swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both.
- D.
  
  Daily operating stock only.
Correct Answer
C. Swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both.

Explanation
War reserve material (WRM) refers to equipment and resources that are authorized for wartime use in order to enhance war-fighting capability. These materials are strategically positioned as swing stock and starter stock, or a combination of both. Swing stock refers to items that are readily available to replace damaged or depleted equipment during combat operations. Starter stock, on the other hand, consists of essential items needed to initiate operations or establish a new base. By having a combination of swing stock and starter stock, the military can ensure that they have the necessary resources to sustain and initiate operations during wartime.

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15.

If you are tasked to manifest, transport, and load passengers, to which deployment work center would you be assigned?
- A.
  
  Deployment control center (DCC).
- B.
  
  Cargo deployment function (CDF).
- C.
  
  Personnel deployment function (PDF).
- D.
  
  Arrival/departure airfield control group (A/DACG).
Correct Answer
C. Personnel deployment function (PDF).

Explanation
If you are tasked with manifesting, transporting, and loading passengers, you would be assigned to the Personnel Deployment Function (PDF). This is because the PDF is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of personnel, which includes tasks such as manifesting (keeping track of the passengers), transportation, and loading of passengers. The other options, such as the Deployment Control Center (DCC), Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), and Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG), are not directly related to passenger transportation and would not be the correct assignment for this task.

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16.

During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, to what area will you send the cargo until it is corrected?
- A.
  
  Marshalling area.
- B.
  
  Alert holding area.
- C.
  
  Frustrated cargo area.
- D.
  
  Ready line/loading ramp area.
Correct Answer
C. Frustrated cargo area.

Explanation
During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, the cargo will be sent to the frustrated cargo area until it is corrected.

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17.

If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) area of activity is it located?
- A.
  
  Marshalling area.
- B.
  
  Call forward area.
- C.
  
  Alert holding area.
- D.
  
  Ready line/loading ramp area.
Correct Answer
D. Ready line/loading ramp area.

Explanation
The ready line/loading ramp area is where the cargo is prepared for deployment and loaded onto the aircraft. Once the cargo is in this area, the deploying unit can no longer make changes to it. Therefore, if the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, it is located in the ready line/loading ramp area.

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18.

Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sightsensitivity, they must first receive approval from
- A.
  
  Their group or higher level commander
- B.
  
  US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
- C.
  
  The service or major command having operational control of the aircraft.
- D.
  
  The airfield management commander or the highest ranking member of the aircrew.
Correct Answer
C. The service or major command having operational control of the aircraft.

Explanation
The correct answer is the service or major command having operational control of the aircraft. This means that before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sightsensitivity, they need to obtain approval from the service or major command that has operational control over the aircraft. This ensures that the decision to exempt the cargo from inspection is made at a higher level of authority and is in compliance with the established protocols and regulations.

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19.

During a joint inspection, after the deploying unit corrects an item previously found to have discrepancies, you will identify that on the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by
- A.
  
  Erasing the “X.”
- B.
  
  Circling the “X.”
- C.
  
  Erasing the check mark.
- D.
  
  Circling the check mark.
Correct Answer
B. Circling the “X.”
20.

Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a KC–10 with ¾ tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have
- A.
  
  Chapter 3 authorization
- B.
  
  Attachment 3 authorization
- C.
  
  Headquarters Air Mobility Command (AMC) authorization.
- D.
  
  Vehicles on KC–10s are never allowed to carry ¾ tank of fuel
Correct Answer
D. Vehicles on KC–10s are never allowed to carry ¾ tank of fuel

Explanation
The given correct answer states that vehicles on KC-10s are never allowed to carry ¾ tank of fuel. This implies that before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a KC-10, it must not have ¾ tank of fuel. This suggests that there are restrictions or regulations in place regarding the amount of fuel that can be carried on KC-10s.

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21.

Before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained with a minimum of
- A.
  
  ½-inch diameter rope.
- B.
  
  ½-inch diameter nylon rope.
- C.
  
  ½-inch diameter bungee cords.
- D.
  
  Straps of any size from a commercial source.
Correct Answer
A. ½-inch diameter rope.

Explanation
The correct answer is ½-inch diameter rope. This is because before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained. The most appropriate and effective way to restrain the cargo is by using a minimum of ½-inch diameter rope. This ensures that the cargo is securely held in place during the airlift operation. Nylon rope, bungee cords, and straps of any size from a commercial source may not provide the same level of strength and reliability as the ½-inch diameter rope.

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22.

After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, who signs the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record?
- A.
  
  The deploying unit representative and the troop commander.
- B.
  
  The troop commander and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator.
- C.
  
  The deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector.
- D.
  
  The qualified mobility force inspector and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator.
Correct Answer
C. The deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector.

Explanation
After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, the deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector sign the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record.

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23.

Which method of airdrop begins with a 15-foot drogue parachute deploying and ends with the main cargo parachute deploying after the platform exits the aircraft?
- A.
  
  Type V.
- B.
  
  Type V.
- C.
  
  Door-load.
- D.
  
  Extraction.
Correct Answer
D. Extraction.

Explanation
The method of airdrop described in the question is Extraction. In this method, a 15-foot drogue parachute is deployed first to stabilize the load. Once the load is stable, the main cargo parachute is deployed after the platform exits the aircraft. This method is commonly used for delivering heavy or large cargo that cannot be easily dropped from the aircraft without a stabilizing drogue parachute.

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24.

What is the capacity of the A–22 cargo bag?
- A.
  
  200 pounds.
- B.
  
  1,200 pounds.
- C.
  
  2,200 pounds.
- D.
  
  3,200 pounds.
Correct Answer
C. 2,200 pounds.

Explanation
The capacity of the A-22 cargo bag is 2,200 pounds.

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25.

The purpose of the before-operation vehicle inspection is to ensure
- A.
  
  The vehicle control officer is adhering to regulations.
- B.
  
  No one has driven the vehicle since you last inspected it.
- C.
  
  The vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it.
- D.
  
  All damage and malfunctions are recorded before you report it.
Correct Answer
C. The vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it.

Explanation
The purpose of the before-operation vehicle inspection is to ensure that the vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it. This inspection is conducted to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may affect the vehicle's performance or safety. By conducting this inspection, you can address any problems before operating the vehicle, ensuring that it is in a suitable condition for use. It is important to prioritize safety and ensure that the vehicle is in proper working order before operating it.

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26.

Which parachute will support between a 501 and 2,200 pound drop weight?
- A.
  
  G–11B.
- B.
  
  G–12E.
- C.
  
  G–14.
- D.
  
  Extraction.
Correct Answer
B. G–12E.

Explanation
The correct answer is G–12E. This parachute is designed to support a drop weight between 501 and 2,200 pounds. The other options, G–11B and G–14, do not specify the weight range they can support. Extraction is not a parachute option.

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27.

Which forklift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allows you to make tight turns?
- A.
  
  4K
- B.
  
  10K.
- C.
  
  10K AT.
- D.
  
  50K.
Correct Answer
A. 4K

Explanation
The 4K forklift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allows for tight turns.

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28.

When approaching the ramp for final positioning, what feature of the 10K forklift should you use to have smooth, positive control?
- A.
  
  Inching pedal.
- B.
  
  Rollerized tines
- C.
  
  Mast control lever.
- D.
  
  Highest forward gear.
Correct Answer
A. Inching pedal.

Explanation
The inching pedal on the 10K forklift should be used to have smooth, positive control when approaching the ramp for final positioning. The inching pedal allows for precise control of the forklift's speed and allows the operator to inch forward or backward slowly, which is crucial when maneuvering in tight spaces or when making delicate movements. This feature ensures that the forklift can be positioned accurately and safely on the ramp.

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29.

In which part of a vehicle inspection will you clean and refuel the bus, if necessary, and ensure passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior?
- A.
  
  Before operation.
- B.
  
  During operation.
- C.
  
  After operation.
- D.
  
  Accomplishing this task is not necessary.
Correct Answer
C. After operation.

Explanation
After operation, during the vehicle inspection, the bus will be cleaned and refueled if necessary. This is also the time to ensure that passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior. This step is important to maintain the cleanliness and functionality of the bus, as well as to identify any potential damages caused by passengers.

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30.

Operating the starter continuously on the Tunner for longer than a minimum of how many seconds will cause it to overheat?
- A.
  
  20.
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  60.
- D.
  
  120.
Correct Answer
B. 30

Explanation
Operating the starter continuously on the Tunner for longer than 30 seconds will cause it to overheat.

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31.

How do you know when the waste tank on the lavatory service truck (LST) is full?
- A.
  
  Open the tank and look inside.
- B.
  
  Look through the sight window.
- C.
  
  Wait until the flow meter zeroes out.
- D.
  
  Look at the gauge in the control panel.
Correct Answer
B. Look through the sight window.

Explanation
The correct answer is to look through the sight window. This is because the sight window allows you to visually inspect the waste tank and determine if it is full or not. It provides a clear view of the contents inside the tank, allowing you to assess its level and decide if it needs to be emptied. The other options, such as opening the tank and looking inside or looking at the gauge in the control panel, do not provide a direct visual confirmation of the tank's fullness. Waiting until the flow meter zeroes out may not be a reliable method as it depends on the accuracy of the meter.

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32.

Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, you must ensure the tank contains at least how many gallons?
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  40
- C.
  
  60
- D.
  
  80
Correct Answer
B. 40

Explanation
Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, it is necessary to ensure that the tank contains at least 40 gallons. This minimum requirement ensures that there is an adequate amount of water available for use. Operating the pump without enough water could cause damage to the pump or result in insufficient water supply for the intended purpose. Therefore, it is important to check the tank's water level before operating the pump.

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33.

Which part of a pintle hook assembly will be used in all pintle hook towing operations?
- A.
  
  Tow valve.
- B.
  
  Tow valve.
- C.
  
  Safety/cotter pin.
- D.
  
  Integral brake system.
Correct Answer
C. Safety/cotter pin.

Explanation
The safety/cotter pin is an essential component of a pintle hook assembly that is used in all pintle hook towing operations. It is responsible for securing the pintle hook to the hitch receiver and preventing it from accidentally disconnecting during towing. Without the safety/cotter pin, there is a risk of the pintle hook becoming detached, leading to a dangerous situation on the road. Therefore, the safety/cotter pin is necessary for the safe and successful operation of pintle hook towing.

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34.

When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
- A.
  
  When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
- B.
  
  When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS.
- C.
  
  When the CCP has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE.
- D.
  
  When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field
Correct Answer
D. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field

Explanation
A shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, is considered cleared by the ACA when the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field.

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35.

The ATCMD is not used to
- A.
  
  Provide a way to process a shipment through the ACA.
- B.
  
  Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.
- C.
  
  Allow the APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.
- D.
  
  Provide notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.
Correct Answer
B. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.

Explanation
The ATCMD is not used to allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information. The ATCMD stands for Air Terminal Cargo Movement Data and it is a system used to provide notification to the APOE (Aerial Port of Embarkation) that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer. It helps in coordinating the movement of cargo and ensures efficient processing of shipments through the ACA (Aerial Port of Debarkation).

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36.

You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?
- A.
  
  1st.
- B.
  
  3rd .
- C.
  
  15th.
- D.
  
  Last.
Correct Answer
C. 15th.

Explanation
A unit move TCN is identified by a zero in the 15th position. The question implies that there is a specific pattern or arrangement in a unit move TCN, and the presence of a zero in the 15th position is a distinguishing characteristic. This suggests that the other positions do not contain zeros in a unit move TCN.

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37.

Which TP is considered “deferred air freight” and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
- A.
  
  TP–1.
- B.
  
  TP–2.
- C.
  
  TP–3.
- D.
  
  TP–4
Correct Answer
D. TP–4

Explanation
TP-4 is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft. This means that TP-4 is the lowest priority among the given options and will only be transported by air if there is space available after all other higher priority shipments have been accommodated.

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38.

When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for
- A.
  
  Matching documentation.
- B.
  
  Signs of damage or pilferage.
- C.
  
  Appropriate markings and labels.
- D.
  
  Correct NSNs.
Correct Answer
D. Correct NSNs.

Explanation
When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, it is important to inspect for matching documentation to ensure that the shipment corresponds to the accompanying paperwork. It is also crucial to inspect for signs of damage or pilferage to assess the condition of the shipment. Additionally, appropriate markings and labels need to be checked to ensure that the shipment is properly identified and handled. However, the only item that does not need to be inspected is the correct NSNs (National Stock Numbers), as they are already assumed to be accurate.

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39.

What is/are the source document(s) for completing the MSL?
- A.
  
  AF Form 4080.
- B.
  
  Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG).
- C.
  
  DD Form 1384
- D.
  
  SF 361and SF 364.
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1384

Explanation
The source document(s) for completing the MSL is DD Form 1384.

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40.

You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
- A.
  
  Always; no exceptions.
- B.
  
  When the shipper delivers the cargo.
- C.
  
  When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
- D.
  
  When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.
Correct Answer
C. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

Explanation
When the discrepancy is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to correct it immediately. This ensures that the shipment is accurate and meets the required standards. By addressing minor discrepancies promptly, it helps maintain efficiency in the terminal operations and prevents any further issues or delays in the shipment process.

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41.

Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does it represent?
- A.
  
  The block time of the aircraft.
- B.
  
  The SET.
- C.
  
  The RDD.
- D.
  
  The time the shipment was frustrated.
Correct Answer
B. The SET.

Explanation
When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the SET. The SET stands for Scheduled Equipment Time, which is the estimated time of arrival for the aircraft. This annotation helps in tracking and managing the arrival and departure times of the aircraft.

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42.

When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, you must
- A.
  
  Break all the pallets down and process them immediately
- B.
  
  Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo.
- C.
  
  Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.
- D.
  
  Store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead
Correct Answer
B. Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo.

Explanation
When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests, it is important to wait until you receive the manifests before starting to process all the cargo. This is because the cargo manifests provide crucial information about the contents of the cargo, such as its destination, handling requirements, and any special instructions. Without this information, it would be difficult to properly handle and process the cargo. Therefore, it is necessary to wait for the manifests to ensure that the cargo is processed correctly and efficiently.

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0
32
43.

. A short shipment is a shipment that
- A.
  
  Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.
- B.
  
  Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.
- C.
  
  Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.
- D.
  
  Arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.
Correct Answer
C. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

Explanation
The correct answer is "is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal." This means that the shipment was supposed to be included in the manifest, but for some reason, it did not reach the air terminal. It could have been lost, misplaced, or there could have been an error in the documentation.

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1
0
44.

Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write “O/S” on the righthand margin next to the information you added?
- A.
  
  Short shipment.
- B.
  
  Over shipment.
- C.
  
  Pilfered shipment.
- D.
  
  Confiscated shipment.
Correct Answer
B. Over shipment.

Explanation
When a shipment exceeds the expected quantity or weight, it is considered an over shipment. To keep track of such shipments, it is necessary to annotate them on the manifest. Writing "O/S" on the right-hand margin next to the added information helps to easily identify and differentiate over shipments from other types of shipments. Therefore, the correct answer is over shipment.

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45.

You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except
- A.
  
  Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail.
- B.
  
  Aircrew members, when using a cargo manifest.
- C.
  
  Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate.
- D.
  
  TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
Correct Answer
D. TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
46.

An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
- A.
  
  5,000.
- B.
  
  7,500.
- C.
  
  10,000.
- D.
  
  25,000.
Correct Answer
B. 7,500.

Explanation
Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of cargo.

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47.

A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  40
- D.
  
  50
Correct Answer
A. 20

Explanation
The maximum number of pallets that can be shipped in one stack is 20. This is because the question states that adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, which means that the pallets can be stacked on top of each other. Since there are 60 pallets in total, and the base support pallet is excluded, the maximum number of pallets in one stack would be 20.

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48.

You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
- A.
  
  Weight and SET.
- B.
  
  Movement indicator and type pack.
- C.
  
  Movement indicator and SET.
- D.
  
  Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator.
Correct Answer
C. Movement indicator and SET.

Explanation
When building a pallet with limited space for one more piece of cargo, the two factors to consider are the movement indicator and SET. The movement indicator indicates the urgency or time sensitivity of the cargo, helping prioritize items that need to be delivered quickly. SET (Special Equipment Code) refers to any special handling requirements or equipment needed for the cargo. By considering both the movement indicator and SET, you can ensure that the piece of cargo chosen is both time-sensitive and can be handled properly during transportation.

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49.

When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?
- A.
  
  20,000 lbs.
- B.
  
  20,710 lbs.
- C.
  
  21,000 lbs.
- D.
  
  26,000 lbs.
Correct Answer
D. 26,000 lbs.

Explanation
The maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less is 26,000 lbs. This means that the nets used to secure these trains must be able to withstand a weight of 26,000 lbs to ensure the safety and stability of the cargo.

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2
1
50.

When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?
- A.
  
  Inside the pallet cover.
- B.
  
  Bottom right corner of the pallet.
- C.
  
  Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.
- D.
  
  Near the highest priority piece of cargo.
Correct Answer
C. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.

Explanation
The RFID tag should be attached outside of any plastic or over wrapping when you attach it to a pallet. This is because the plastic or over wrapping may interfere with the RFID signal and prevent it from being read accurately. Attaching the tag outside of any plastic or over wrapping ensures that it is easily accessible and can be read by RFID readers without any obstruction.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Sep 29, 2013

Quiz Created by
GAITANEDGER

Air Force EOC 2T251 Sep 2013

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A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?

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When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?

When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?