2A656 Vol 1 Ure (2013) Aircraft
- 1.
(001) An important key to mission success is
- A.
Educated personnel.
- B.
High-tech equipment
- C.
New weapons systems.
- D.
A sound training program.
Correct Answer
D. A sound training program.Explanation
A sound training program is an important key to mission success because it ensures that personnel are well-prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their tasks effectively. It helps in enhancing their capabilities, decision-making abilities, and problem-solving skills, enabling them to handle various challenges and situations that may arise during missions. A sound training program also promotes teamwork, coordination, and communication among personnel, which are crucial for successful mission execution. Additionally, it ensures that personnel are aware of the mission objectives, procedures, and safety protocols, reducing the risk of errors and accidents.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(002) Who is responsible for managing the wing’s quality assurance programs?
- A.
Flight chief.
- B.
Quality assurance section chief.
- C.
Maintenance group commander.
- D.
Aircraft maintenance squadron commander.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance group commander.Explanation
The maintenance group commander is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance programs. This role involves overseeing and ensuring the quality of maintenance operations within the group. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing quality standards, conducting audits, and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and accountability to ensure that all maintenance activities meet the required quality standards.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(002) The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the
- A.
Section chief.
- B.
Flight commander.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Maintenance superintendent.
Correct Answer
A. Section chief.Explanation
The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the section chief. This individual is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations of the maintenance production department, ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. They are in charge of assigning work to maintenance personnel, coordinating schedules, and ensuring that safety protocols are followed. The section chief acts as a bridge between upper management and the maintenance team, providing guidance and support to ensure that production goals are met.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) Who directs the overall maintenance effort of their unit?
- A.
Section chief.
- B.
Flight commander
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Production superintendent.
Correct Answer
D. Production superintendent.Explanation
The production superintendent is responsible for directing the overall maintenance effort of their unit. They oversee the production and maintenance operations, ensuring that all tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. They coordinate with other departments and personnel to ensure smooth workflow and adherence to maintenance schedules. The production superintendent also analyzes maintenance data and makes decisions regarding resource allocation and process improvements. They play a crucial role in ensuring the unit's equipment and facilities are properly maintained and operational.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(003) Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?
- A.
Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment.
- B.
Maintenance operations and programs.
- C.
Quality assurance.
- D.
Resources.
Correct Answer
A. Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment.Explanation
The correct answer is Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment. This is because test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment is commonly used by maintenance squadrons to assess and diagnose the condition of aircraft and other equipment. It helps in identifying any issues or faults that may require maintenance or repair.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(003) Which specialty is not part of the accessory maintenance flight?
- A.
Survival equipment.
- B.
Fuels systems.
- C.
Pneudraulics.
- D.
Egress.
Correct Answer
A. Survival equipment.Explanation
The specialty that is not part of the accessory maintenance flight is survival equipment. This can be inferred from the fact that the other options, fuel systems, pneudraulics, and egress, are all related to the maintenance and functioning of the aircraft, while survival equipment is more focused on the safety and well-being of the personnel on board.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) Which aircraft maintenance squadron flight consists of crew chiefs?
- A.
Support section.
- B.
Aircraft section.
- C.
Weapons section.
- D.
Specialist section.
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft section.Explanation
The correct answer is Aircraft section. This is because crew chiefs are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft. They work in the aircraft section of the squadron, ensuring that the aircraft are in proper working condition and ready for flight.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(004) Three general functions of IMDS are
- A.
Maintenance, storage, and reporting.
- B.
Reporting, maintenance, and training.
- C.
Updating, retrieval, and reporting.
- D.
Reporting, retrieval, and training.
Correct Answer
C. Updating, retrieval, and reporting.Explanation
The correct answer is "updating, retrieval, and reporting." IMDS, which stands for Integrated Maintenance Data System, is a software application used for managing maintenance and logistics information. The three general functions of IMDS are updating, which involves entering and editing data; retrieval, which involves searching and accessing data; and reporting, which involves generating reports based on the stored data.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(004) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of IMDS are
- A.
Input, output, and archive.
- B.
On-line, off-line, and update.
- C.
Mission tracking, data recording, and retrieval.
- D.
Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.
Correct Answer
D. Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.Explanation
The three phases of the operational events subsystem of IMDS are mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis. This suggests that the system is designed to record and track mission-related events, track the progress and completion of missions, and analyze the data collected for further insights and decision-making. The other options do not accurately represent the phases of the subsystem.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(004) IMDS training management subsystem can be used to monitor
- A.
Upgrade training.
- B.
Optional training.
- C.
Seasonal training.
- D.
Qualitative training.
Correct Answer
A. Upgrade training.Explanation
The IMDS training management subsystem allows for the monitoring of upgrade training. This means that it can track and oversee the training programs that are specifically designed to enhance or improve the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular field or profession. It helps in ensuring that employees receive the necessary training to upgrade their skills and stay updated with the latest advancements in their respective areas of work.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(005) When a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form, who determines the correct symbol to use?
- A.
Your supervisor.
- B.
Maintenance officer.
- C.
Production superintendent.
- D.
Individual making the entry.
Correct Answer
D. Individual making the entry.Explanation
The individual making the entry is responsible for determining the correct symbol to use when a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form. This is because they are the ones who have firsthand knowledge of the malfunction and its details. They are also likely to have the necessary expertise and understanding of the maintenance process to accurately identify and classify the malfunction using the appropriate symbol. Supervisors, maintenance officers, and production superintendents may provide guidance or assistance, but ultimately it is the responsibility of the individual making the entry to determine the correct symbol.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(005) What determines a Red X “unsafe for flight” discrepancy?
- A.
The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment.
- B.
An inspection or operational check is due.
- C.
An unknown condition.
- D.
Upon receipt of a routine action TCTO.
Correct Answer
A. The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment.Explanation
The correct answer is the removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment. This means that if a component is removed from the equipment and its removal causes the equipment to become unsafe for flight, it will result in a Red X discrepancy. This could be due to the component being essential for the safe operation of the equipment or its removal causing a critical malfunction.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) Which AFTO 781 series form provides the overall flight status, or condition of the aircraft?
- A.
781 A.
- B.
781 H.
- C.
781 J.
- D.
781 K.
Correct Answer
B. 781 H.Explanation
The AFTO 781 H form provides the overall flight status or condition of the aircraft. This form is used to record discrepancies and malfunctions that occurred during the flight, as well as any maintenance actions taken to address those issues. It provides a comprehensive overview of the aircraft's condition and is an important document for maintenance and safety purposes.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) AFTO Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for
- A.
Aircraft.
- B.
Batteries.
- C.
Equipment.
- D.
Multimeters.
Correct Answer
C. Equipment.Explanation
AFTO Form 244 is a documentation form used specifically for recording discrepancies and corrective actions related to equipment. This form is not used for aircraft, batteries, or multimeters. It is designed to provide a standardized method for documenting and tracking equipment issues, ensuring that they are properly addressed and resolved.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(006) The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are
- A.
Major, minor, phase, isochronal, postflight.
- B.
Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight.
- C.
Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance.
- D.
Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance.
Correct Answer
D. Periodic, pHase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance.Explanation
The correct answer is periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance. This answer accurately lists the five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force. These concepts refer to different types of inspections conducted on aircraft to ensure their safety and operational readiness. Periodic inspections are scheduled at regular intervals, phase inspections are more comprehensive and cover specific components or systems, isochronal inspections are conducted at fixed intervals, programmed depot maintenance refers to major overhauls and repairs, and airline/manufacturer maintenance refers to inspections conducted by the airline or manufacturer.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(006) Reducing the time an aircraft is out of commission is an objective of which inspection?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Hourly.
- C.
Periodic.
- D.
Isochronal.
Correct Answer
A. pHase.Explanation
Reducing the time an aircraft is out of commission is an objective of the phase inspection. Phase inspections are scheduled maintenance checks that are performed at specified intervals, usually based on the number of flight hours or calendar time. These inspections are more extensive than hourly inspections and are designed to identify and address any potential issues before they become major problems. By conducting phase inspections efficiently, the downtime of the aircraft can be minimized, allowing it to return to service quickly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(006) Which is a thorough and searching inspection?
- A.
Minor.
- B.
Major.
- C.
Postflight.
- D.
Home station check.
Correct Answer
B. Major.Explanation
A major inspection is a thorough and searching inspection that involves a detailed examination of all aspects of a particular subject or object. It encompasses a comprehensive assessment of the subject's condition, performance, and functionality. This type of inspection is typically more extensive and detailed compared to a minor inspection, which may only focus on specific areas or components. A major inspection is usually conducted to ensure that everything is in proper working order and to identify any potential issues or problems that may require attention or maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(007) Which is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program?
- A.
Upgrade training.
- B.
Management training.
- C.
Qualification training.
- D.
Cross-utilization training.
Correct Answer
D. Cross-utilization training.Explanation
Cross-utilization training is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program. This type of training involves teaching employees to perform tasks outside of their usual job roles, which is not typically included in a maintenance training program. The other options, such as upgrade training, management training, and qualification training, are all commonly included elements in a maintenance training program.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(007) The primary responsibility for formal UGT rests with
- A.
Training management personnel.
- B.
The commander.
- C.
The supervisor.
- D.
The individual.
Correct Answer
B. The commander.Explanation
The primary responsibility for formal UGT rests with the commander. This means that it is the commander's duty to ensure that formal UGT (Unit Level Training) is properly implemented and carried out within the organization. The commander is responsible for overseeing the training management personnel and ensuring that they are effectively conducting and coordinating the training activities. The commander plays a crucial role in setting the training priorities, allocating resources, and ensuring that the training objectives are met.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(007) Training people to do tasks other than those in their primary AFSC is called
- A.
Cross-utilization training.
- B.
Management training.
- C.
Qualification training.
- D.
Upgrade training.
Correct Answer
A. Cross-utilization training.Explanation
Cross-utilization training refers to the practice of training individuals to perform tasks outside of their primary Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). This type of training allows personnel to develop additional skills and knowledge that can be utilized in different roles or positions within the organization. It helps to enhance flexibility and adaptability within the workforce, ensuring that individuals are capable of fulfilling various job requirements as needed.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(008) The main source of material deficiency information is found in
- A.
IMDS.
- B.
DD forms.
- C.
Applicable specifications.
- D.
Regulations.
Correct Answer
A. IMDS.Explanation
The main source of material deficiency information is found in IMDS. IMDS, or International Material Data System, is a centralized database that contains information about the materials used in products. It is widely used in the automotive industry to track and manage material data. This database provides detailed information about the composition, properties, and environmental impact of materials, making it a valuable source for identifying material deficiencies. DD forms, applicable specifications, and regulations may provide some information on material deficiencies, but they are not specifically designed for this purpose like IMDS is.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(008) Which TO explains the material deficiency reporting system?
- A.
00-5-15.
- B.
00-25-195.
- C.
00-25C-234.
- D.
00-35D-54.
Correct Answer
D. 00-35D-54.Explanation
The correct answer, 00-35D-54, is the Technical Order (TO) that explains the material deficiency reporting system.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(008) If you fill out a Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report for a defect in workmanship then you must forward the draft to the originating point within
- A.
1 workday.
- B.
2 workday.
- C.
3 workday.
- D.
4 workday.
Correct Answer
C. 3 workday.Explanation
If you fill out a Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report for a defect in workmanship, you must forward the draft to the originating point within 3 workdays. This indicates that there is a specific timeframe within which the report needs to be submitted. It is important to promptly notify the originating point about the defect to ensure that appropriate actions can be taken to address the issue.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(009) The first part of an NSN indicates the
- A.
Part code.
- B.
Bureau code.
- C.
item identification.
- D.
Supply classification.
Correct Answer
D. Supply classification.Explanation
The first part of an NSN (National Stock Number) indicates the supply classification. NSN is a 13-digit code used to identify standardized items of supply in the NATO Codification System. The first two digits of the NSN represent the supply classification, which categorizes items based on their characteristics and intended use. This classification system helps in organizing and managing the supply chain efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(009) Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what amount?
- A.
40%.
- B.
50%.
- C.
60%.
- D.
70%.
Correct Answer
B. 50%.Explanation
Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below 50%. This is because maintaining a minimum level of 50% ensures that there is enough stock available to meet immediate needs and prevent any disruptions in operations. Replenishing at this threshold allows for a buffer and ensures that supplies are always available when needed.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(010) Air Force property responsibility is imposed by law on
- A.
Commanders only.
- B.
All military employees.
- C.
Commanders and supervisors only.
- D.
All military and civilian employees.
Correct Answer
D. All military and civilian employees.Explanation
The correct answer is all military and civilian employees. This means that both military and civilian employees are legally responsible for Air Force property. This responsibility is not limited to commanders or supervisors alone, but extends to all individuals working within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(010) What types of property responsibility can be charged to DOD personnel?
- A.
Command and custodial.
- B.
Individual and custodial.
- C.
Command and supervisory.
- D.
Supervisory and custodial.
Correct Answer
A. Command and custodial.Explanation
DOD personnel can be charged with command and custodial property responsibility. Command responsibility refers to the responsibility of personnel in a leadership position to ensure that property is properly managed and accounted for. Custodial responsibility refers to the responsibility of personnel who have physical control or possession of property to ensure its proper care and safekeeping. Therefore, DOD personnel can be held accountable for both commanding the proper management of property and for physically safeguarding and caring for it.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(010) An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?
- A.
Supervisory.
- B.
Custodial
- C.
Individual
- D.
Command
Correct Answer
B. CustodialExplanation
When an airman signs out a toolbox, they assume custodial property responsibility for that toolbox. This means that they are responsible for the care, maintenance, and safekeeping of the toolbox while it is in their possession. Custodial property responsibility involves ensuring that the toolbox is used properly, kept secure, and returned in the same condition it was received.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(010) How can personnel be relieved from property responsibility?
- A.
Turn-in only.
- B.
Turn-in or transfer.
- C.
Supply’s recommendation.
- D.
Commander’s recommendation.
Correct Answer
B. Turn-in or transfer.Explanation
Personnel can be relieved from property responsibility by either turning in the property or transferring it to someone else. This means that they can either return the property to the appropriate authority or pass it on to another individual who will then assume responsibility for it. Both options allow the personnel to be relieved from the burden of property responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(011) Which publications are considered working handbooks?
- A.
Air Force manuals.
- B.
Air Force pamphlets.
- C.
Air Force instructions.
- D.
Recurring publications.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force manuals.Explanation
Air Force manuals are considered working handbooks because they provide detailed guidance and instructions on various topics related to Air Force operations, procedures, and policies. These manuals are comprehensive resources that are regularly updated to ensure they reflect the latest standards and best practices. They are designed to be practical and user-friendly, providing step-by-step instructions and information to help Air Force personnel perform their duties effectively. Unlike pamphlets and instructions, which may provide more specific or limited information, manuals cover a wide range of topics and serve as authoritative references for Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(011) What type of publications is similar to an AFMAN but is not as thorough?
- A.
Recurring.
- B.
Specialized.
- C.
Air Force pamphlets.
- D.
Air Force instructions.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force pampHlets.Explanation
Air Force pamphlets are similar to AFMANs in terms of being publications in the Air Force, but they are not as thorough. While AFMANs provide comprehensive and detailed guidance on specific topics, Air Force pamphlets offer more concise and focused information. They are typically used for quick reference or to provide a general overview of a subject.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(011) CDCs are an example of
- A.
An Air Force pamphlet.
- B.
A standard publication
- C.
A recurring publication.
- D.
A specialized publication.
Correct Answer
D. A specialized publication.Explanation
CDCs, or Career Development Courses, are specialized publications that provide in-depth training and education for Air Force personnel. These publications are specifically designed to enhance and develop the skills and knowledge required for specific career fields within the Air Force. Unlike standard or recurring publications, CDCs are tailored to meet the unique needs of individuals pursuing career advancement in the military. Therefore, the correct answer is "a specialized publication."Rate this question:
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- 33.
(012) Which TO explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?
- A.
Operations and Maintenance.
- B.
Methods and Procedures.
- C.
Time Compliance.
- D.
Abbreviated.
Correct Answer
A. Operations and Maintenance.Explanation
The correct answer is Operations and Maintenance. This TO explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system. It provides guidance on the necessary procedures and operations that need to be followed to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the weapons system. It covers topics such as routine maintenance, inspections, troubleshooting, and repair techniques. By following the instructions outlined in this TO, individuals can effectively maintain and inspect the weapons system to ensure its optimal performance and reliability.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(012) Which TO category includes inspection workcards and checklists?
- A.
Special.
- B.
Simplified.
- C.
Automation.
- D.
Abbreviated.
Correct Answer
D. Abbreviated.Explanation
Abbreviated is the correct answer because inspection workcards and checklists are typically used for quick and simplified inspections or checks. They are designed to provide a concise and summarized overview of the inspection process, making them suitable for a rapid assessment. The term "Abbreviated" suggests that the workcards and checklists are condensed versions, highlighting the key points and reducing the complexity of the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(013) Which TO explains the TO numbering system?
- A.
00-5-1.
- B.
00-5-5.
- C.
00-5-10.
- D.
00-5-18.
Correct Answer
D. 00-5-18. -
- 36.
(013) In the basic TO numbering system, what is the minimum groups of numbers each TO will have?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
B. ThreeExplanation
In the basic TO numbering system, each TO will have a minimum of three groups of numbers.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(013) The first number group within a TO number identifies the
- A.
Specific equipment.
- B.
Section of the TO.
- C.
TO category.
- D.
Kind of TO.
Correct Answer
C. TO category.Explanation
The first number group within a TO number identifies the TO category. The TO category refers to the type or classification of the technical order. This could include categories such as maintenance, repair, inspection, or operation. By identifying the TO category, the first number group helps to categorize and organize the technical orders, making it easier for users to locate the specific information they need for a particular task or equipment.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(014) The MIDAS page number is
- A.
A two-digit numbering system expressed as one element of two digits.
- B.
A two-digit numbering system expressed as two elements of two digits each.
- C.
A six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each.
- D.
an eight-digit numbering system expressed as four elements of two digits each.
Correct Answer
C. A six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each.Explanation
The correct answer is a six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each. This means that the MIDAS page number consists of three sets of two digits, making a total of six digits. Each set of two digits represents a specific element or component of the MIDAS page number.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(014) The “XD” in fault isolation code 33-10-XD-02 identifies the
- A.
System.
- B.
Location.
- C.
Subsystem.
- D.
Specific fault.
Correct Answer
D. Specific fault.Explanation
The fault isolation code 33-10-XD-02 suggests that "XD" is used to identify a specific fault. The code format indicates that the fault is related to a specific issue or problem within the system. The "XD" could be a code used to categorize and differentiate various types of faults, allowing for easier identification and troubleshooting.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(014) While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you want to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s
- A.
Numerical index.
- B.
Reference designator.
- C.
Line replaceable unit index.
- D.
Line replaceable unit designation.
Correct Answer
B. Reference designator.Explanation
The reference designator is used to identify specific components on a wiring diagram. It is a label or code that corresponds to a specific part or component. By checking the reference designator on the wiring diagram, you can determine the part number of the malfunctioning component. The numerical index, line replaceable unit index, and line replaceable unit designation are not relevant in this context.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(015) Revisions are issued when changes exceed what percentage of the basic TO?
- A.
50.
- B.
60.
- C.
70.
- D.
80.
Correct Answer
D. 80.Explanation
Revisions are issued when changes exceed a certain percentage of the basic TO. In this case, the correct answer is 80%. This means that if the changes made to the basic TO exceed 80%, a revision will be issued.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(015) Safety supplements to TOs are identified with a border of
- A.
Black SSs on the title page.
- B.
Red SSs on the title page.
- C.
Black SSs on all pages.
- D.
Red SSs on all pages.
Correct Answer
B. Red SSs on the title page.Explanation
Safety supplements to TOs are identified with a border of red SSs on the title page. This means that when safety supplements are added to technical orders (TOs), they will have a red border with the letters "SS" on the title page. This helps to easily identify and distinguish the safety supplements from the rest of the TOs. The other options (black SSs on the title page, black SSs on all pages, and red SSs on all pages) are incorrect as they do not accurately describe how safety supplements are identified.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(015) Safety and operational supplements to TOs should be filed in
- A.
Reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.
- B.
Reverse numerical sequence behind the basic TO.
- C.
Numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.
- D.
Numerical sequence behind the basic TO.
Correct Answer
A. Reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.Explanation
Safety and operational supplements to TOs should be filed in reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO. This means that the supplements should be organized in descending order according to their numerical sequence, with the highest number being placed first and closest to the basic TO. This allows for easy reference and ensures that the most recent supplements are readily accessible. Placing the supplements in front of the basic TO also helps to maintain the integrity and completeness of the technical order system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(016) Which deficiency report is used for a TO deficiency that involves safety or the unit mission?
- A.
Interim.
- B.
Urgent.
- C.
Routine.
- D.
Emergency.
Correct Answer
D. Emergency.Explanation
The correct answer is "Emergency." An emergency deficiency report is used when a TO deficiency involves safety or jeopardizes the unit's mission. This type of report requires immediate action to prevent further harm or disruption to operations. It is the highest level of urgency and ensures that the necessary measures are taken promptly to address the issue.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How many hours do personnel at the ALC activity have to act upon receipt of an emergency AFTO Form 22 report?
- A.
24.
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
72
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
Personnel at the ALC activity have 48 hours to act upon receipt of an emergency AFTO Form 22 report. This means that they have two days to take necessary actions or respond to the emergency situation mentioned in the report. It is important for them to act promptly and efficiently within this time frame to address and resolve the emergency situation effectively.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(017) How far away from parked aircraft should LOX carts be stored?
- A.
25 feet.
- B.
50 feet.
- C.
75 feet.
- D.
100 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 75 feet.Explanation
LOX carts should be stored at a distance of 75 feet away from parked aircraft. This is because LOX (liquid oxygen) is a highly reactive substance and can pose a significant fire hazard if it comes into contact with flammable materials or substances. Storing the carts at a safe distance helps to minimize the risk of accidents or explosions in case of any leakage or mishandling.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(017) When servicing a low-pressure oxygen system, set the regulator valve at a maximum pressure in psig of
- A.
475 psig.
- B.
480 psig.
- C.
485 psig.
- D.
500 psig.
Correct Answer
A. 475 psig.Explanation
When servicing a low-pressure oxygen system, it is important to set the regulator valve at a maximum pressure that is appropriate for the system. In this case, the correct answer is 475 psig. This means that the regulator valve should not be set to exceed 475 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) of pressure. This ensures that the system operates within safe limits and prevents any potential damage or hazards that could occur if the pressure exceeds this maximum value.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(017) When you are servicing an aircraft with LOX, do not wear
- A.
Cuffless trousers.
- B.
An ABU cap.
- C.
Leather welders gauntlet cuff gloves.
- D.
Shoes which fit loosely around the top.
Correct Answer
D. Shoes which fit loosely around the top.Explanation
When servicing an aircraft with LOX (liquid oxygen), it is important not to wear shoes that fit loosely around the top. This is because LOX is a highly reactive substance and can cause severe burns or explosions if it comes into contact with flammable materials or substances. Loose-fitting shoes can allow LOX to enter the shoe and come into contact with the feet, increasing the risk of injury. It is important to wear properly fitting shoes that provide a secure seal to prevent any contact between LOX and the feet.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(018) Liquid nitrogen must be stored below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?
- A.
–310.8°F.
- B.
–315.8°F.
- C.
–320.8°F.
- D.
–325.8°F.
Correct Answer
C. –320.8°F.Explanation
Liquid nitrogen is a cryogenic liquid that boils at a very low temperature. In order for it to remain in a liquid state, it must be stored below its boiling point. The correct answer of –320.8°F indicates the minimum temperature at which liquid nitrogen can be stored to prevent it from boiling and transitioning into a gaseous state.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(018) If your skin comes in contact with LIN, you should
- A.
Attempt to rewarm the skin.
- B.
Seek medical attention immediately.
- C.
Cover the effected skin immediately.
- D.
Run cold water over the affected area.
Correct Answer
B. Seek medical attention immediately.Explanation
If your skin comes in contact with LIN, seeking medical attention immediately is the correct course of action. LIN (liquid nitrogen) is a very cold substance that can cause severe frostbite upon contact with the skin. Attempting to rewarm the skin or running cold water over the affected area may worsen the damage. Covering the affected skin immediately may provide some protection, but it is still crucial to seek medical attention to assess the extent of the injury and receive appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 18, 2013Quiz Created by
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