Jarvis Questions On Nutritional Assessment! Quiz
Take a look at the short and simple 'Jarvis questions on the nutritional assessment' quiz given below. Here, we'll ask you a few multiple choice based questions related to nutrition and healthcare. If you have a good understanding of this concept, then you'll be able to crack this test easily. So, start answering these questions and we'll see how you performed. Are you ready to take this challenge? Let's start then. Best of luck!
- 1.
Pasqual and Santos, Portugal immigrants, who work as fishermen with Peter Griffin. These men are new to the U.S., do not speak English, and due to their heavy occupational workload have depleted nutritional reserves. They are at most risk for:
- A.
Obesity
- B.
MAMA
- C.
Overnutrition
- D.
Undernutrition
- E.
B and C
Correct Answer
D. UndernutritionExplanation
Pasqual and Santos, being new immigrants who do not speak English, may face challenges in accessing and understanding information about proper nutrition in the U.S. Additionally, their heavy workload as fishermen may lead to inadequate time and resources for obtaining nutritious meals. These factors, combined with their depleted nutritional reserves, put them at a higher risk for undernutrition, which refers to a lack of essential nutrients in the diet.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not true about overnutrition:
- A.
Can lead to sleep apnea
- B.
Being overweight during childhood and adolescence is associated with increased risk for becoming overweight during adulthood
- C.
In adults, obesity is defined as a BMI of 25 or more
- D.
Overnutrition can lead to certain cancers
- E.
Overnutrition is caused by the consumption of nutrients in excess of body needs
Correct Answer
C. In adults, obesity is defined as a BMI of 25 or moreExplanation
The statement "In adults, obesity is defined as a BMI of 25 or more" is not true because in adults, obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or more. A BMI of 25 to 29.9 is considered overweight, not obese.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Black women typically have lower _____ than white women.
- A.
Weight
- B.
Hematocrit levels
- C.
Hemoglobin levels
- D.
Creatinine levels
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Hemoglobin levelsExplanation
Black women typically have lower hemoglobin levels than white women. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. It plays a crucial role in maintaining overall health and well-being. Multiple studies have shown that there is a racial disparity in hemoglobin levels, with black women having lower levels compared to white women. This difference may be attributed to various factors such as genetics, diet, and socio-economic factors. However, it is important to note that individual variations exist within each racial group, and these findings are based on general trends.Rate this question:
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- 4.
True or False:The 3-day food records is not affected by culture because food is a universal phenomenon and food is eaten by every culture.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Culture plays a significant role in shaping people's food choices and eating habits. Different cultures have their own unique dietary preferences, cooking methods, and food traditions. Therefore, the 3-day food records can be influenced by culture as individuals may consume specific foods or follow certain dietary practices that are specific to their cultural background.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The purpose of a nutritional assessment does not include which of the following:
- A.
Identify individuals who are malnourished
- B.
Provide data for designing a nutition plan of care that will prevent or minimize the development of malnutrition
- C.
Identifying those who are at risk for malnutrition
- D.
Establish a baseline data for evaluating the efficacy of nutritional care
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
A nutritional assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's nutritional status. It involves identifying individuals who are malnourished, providing data for designing a nutrition plan of care to prevent or minimize malnutrition, identifying those at risk for malnutrition, and establishing baseline data for evaluating the efficacy of nutritional care. Therefore, the purpose of a nutritional assessment includes all of the given options, and none of the options are excluded.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which is not true regarding the comprehensive nutritional assessment?
- A.
Is performed for all patients
- B.
Includes dietary history and clinical information
- C.
Includes physical examination
- D.
Includes anthropometric measures
- E.
Includes laboratory tests
Correct Answer
A. Is performed for all patientsExplanation
The statement "Is performed for all patients" is not true regarding the comprehensive nutritional assessment. The comprehensive nutritional assessment is not performed for all patients, but rather for those who are at risk of malnutrition or have specific nutritional needs. It includes a variety of components such as dietary history, clinical information, physical examination, anthropometric measures, and laboratory tests, which help to evaluate the nutritional status of an individual.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is the easiest and most popular method for obtaining information about dietary intake?
- A.
Stalking your patient
- B.
Food frequency questionnaire
- C.
3-day food diary
- D.
24-hour recall
- E.
Direct observation
Correct Answer
D. 24-hour recallExplanation
The 24-hour recall method is the easiest and most popular method for obtaining information about dietary intake. This method involves asking individuals to recall all the foods and beverages they consumed in the past 24 hours. It is considered easy because it does not require individuals to keep track of their dietary intake over a longer period of time like a food diary or questionnaire. Additionally, it is popular because it can provide a snapshot of an individual's typical dietary patterns and is less time-consuming compared to other methods like direct observation.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is a common error that occurs with the 24-hour diet recall.
- A.
Snack items and the use of gravies, sauces, and condiments may be underreported
- B.
The individual or family member may not be able to recall the type or amount of food eaten
- C.
The truth may be altered for various reasons
- D.
The intake within the last 24 hours may be atypical of usual intake
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above -
- 9.
Which of the following is a common draw back to the food frequency questionnaire?
- A.
Noncompliance
- B.
Atypical intake on the recording day
- C.
Conscious alteration of diet during the recording period
- D.
It does not quantify amount of intake
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. It does not quantify amount of intake -
- 10.
Amenorrhea, which is assocated with nutritional deficiency, is
- A.
The term that refers to the Islamic dietary laws
- B.
Deficiency of dietary supplements
- C.
A side effect of the use of anabolic steroids
- D.
Agents that are often substituted for nutritious food
- E.
Absence of menstrual flow
Correct Answer
E. Absence of menstrual flowExplanation
Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual flow. It is a condition that occurs when a woman does not have her period for several months or more. It can be caused by various factors, including nutritional deficiency, hormonal imbalances, excessive exercise, stress, and certain medical conditions. Nutritional deficiency is one of the possible causes of amenorrhea, as it can disrupt the normal hormonal balance in the body and affect the menstrual cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is "Absence of menstrual flow."Rate this question:
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- 11.
True or False:Individuals with DM are twice as likely to have nutritional deficits.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Individuals with DM (Diabetes Mellitus) are twice as likely to have nutritional deficits. This is because diabetes can affect the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels, leading to complications such as poor absorption of nutrients, increased excretion of certain vitamins and minerals, and reduced appetite. Additionally, people with diabetes may have dietary restrictions or difficulties in maintaining a balanced diet, which can further contribute to nutritional deficits. Therefore, it is true that individuals with DM are more likely to experience nutritional deficits.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is a appropach for nutrition screening of the elderly?
- A.
Daily Reference Intakes
- B.
Dietary Guidlines
- C.
Food Guide Pyramid
- D.
Nutritional Screening Intiative
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Nutritional Screening IntiativeExplanation
The appropriate approach for nutrition screening of the elderly is the Nutritional Screening Initiative. This initiative is specifically designed to assess the nutritional status of older adults and identify any potential nutritional deficiencies or risks. It involves the use of validated screening tools and assessments to evaluate various aspects of an individual's diet, including their intake of essential nutrients, food preferences, and any barriers to adequate nutrition. By implementing this initiative, healthcare professionals can effectively identify and address the unique nutritional needs of elderly individuals, promoting their overall health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Someone who is cachectic:
- A.
Has fat and muscle wasting
- B.
Is obese
- C.
Lives a sedentary lifestyle
- D.
Lives an active lifestyle
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Has fat and muscle wastingExplanation
Cachexia is a condition characterized by severe weight loss and muscle wasting. People who are cachectic typically have a significant reduction in both fat and muscle mass. This can be caused by various underlying medical conditions, such as cancer, chronic infections, or certain chronic diseases. Therefore, the statement "Has fat and muscle wasting" accurately describes someone who is cachectic.Rate this question:
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- 14.
State true or false: Clinical signs are early manifestations of malnutrition. Deficiencies are comprehensivley readily detectable.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 15.
Anthropometry is:
- A.
Absent menstrual cycles
- B.
A measurement and evaluation of growth, development, and body composition
- C.
A serious side effect of steroids which affects, among other areas, the skin, eyes, and gums
- D.
Scanty menstrual flow
- E.
An abnormally large head circumference, which often signifies disease
Correct Answer
B. A measurement and evaluation of growth, development, and body composition -
- 16.
Which of the following is not a common location for anthropometry:
- A.
Height
- B.
Triceps skinfold thickness
- C.
Elbow breadth
- D.
Arm and head circumferences
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 17.
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating mody weight as a percentage of ideal body weight?
- A.
Percent ideal body weight = (ideal weight/current weight) x 703
- B.
Percent ideal body weight = (ideal weight/100) x current weight
- C.
Percent ideal body weight = (current weight/ideal weight) x 100
- D.
Percent ideal body weight = (ideal weight/current weight) x 100
- E.
Percent ideal body weight = (current weight/ideal weight) x 703
Correct Answer
C. Percent ideal body weight = (current weight/ideal weight) x 100 -
- 18.
A body weight (as a percentage of ideal body weight) of 89% is considered to be:
- A.
Healthy
- B.
Mild malnutrition
- C.
Moderate malnutrition
- D.
Severe malnutrition
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Mild malnutrition -
- 19.
Percent usual body weight is calculated as:
- A.
Percent body weight = (current weight/usual weight) x 100
- B.
Percent body weight = (usual weight/current weight) x 100
- C.
Percent body weight = (current weight/usual weight) x 703
- D.
Percent body weight = (current weight/usual weight) x 307
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Percent body weight = (current weight/usual weight) x 100Explanation
The correct answer is "Percent body weight = (current weight/usual weight) x 100" because it accurately represents the calculation of percent body weight. It divides the current weight by the usual weight and then multiplies it by 100 to get the percentage.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A BMI of 27 is considered to be which of the following?
- A.
Underweight
- B.
Normal weight
- C.
Overweight
- D.
Obese
- E.
Sexy
Correct Answer
C. OverweightExplanation
A BMI (Body Mass Index) of 27 is considered to be overweight. BMI is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. A BMI between 25 and 29.9 is classified as overweight, indicating that a person has excess body weight compared to their height.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is a practical marker of optimal weight for height and an indicator of obesity or protein-calorie malnutrition?
- A.
Body weight as a percentage of ideal weigth
- B.
Percentage usual body weight
- C.
Waist-to-hip ratio
- D.
Percentage of recent weight change
- E.
Body mass index
Correct Answer
E. Body mass index -
- 22.
Which of the following assesses body fat distribution as an indicator of health risk?
- A.
Body mass index
- B.
Body weight as a percentage of ideal body weight
- C.
Anthropometry
- D.
Waist-to-hip ratio
- E.
Percentage usual body weight
Correct Answer
D. Waist-to-hip ratio -
- 23.
Which is the most common site used for obtaining skinfold thickness measurements.
- A.
Biceps skinfold (BSF)
- B.
Gluteal skinfold (GSF)
- C.
Suprailiac skinfold
- D.
Subcapsular skinfold
- E.
Triceps skinfold (TSF)
Correct Answer
E. Triceps skinfold (TSF) -
- 24.
How would one determine the arm muscle circumference and arm muscle area?
- A.
Mid-upper arm circumference (MAC) + Triceps skinfold (TSF)
- B.
Biceps skinfold (BSF) + Triceps skinfold (TSF)
- C.
Body mass index (BMI) + Biceps skinfold (BSF)
- D.
Triceps skinfold (TSF) + Body mass index (BMI)
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Mid-upper arm circumference (MAC) + Triceps skinfold (TSF) -
- 25.
The mid-upper arm muscle circumference (MAMC) estimates
- A.
Smooth muscle reserves
- B.
The amount of lean body mass
- C.
Skeletal muscle reserves
- D.
A and B
- E.
B and C
Correct Answer
E. B and C -
- 26.
The most accurate way to determine frame size is:
- A.
Wrist breadth
- B.
Shoulder breadth
- C.
Elbow breadth
- D.
A and B
- E.
A and C
Correct Answer
C. Elbow breadth -
- 27.
At approximately what age does height begin slowly declining?
- A.
25
- B.
30
- C.
40
- D.
50
- E.
65
Correct Answer
B. 30 -
- 28.
A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl is:
- A.
Is abnormal for an adult male
- B.
May be an indication of iron anemia
- C.
Normal for adult women
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 29.
The doctor orders a hematocrit lab test for Ariel. The test outcome indicates a result of 40%. Which is untrue:
- A.
This lab result should be interpreted with hemoglobin level results
- B.
Hematocrit is a measure of cell volume
- C.
Hematocrit is an indicator of iron status
- D.
This suggests a risk for coronary artery disease
- E.
This is a normal finding for an adult woman
Correct Answer
D. This suggests a risk for coronary artery diseaseExplanation
The correct answer is "This suggests a risk for coronary artery disease." This is because hematocrit is not directly related to coronary artery disease. Hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume and is used to evaluate conditions such as anemia or dehydration. It is not a specific indicator of coronary artery disease.Rate this question:
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- 30.
True or False:Total cholesterol (screens for hyperlipidemia) and serum triglycerides (TGs) (measured to evaluate fat metabolism) both assess the risk for coronary artery disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 31.
Which of the following is untrue of the total lymphocyte count lab test?
- A.
Measures cell volume
- B.
Is the most commonly used tests of immune function
- C.
Is an indicator of visceral protein status
- D.
Suggests the status of cellular immune function
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Measures cell volumeExplanation
The total lymphocyte count lab test does not measure cell volume. It is a test commonly used to assess immune function and cellular immune function. It is also an indicator of visceral protein status.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which is true of serum albumin lab tests?
- A.
Is an early indicator of protein malnutrition
- B.
Measures parietal protein status
- C.
Is more sensitive indicator than serum tranferrin tests
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 33.
Which of the following is untrue about prealbumin?
- A.
Serves as a transport protein for T4
- B.
Serves as a retinol-binding protein
- C.
Is a plasma protein marker of inflammatory status
- D.
Is sensitive to acute changes in protein status
- E.
Is sensitive to sudden demands on protein synthesis
Correct Answer
C. Is a plasma protein marker of inflammatory status -
- 34.
C-reactive protein (CRP) :
- A.
Montors metabolic stress
- B.
Is produced by the kidneys
- C.
Is commonly detected in general blood tests
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Montors metabolic stress -
- 35.
Which test can provide an indicator of when to begin nutritional support in cirtically ill patients?
- A.
Triglycerides
- B.
Prealbumin
- C.
Nitrogen balance
- D.
Serum transferrin
- E.
C-reactive protein
Correct Answer
E. C-reactive protein -
- 36.
Which of the following is untrue about nitrogen balance lab tests?
- A.
Used as an index of protein nutritional status
- B.
Nitrogen is released with the anabolism of amino acids
- C.
Nitrogen is extreted in the urine as urea
- D.
It can indicate whether the person is anabolic (positive nigrogen balance)
- E.
It can indicate whether the person is catabolic (negative nigrogen balance)
Correct Answer
B. Nitrogen is released with the anabolism of amino acids -
- 37.
Which is true of creatinine-height index (CHI)?
- A.
Is a method of estimating the amount of net fat on the body
- B.
Is excreted in a altered form in the urine
- C.
Requires a midstream urine specimen
- D.
Creatine is derived from the breakdown of creatinine.
- E.
Creatinine excreted in urine remains at a constant rate in proportion to the amount of body muscle
Correct Answer
E. Creatinine excreted in urine remains at a constant rate in proportion to the amount of body muscle -
- 38.
Who is more prone to sickle-cell anemia?
- A.
European-descent
- B.
African descent
- C.
Asian descent
- D.
American Indian descent
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. African descentExplanation
African descent individuals are more prone to sickle-cell anemia. This is because sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that primarily affects people of African descent. It is caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in red blood cells. The mutation leads to the production of abnormal hemoglobin, causing the red blood cells to become misshapen and prone to getting stuck in blood vessels. While individuals of other ethnicities can also inherit the sickle cell trait, the risk and severity of the disease are highest among those of African descent.Rate this question:
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- 39.
True or False:At birth, blacks have lower serum cholesterol levels than whites. During childhood blacks have higher serum cholesterol levels than whites. These differences reverse during adulthood, when black adults have lower serum cholesterol levels than white adults.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 40.
Marasmus is:
- A.
Carbohydrate-calorie malnutrition
- B.
Results in an obese appearance
- C.
Can lead to bowel obstruction and cancer cachexia
- D.
Results in extreme amounts of fat
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Can lead to bowel obstruction and cancer cachexiaExplanation
Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition caused by a deficiency in both calories and protein. It is characterized by extreme weight loss, muscle wasting, and a shrunken appearance. The condition can lead to various complications, including bowel obstruction and cancer cachexia, which is a wasting syndrome commonly associated with advanced cancer. Therefore, the given answer stating that Marasmus can lead to bowel obstruction and cancer cachexia is correct.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Rickets:
- A.
Is a sign of vitamin D and calcium deficiencies
- B.
Is marked by disorders of cartilage cell growth
- C.
Can lead to osteomalacia in adults
- D.
Results in a bowlegged appearance
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The given answer "All of the above" is correct because rickets is indeed a sign of vitamin D and calcium deficiencies, it is marked by disorders of cartilage cell growth, it can lead to osteomalacia in adults, and it results in a bowlegged appearance.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 21, 2008Quiz Created by
Lailaa
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