1.
The nurse In-charge in labor and delivery unit administered a dose of terbutaline to a client without checking the client’s pulse. The standard that would be used to determine if the nurse was negligent is:
Correct Answer
D. The actions of a reasonably prudent nurse with similar education and experience.
Explanation
The standard of care is determined by the average degree of skill, care, and diligence by nurses in similar circumstances.
2.
Nurse Trish is caring for a female client with a history of GI
bleeding, sickle cell disease, and a platelet count of 22,000/μl. The
female client is dehydrated and receiving dextrose 5% in half-normal
saline solution at 150 ml/hr. The client complains of severe bone pain
and is scheduled to receive a dose of morphine sulfate. In
administering the medication, Nurse Trish should avoid which route?
Correct Answer
B. I.M
Explanation
With a platelet count of 22,000/μl, the clients tends to bleed easily. Therefore, the nurse should avoid using the I.M. route because the area is a highly vascular and can bleed readily when penetrated by a needle. The bleeding can be difficult to stop.
3.
Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the client who has been
recently admitted “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a
dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the
medication administration record?
Correct Answer
C. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
Explanation
The nurse should always place a zero before a decimal point so that no one misreads the figure, which could result in a dosage error. The nurse should never insert a zero at the end of a dosage that includes a decimal point because this could be misread, possibly leading to a tenfold increase in the dosage.
4.
A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis.
Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
Correct Answer
A. Ineffective peripHeral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion.
Explanation
Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion takes the highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a client with deep vein thrombosis.
5.
Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement?
Correct Answer
B. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.
Explanation
Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided.
6.
Nurse Gail places a client in a four-point restraint following orders from the physician. The client care plan should include:
Correct Answer
C. Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.
Explanation
Restraints encircle the limbs, which place the client at risk for circulation being restricted to the distal areas of the extremities. Checking the client’s circulation every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to adjust the restraints before injury from decreased blood flow occurs.
7.
A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist
therapy. The nurse In-charge knows the purpose of this therapy is to:
Correct Answer
A. Prevent stress ulcer
Explanation
Curling’s ulcer occurs as a generalized stress response in burn patients. This results in a decreased production of mucus and increased secretion of gastric acid. The best treatment for this prophylactic use of antacids and H2 receptor blockers.
8.
The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a postoperative
male client. The nurse Trish records the following amounts of output
for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9 a.m.: 60 ml. Based on these
amounts, which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer
D. Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output
Explanation
Normal urine output for an adult is approximately 1 ml/minute (60 ml/hour). Therefore, this client's output is normal. Beyond continued evaluation, no nursing action is warranted.
9.
Tony, a basketball player twist his right ankle while playing on the
court and seeks care for ankle pain and swelling. After the nurse
applies ice to the ankle for 30 minutes, which statement by Tony
suggests that ice application has been effective?
Correct Answer
B. “My ankle feels warm”.
Explanation
Ice application decreases pain and swelling. Continued or increased pain, redness, and increased warmth are signs of inflammation that shouldn't occur after ice application
10.
The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a client. When
administering this drug, the nurse anticipates that the client may
develop which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer
B. Hyperkalemia
Explanation
A loop diuretic removes water and, along with it, sodium and potassium. This may result in hypokalemia, hypovolemia, and hyponatremia.
11.
She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of
management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most
likely?
Correct Answer
A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
Explanation
Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers.
12.
Nurse Amy is aware that the following is true about functional nursing
Correct Answer
A. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services.
Explanation
Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the care of the patients.
13.
Which type of medication order might read "Vitamin K 10 mg I.M. daily × 3 days?"
Correct Answer
B. Standard written order
Explanation
This is a standard written order. Prescribers write a single order for medications given only once. A stat order is written for medications given immediately for an urgent client problem. A standing order, also known as a protocol, establishes guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms in special care areas such as the coronary care unit. Facilities also may institute medication protocols that specifically designate drugs that a nurse may not give.
14.
A female client with a fecal impaction frequently exhibits which clinical manifestation?
Correct Answer
D. Liquid or semi-liquid stools
Explanation
Passage of liquid or semi-liquid stools results from seepage of unformed bowel contents around the impacted stool in the rectum. Clients with fecal impaction don't pass hard, brown, formed stools because the feces can't move past the impaction. These clients typically report the urge to defecate (although they can't pass stool) and a decreased appetite.
15.
Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female
client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the
client's ear by:
Correct Answer
C. Pulling the helix up and back
Explanation
To perform an otoscopic examination on an adult, the nurse grasps the helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to straighten the ear canal. For a child, the nurse grasps the helix and pulls it down to straighten the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any direction wouldn't straighten the ear canal for visualization.
16.
Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a male client who is having external radiation therapy:
Correct Answer
A. Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.
Explanation
Irradiated skin is very sensitive and must be protected with clothing or sunblock. The priority approach is the avoidance of strong sunlight.
17.
In assisting a female client for immediate surgery, the nurse In-charge is aware that she should:
Correct Answer
C. Assist the client in removing dentures and nail polish.
Explanation
Dentures, hairpins, and combs must be removed. Nail polish must be removed so that cyanosis can be easily monitored by observing the nail beds.
18.
A male client is admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis
after a holiday celebration of excessive food and alcohol. Which
assessment finding reflects this diagnosis?
Correct Answer
D. Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.
Explanation
The autodigestion of tissue by the pancreatic enzymes results in pain from inflammation, edema, and possible hemorrhage. Continuous, unrelieved epigastric or back pain reflects the inflammatory process in the pancreas.
19.
Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse Oliver to implement in caring for the client with burns?
Correct Answer
B. Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
Explanation
A positive nitrogen balance is important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day.
20.
Nurse Hazel will administer a unit of whole blood, which priority information should the nurse have about the client?
Correct Answer
A. Blood pressure and pulse rate.
Explanation
The baseline must be established to recognize the signs of an anaphylactic or hemolytic reaction to the transfusion.
21.
Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain a fall and
suspects that the leg may be broken. The nurse takes which priority
action?
Correct Answer
D. Immobilize the leg before moving the client.
Explanation
If the nurse suspects a fracture, splinting the area before moving the client is imperative. The nurse should call for emergency help if the client is not hospitalized and call for a physician for the hospitalized client.
22.
A male client is being transferred to the nursing unit for admission
after receiving a radium implant for bladder cancer. The nurse
in-charge would take which priority action in the care of this client?
Correct Answer
B. Admit the client into a private room.
Explanation
The client who has a radiation implant is placed in a private room and has a limited number of visitors. This reduces the exposure of others to the radiation.
23.
A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer
C. Risk for infection
Explanation
Agranulocytosis is characterized by a reduced number of leukocytes (leucopenia) and neutrophils (neutropenia) in the blood. The client is at high risk for infection because of the decreased body defenses against microorganisms. Deficient knowledge related to the nature of the disorder may be appropriate diagnosis but is not the priority.
24.
A male client is receiving total parenteral nutrition suddenly
demonstrates signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the
priority action by the nurse?
Correct Answer
B. Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position.
Explanation
Lying on the left side may prevent air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. The Trendelenburg position increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases the amount of blood pulled into the vena cava during aspiration.
25.
Nurse May attends an educational conference on leadership styles.
The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who
states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented
and directive. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at
the trauma center is:
Correct Answer
A. Autocratic.
Explanation
The autocratic style of leadership is a task-oriented and directive.
26.
The physician orders DS 500 cc with KCl 10 mEq/liter at 30 cc/hr.
The nurse in-charge is going to hang a 500 cc bag. KCl is supplied 20
mEq/10 cc. How many cc’s of KCl will be added to the IV solution?
Correct Answer
D. 2.5 cc
Explanation
2.5 cc is to be added, because only a 500 cc bag of solution is being medicated instead of a 1 liter.
27.
A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV fluid in an 8
hour shift. The IV drip factor is 60. The IV rate that will deliver
this amount is:
Correct Answer
A. 50 cc/ hour
Explanation
A rate of 50 cc/hr. The child is to receive 400 cc over a period of 8 hours = 50 cc/hr.
28.
The nurse is aware that the most important nursing action when a client returns from surgery is:
Correct Answer
B. Assess the client for presence of pain.
Explanation
Assessing the client for pain is a very important measure. Postoperative pain is an indication of complication. The nurse should also assess the client for pain to provide for the client’s comfort.
29.
Which of the following vital sign assessments that may indicate cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer
A. BP – 80/60, Pulse – 110 irregular
Explanation
The classic signs of cardiogenic shock are low blood pressure, rapid and weak irregular pulse, cold, clammy skin, decreased urinary output, and cerebral hypoxia.
30.
Which is the most appropriate nursing action in obtaining a blood pressure measurement?
Correct Answer
A. Take the proper equipment, place the client in a comfortable position, and record the appropriate information in the client’s chart.
Explanation
It is a general or comprehensive statement about the correct procedure, and it includes the basic ideas which are found in the other options
31.
Asking the questions to determine if the person understands the
health teaching provided by the nurse would be included during which
step of the nursing process?
Correct Answer
B. Evaluation
Explanation
Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.
32.
Which of the following item is considered the single most important
factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis
or determining the person’s needs?
Correct Answer
C. History of present illness
Explanation
The history of present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.
33.
In preventing the development of an external rotation deformity of
the hip in a client who must remain in bed for any period of time, the
most appropriate nursing action would be to use:
Correct Answer
A. Trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ileum to the midthigh.
Explanation
A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.
34.
Which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue?
Correct Answer
C. Stage III
Explanation
Clinically, a deep crater or without undermining of adjacent tissue is noted.
35.
When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not
surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by
granulations, the wound healing is termed
Correct Answer
A. Second intention healing
Explanation
When wounds dehisce, they will allowed to heal by secondary intention
36.
An 80-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with a
diagnosis of pneumonia. Nurse Oliver learns that the client lives alone
and hasn’t been eating or drinking. When assessing him for dehydration,
nurse Oliver would expect to find:
Correct Answer
D. Tachycardia
Explanation
With an extracellular fluid or plasma volume deficit, compensatory mechanisms stimulate the heart, causing an increase in heart rate.
37.
The physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4
hours as needed, to control a client’s postoperative pain. The package
insert is “Meperidine, 100 mg/ml.” How many milliliters of meperidine
should theclient receive?
Correct Answer
A. 0.75
Explanation
To determine the number of milliliters the client should receive, the nurse uses the fraction method in the following equation.
75 mg/X ml = 100 mg/1 ml
To solve for X, cross-multiply:
75 mg x 1 ml = X ml x 100 mg
75 = 100X
75/100 = X
0.75 ml (or ¾ ml) = X
38.
A male client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin. Which statement correctly describes an insulin unit?
Correct Answer
D. It’s a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity.
Explanation
An insulin unit is a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity. Different drugs measured in units may have no relationship to one another in quality or quantity.
39.
Nurse Oliver measures a client’s temperature at 102° F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature?
Correct Answer
B. 38.9 °C
Explanation
To convert Fahrenheit degreed to Centigrade, use this formula
°C = (°F – 32) ÷ 1.8
°C = (102 – 32) ÷ 1.8
°C = 70 ÷ 1.8
°C = 38.9
40.
The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client who has come to the
physician’s office for his annual physical exam. One of the first
physical signs of aging is:
Correct Answer
C. Failing eyesight, especially close vision.
Explanation
Failing eyesight, especially close vision, is one of the first signs of aging in middle life (ages 46 to 64). More frequent aches and pains begin in the early late years (ages 65 to 79). Increase in loss of muscle tone occurs in later years (age 80 and older).
41.
The physician inserts a chest tube into a female client to treat a
pneumothorax. The tube is connected to water-seal drainage. The nurse
in-charge can prevent chest tube air leaks by:
Correct Answer
A. Checking and taping all connections.
Explanation
Air leaks commonly occur if the system isn’t secure. Checking all connections and taping them will prevent air leaks. The chest drainage system is kept lower to promote drainage – not to prevent leaks.
42.
Nurse Trish must verify the client’s identity before administering
medication. She is aware that the safest way to verify identity is to:
Correct Answer
A. Check the client’s identification band.
Explanation
Checking the client’s identification band is the safest way to verify a client’s identity because the band is assigned on admission and isn’t be removed at any time. (If it is removed, it must be replaced). Asking the client’s name or having the client repeated his name would be appropriate only for a client who’s alert, oriented, and able to understand what is being said, but isn’t the safe standard of practice. Names on bed aren’t always reliable
43.
The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water, 1,000 ml to be infused
over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should
run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:
Correct Answer
B. 32 drops/minute
Explanation
Giving 1,000 ml over 8 hours is the same as giving 125 ml over 1 hour (60 minutes). Find the number of milliliters per minute as follows:
125/60 minutes = X/1 minute
60X = 125 = 2.1 ml/minute
To find the number of drops per minute:
2.1 ml/X gtt = 1 ml/ 15 gtt
X = 32 gtt/minute, or 32 drops/minute
44.
If a central venous catheter becomes disconnected accidentally, what should the nurse in-charge do immediately?
Correct Answer
A. Clamp the catheter
Explanation
If a central venous catheter becomes disconnected, the nurse should immediately apply a catheter clamp, if available. If a clamp isn’t available, the nurse can place a sterile syringe or catheter plug in the catheter hub. After cleaning the hub with alcohol or povidone-iodine solution, the nurse must replace the I.V. extension and restart the infusion.
45.
A female client was recently admitted. She has fever, weight loss,
and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. While assessing
the client, Nurse Hazel inspects the client’s abdomen and notice that
it is slightly concave. Additional assessment should proceed in which
order:
Correct Answer
D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation.
Explanation
The correct order of assessment for examining the abdomen is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. The reason for this approach is that the less intrusive techniques should be performed before the more intrusive techniques. Percussion and palpation can alter natural findings during auscultation.
46.
Nurse Betty is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia. For this examination, nurse Betty should use the:
Correct Answer
D. Ulnar surface of the hand
Explanation
The nurse uses the ulnar surface, or ball, of the hand to asses tactile fremitus, thrills, and vocal vibrations through the chest wall. The fingertips and finger pads best distinguish texture and shape. The dorsal surface best feels warmth.
47.
Which type of evaluation occurs continuously throughout the teaching and learning process?
Correct Answer
C. Formative
Explanation
Formative (or concurrent) evaluation occurs continuously throughout the teaching and learning process. One benefit is that the nurse can adjust teaching strategies as necessary to enhance learning. Summative, or retrospective, evaluation occurs at the conclusion of the teaching and learning session. Informative is not a type of evaluation.
48.
A 45 year old client, has no family history of breast cancer or
other risk factors for this disease. Nurse John should instruct her to
have mammogram how often?
Correct Answer
B. Once per year
Explanation
Yearly mammograms should begin at age 40 and continue for
as long as the woman is in good health. If health risks, such as family history, genetic tendency, or past breast cancer, exist, more frequent examinations may be necessary.
49.
A male client has the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7.30;
Pao2 89 mmHg; Paco2 50 mmHg; and HCO3 26mEq/L. Based on these values,
Nurse Patricia should expect which condition?
Correct Answer
A. Respiratory acidosis
Explanation
The client has a below-normal (acidic) blood pH value and an above-normal partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) value, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH value is above normal and in the Paco2 value is below normal. In metabolic acidosis, the pH and bicarbonate (Hco3) values are below normal. In metabolic alkalosis, the pH and Hco3 values are above normal.
50.
Nurse Len refers a female client with terminal cancer to a local hospice. What is the goal of this referral?
Correct Answer
B. To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness.
Explanation
Hospices provide supportive care for terminally ill clients and their families. Hospice care doesn’t focus on counseling regarding health care costs. Most client referred to hospices have been treated for their disease without success and will receive only palliative care in the hospice.