2A672 Code 6 Volume 1 UREs Complete

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 682

Questions: 88 | Attempts: 324 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Code 6 UREs volume 1 is a quiz testing your knowledge on different concepts in Physics. The topics tested vary from atomic structure, energy just to mention but a few. Take it up and see how good you are.

Questions and Answers

1.

What is the simplest form of matter?
- A.
  
  Element
- B.
  
  Mixture
- C.
  
  Electrons
- D.
  
  Compound
Correct Answer
A. Element

Explanation
An element is the simplest form of matter because it consists of only one type of atom. Atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, and each element has its own unique set of properties. Mixtures, compounds, and electrons are not the simplest form of matter because they involve the combination of multiple elements or subatomic particles.

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2.

In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?
- A.
  
  The energy is shared equal by all electrons
- B.
  
  Orbiting electrons
- C.
  
  Valance electrons
- D.
  
  K shell electrons
Correct Answer
C. Valance electrons

Explanation
Valance electrons contain the most energy in an atom. These are the electrons in the outermost energy level or shell of an atom. Valence electrons are involved in chemical bonding and are more easily lost or gained during chemical reactions, which requires energy. Therefore, they have the highest energy compared to the other electrons in the atom.

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3.

If there are 8 electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, then it is considered
- A.
  
  Complete
- B.
  
  Unstable
- C.
  
  Charged
- D.
  
  Stable
Correct Answer
D. Stable

Explanation
If an atom has 8 electrons in its outermost shell, it is considered stable. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is considered complete when it has 8 electrons. This configuration is known as the octet rule, which states that atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons in order to achieve a stable configuration with 8 electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, having 8 electrons in the outermost shell indicates stability.

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4.

Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as
- A.
  
  Insulators
- B.
  
  Conductors
- C.
  
  Stable atoms
- D.
  
  Semiconductors
Correct Answer
A. Insulators

Explanation
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators. This is because insulators have a completely filled valence shell, which makes it difficult for them to gain or lose electrons and participate in electrical conductivity. In contrast, conductors have fewer than four electrons in their valence shell, allowing them to easily move and conduct electricity. Stable atoms refer to atoms that have a full valence shell and are not likely to react with other atoms. Semiconductors have properties between those of insulators and conductors, but the given range does not match their characteristics.

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5.

The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move
- A.
  
  Inward
- B.
  
  Outward
- C.
  
  Inward, then outward
- D.
  
  Outward, then inward
Correct Answer
B. Outward

Explanation
The correct answer is "outward" because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, causing them to have a positive charge. In electrostatic fields, positive charges repel each other, so the electrostatic field lines around a positive ion will move away from each other, or outward. This movement is a result of the repulsion between the positive charges, creating an outward flow of the electrostatic field lines.

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6.

The force required to move free electrons through a conductor is known as
- A.
  
  Current
- B.
  
  Voltage
- C.
  
  Negative charge
- D.
  
  Electrostatic force
Correct Answer
B. Voltage

Explanation
Voltage is the correct answer because it refers to the force or electrical potential difference that drives the movement of free electrons through a conductor. It is the measure of the energy per unit charge that is required to move the electrons. Current, on the other hand, refers to the flow of charge itself, while negative charge and electrostatic force are not specifically related to the force required to move electrons through a conductor.

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7.

What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?
- A.
  
  Area, weight, and state of material
- B.
  
  Area, temperature, and type of material
- C.
  
  Temperature, weight and state of material
- D.
  
  Temperature, type of material, and state of material
Correct Answer
B. Area, temperature, and type of material

Explanation
The factors that affect the resistance of a material are its area, temperature, and type of material. The area of the material affects resistance because a larger area allows for more current flow and therefore less resistance. Temperature affects resistance because as temperature increases, the resistance of the material also increases. The type of material affects resistance because different materials have different resistivities, which determine their ability to conduct electricity.

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8.

What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and total current is 2 amps?
- A.
  
  40 ohms
- B.
  
  20 ohms
- C.
  
  10 ohms
- D.
  
  0.5 ohms
Correct Answer
C. 10 ohms

Explanation
The resistance in a circuit can be calculated using the formula P = I^2 * R, where P is the power rating, I is the total current, and R is the resistance. Rearranging the formula, we get R = P / I^2. Plugging in the given values, we have R = 40 / 2^2 = 40 / 4 = 10 ohms. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 ohms.

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9.

in a series-parallel circuit, find RT if series resistor R1= 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3= 8 ohms.
- A.
  
  23 ohms
- B.
  
  15 ohms
- C.
  
  11 ohms
- D.
  
  8 ohms
Correct Answer
C. 11 ohms

Explanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total resistance (RT) can be calculated by adding the resistances of the series resistors and the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the parallel resistors. In this case, the series resistor R1 has a resistance of 7 ohms. The parallel resistors R2 and R3 have a combined resistance of 8 ohms. Therefore, the total resistance is 7 ohms + 8 ohms = 15 ohms.

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10.

In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1=9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2= 5amps; and thevalue of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm's law to find the value of I3 and IT.
- A.
  
  I3= 4amps and IT= 14 amps
- B.
  
  I3=4 amps and IT=9amps
- C.
  
  I3=4 amps and IT=18 amps
- D.
  
  Not enough information to solve
Correct Answer
B. I3=4 amps and IT=9amps

Explanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total current (IT) is equal to the sum of the currents in the series and parallel branches. Given that I1=9 amps and I2=5 amps, we can calculate IT by adding these two currents together: IT = I1 + I2 = 9 amps + 5 amps = 14 amps. Since the value of I3 is not listed, we cannot determine its value directly. However, since IT = I1 + I2, and I1 = I3 in a series circuit, we can conclude that I3 must be equal to I1, which is 9 amps. Therefore, the correct answer is I3=4 amps (not listed) and IT=9 amps.

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11.

In a series-parallel circuit, total voltage is 12 volts, the value of E1 in the series portion of the circuit is unknown. There are two parallel branches (E2=3volts) and the value of E3 in the second parallel branch is unknown. Using Ohm's law, find the value of E1 and E3.
- A.
  
  E3= 9 volts and E1= 12 volts
- B.
  
  E3= 9 volts and E1 = 3 volts
- C.
  
  E3= 3 volts and E1= 6 volts
- D.
  
  E3= 3 volts and E1= 9 volts
Correct Answer
D. E3= 3 volts and E1= 9 volts

Explanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total voltage is divided among the different components. In this case, the total voltage is 12 volts. Since E2 is given as 3 volts, the remaining voltage (12 - 3 = 9 volts) must be divided between E1 and E3. Since E1 is in the series portion of the circuit, it will receive the same voltage as the total voltage, which is 9 volts. Therefore, E1 = 9 volts. The remaining voltage of 9 volts is then divided between E2 and E3, and since E2 is given as 3 volts, E3 must be 3 volts. Therefore, E3 = 3 volts.

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12.

What is the difference between an open and a short?
- A.
  
  An open causes resistance to decrease; a short causes resistance to increase
- B.
  
  Excessive current flow in an open circuit; no current flow in a shorted component
- C.
  
  No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component
- D.
  
  Minimum voltage development across the open component; maximum voltage development across the shorted component
Correct Answer
C. No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component

Explanation
An open circuit refers to a break or disconnect in the circuit, which prevents the flow of current. As a result, there is no current flow in an open circuit. On the other hand, a short circuit occurs when there is an unintended connection or low resistance path in the circuit. This causes excessive current flow through the shorted component. Therefore, the correct answer states that there is no current flow in an open circuit, while there is excessive current flow in a shorted component.

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13.

When voltage is induced into a conductor by a relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field this principle is known as
- A.
  
  Magnetism
- B.
  
  Reluctance
- C.
  
  Direct current
- D.
  
  Electromagnetic induction
Correct Answer
D. Electromagnetic induction

Explanation
Electromagnetic induction is the principle where voltage is induced into a conductor due to the relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field. This phenomenon was discovered by Michael Faraday in the early 19th century and is the basis for the working of many electrical devices such as generators and transformers. It is an essential concept in electromagnetism and plays a crucial role in the generation and transmission of electric power.

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14.

In an inductive circuit, what is meant by current lags voltage by 90 degrees?
- A.
  
  Current is zero when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is maximum
- B.
  
  Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero
- C.
  
  If current decreases, voltage aids in the decrease
- D.
  
  If current increases, voltage aids the increase
Correct Answer
B. Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero

Explanation
In an inductive circuit, current lags voltage by 90 degrees means that the current reaches its maximum value when the voltage is at its minimum value (zero), and vice versa. This is because in an inductive circuit, the voltage leads the current by 90 degrees. When the voltage is at its maximum value, the current is at its minimum value, and when the voltage is at its minimum value, the current is at its maximum value. This phase difference between current and voltage is a characteristic of inductive circuits.

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15.

What is the basic principle of operation of transformers?
- A.
  
  Mutual induction
- B.
  
  Magnetic induction
- C.
  
  Counterelectromotive force
- D.
  
  Primary and secondary induction
Correct Answer
A. Mutual induction

Explanation
The basic principle of operation of transformers is mutual induction. Mutual induction refers to the process where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in a nearby coil. In a transformer, this principle is utilized to transfer electrical energy from one circuit to another through electromagnetic induction. The primary coil, connected to an alternating current source, produces a changing magnetic field which induces a voltage in the secondary coil. This voltage can be stepped up or stepped down depending on the number of turns in each coil, allowing for efficient power transmission.

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16.

What transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path into which voltage is induced?
- A.
  
  Field
- B.
  
  Primary
- C.
  
  Secondary
- D.
  
  Stationary
Correct Answer
C. Secondary

Explanation
The secondary winding of a transformer acts as a conductor and provides the path into which voltage is induced. When an alternating current flows through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary winding, which can be used to power electrical devices or transmit power over long distances. The secondary winding is typically connected to the load or the circuit that requires the induced voltage.

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17.

If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?
- A.
  
  Capacitance increases
- B.
  
  Capacitance decreases
- C.
  
  Electrons distorted and scattered
- D.
  
  Electrostatic force between the plates decreases
Correct Answer
A. Capacitance increases

Explanation
When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases. Capacitance is directly proportional to the area of the plates and inversely proportional to the distance between them. Therefore, when the size of the plates is increased, the area of the plates increases, resulting in an increase in capacitance.

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18.

What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?
- A.
  
  Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
- B.
  
  Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees
- C.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other
- D.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged
Correct Answer
A. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

Explanation
A capacitive circuit is characterized by the fact that the current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its peak value before the voltage does in a capacitive circuit. This behavior is due to the nature of a capacitor, which stores and releases electrical energy in response to changes in voltage. As the voltage across the capacitor increases, the current flows into the capacitor, causing it to charge. Conversely, as the voltage decreases, the capacitor discharges, and the current flows out of the capacitor. This phase shift of 90 degrees between current and voltage is a fundamental characteristic of capacitive circuits.

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19.

In what type of circuit(s) does a capacitor oppose any change in voltage
- A.
  
  Alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)
- B.
  
  Pulsating DC
- C.
  
  Pure DC
- D.
  
  AC
Correct Answer
D. AC

Explanation
A capacitor opposes any change in voltage in AC circuits because it stores and releases electrical energy in response to the alternating current flow. As the voltage in an AC circuit constantly changes direction, the capacitor charges and discharges accordingly, creating a counteracting effect against sudden changes in voltage. On the other hand, in DC circuits, the voltage remains constant, so a capacitor does not oppose any change in voltage. Therefore, the correct answer is AC.

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20.

What statement best describes a diode
- A.
  
  Is a five-terminal device
- B.
  
  Is a three-terminal device
- C.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other
- D.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged
Correct Answer
C. Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other

Explanation
A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. This characteristic is known as its ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.

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21.

What are the minority carriers in P-type material?
- A.
  
  Holes
- B.
  
  Protons
- C.
  
  Neutrons
- D.
  
  Electrons
Correct Answer
D. Electrons

Explanation
In P-type material, majority carriers are holes, which are positively charged. Minority carriers, on the other hand, are the opposite charge carriers, which in this case are electrons. Electrons are negatively charged and are present in lower concentrations compared to the majority carriers. Therefore, the correct answer is electrons.

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22.

The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as
- A.
  
  Dielectric region
- B.
  
  Depletion region
- C.
  
  Depletion field
- D.
  
  PN region
Correct Answer
B. Depletion region

Explanation
The area where P-type material is joined to N-type material in a semiconductor is known as the depletion region. This region is created due to the diffusion of minority carriers across the junction, resulting in the formation of a region devoid of free charge carriers. The depletion region acts as a barrier for the flow of current, preventing the majority carriers from crossing the junction. It plays a crucial role in the operation of various semiconductor devices, such as diodes and transistors.

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23.

A junction diode has how many PN junction(s)?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
A. 1

Explanation
A junction diode has only one PN junction. A PN junction is formed by the combination of a P-type semiconductor and an N-type semiconductor. The junction between these two types of semiconductors creates a depletion region, which allows the diode to control the flow of current. Therefore, a junction diode has one PN junction.

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24.

If a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is
- A.
  
  Not allowing current to flow
- B.
  
  Forward biased
- C.
  
  Reverse biased
- D.
  
  Turned on
Correct Answer
B. Forward biased

Explanation
When a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is forward biased. In this configuration, the positive potential at the anode repels the majority charge carriers in the N-region, while the negative potential at the cathode attracts the majority charge carriers in the P-region. This creates a low resistance path for current flow across the junction, allowing current to flow through the diode.

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25.

In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating cuurent (AC)?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  2
- D.
  
  1
Correct Answer
C. 2

Explanation
In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, there are two diodes that are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC). The bridge rectifier consists of four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the positive half-cycle of AC, two diodes conduct and allow the current to flow through them, while the other two diodes are reverse biased and do not conduct. This allows the AC current to be converted into a pulsating DC current. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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26.

How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?
- A.
  
  In parallel to the load
- B.
  
  In series with the load
- C.
  
  In parallel to the resistor
- D.
  
  In series with the resistor
Correct Answer
A. In parallel to the load

Explanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to regulate voltage. When connected in this way, the zener diode acts as a voltage regulator by maintaining a constant voltage across the load. It does this by allowing current to flow through itself when the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode. This effectively limits the voltage across the load, preventing it from exceeding the desired value.

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27.

How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?
- A.
  
  In a parallel to the resistor
- B.
  
  In series with the load
- C.
  
  In parallel to the load
- D.
  
  Forward biased
Correct Answer
C. In parallel to the load

Explanation
The zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds a certain threshold, the zener diode starts conducting and provides a low-resistance path for the excess current to flow through. This prevents the voltage from rising further and protects the load from damage. By being connected in parallel, the zener diode does not affect the normal operation of the circuit but only comes into action when necessary.

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28.

What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?
- A.
  
  Electronic switch
- B.
  
  Voltage regulator
- C.
  
  Circuit amplifier
- D.
  
  Spike protector
Correct Answer
A. Electronic switch

Explanation
A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is primarily used as an electronic switch. It is a semiconductor device that can control the flow of electric current. When a small current is applied to the gate terminal of the SCR, it allows a larger current to flow from the anode to the cathode terminals. This characteristic makes it useful for controlling the power flow in various electronic circuits and systems.

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29.

The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
D. 4

Explanation
An SCR, or silicon-controlled rectifier, is a four-layer semiconductor device that acts as a switch for high-power electrical circuits. It consists of three P-N junctions and four layers of alternating P-type and N-type materials. The four layers are the anode layer, the P1 layer, the N layer, and the P2 layer. The presence of these layers allows the SCR to control the flow of current in a circuit, making it an essential component in various applications such as power supplies and motor control.

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30.

In order to turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the
- A.
  
  Trigger current
- B.
  
  Holding current
- C.
  
  Variable current
- D.
  
  Breakdown current
Correct Answer
B. Holding current

Explanation
To turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the holding current. The holding current is the minimum current required to maintain the SCR in the on state once it has been triggered. If the current falls below this threshold, the SCR will turn off and stop conducting. Therefore, the holding current is the correct answer as it accurately describes the condition required to turn off an SCR.

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31.

What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?
- A.
  
  A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator
- B.
  
  An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch
- C.
  
  Direction of current flow
- D.
  
  Number of junctions
Correct Answer
C. Direction of current flow

Explanation
The major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This fundamental difference in current flow direction is what distinguishes these two types of transistors and determines their specific applications and behaviors.

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32.

If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transistor is it?
- A.
  
  N-type
- B.
  
  P-type
- C.
  
  NPN
- D.
  
  PNP
Correct Answer
C. NPN

Explanation
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that the transistor is an NPN type. In an NPN transistor, the base region is P-type, and the emitter and collector regions are N-type. The arrow represents the direction of conventional current flow, which is from the emitter to the base and then to the collector.

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33.

The most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor is the
- A.
  
  Load circuit
- B.
  
  Collector
- C.
  
  Emitter
- D.
  
  Base
Correct Answer
C. Emitter

Explanation
The emitter is the most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor. This is because the emitter is connected to the positive supply voltage, while the collector is connected to the negative supply voltage. The base is the control terminal that regulates the flow of current between the emitter and collector. Therefore, the emitter is considered the most positive point in the transistor circuit.

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34.

The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the
- A.
  
  Base circuit
- B.
  
  Load circuit
- C.
  
  Control circuit
- D.
  
  Emitter-collector circuit
Correct Answer
C. Control circuit

Explanation
The control circuit in a bipolar transistor is responsible for regulating the amount of current flowing through the transistor. It consists of the base-emitter junction and the base current. By adjusting the base current, the control circuit determines the amount of current that can flow from the collector to the emitter. In this case, since the control circuit carries only 5 percent of the total current flow, it indicates that it is responsible for controlling a small portion of the current in the transistor.

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35.

What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?
- A.
  
  Resistance decreases and current through the load circuit decreases
- B.
  
  Current decreases through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit
- C.
  
  Resistance increases and current flow decreases
- D.
  
  Current increases through the E-C circuit
Correct Answer
D. Current increases through the E-C circuit

Explanation
When the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier, it causes an increase in the current through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit. This is because the emitter-base junction acts as a current amplifier, and an increase in the E-B current results in a proportional increase in the E-C current. Therefore, the correct answer is that current increases through the E-C circuit.

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36.

What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?
- A.
  
  Anode, cathode, and gate
- B.
  
  Emitter, base 1, and base 2
- C.
  
  Emitter, collector, and base
- D.
  
  Common emitter, common collector, and common base
Correct Answer
B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2

Explanation
The three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) are called emitter, base 1, and base 2.

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37.

The emitter in a unijunction transistor (UJT) always points toward the
- A.
  
  Base 1 lead
- B.
  
  Collector
- C.
  
  Emitter
- D.
  
  Gate
Correct Answer
A. Base 1 lead

Explanation
In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the emitter always points towards the Base 1 lead. This is because the Base 1 lead is the control terminal of the UJT, and the emitter is responsible for controlling the current flow between the other two terminals (the emitter and the Base 2 lead). By pointing the emitter towards the Base 1 lead, the UJT can effectively regulate the current flow and perform its intended function.

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38.

What controls the firing time of a unijunction transistor (UJT)?
- A.
  
  Intrinsic standoff ratio
- B.
  
  Resistance in the circuit
- C.
  
  Capacitance in the circuit
- D.
  
  Resistance and capacitance in the circuit
Correct Answer
D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuit

Explanation
The firing time of a unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. These two components determine the charging and discharging time of the UJT, which in turn affects the firing time. The resistance determines the rate at which the UJT charges and discharges, while the capacitance determines the amount of charge that can be stored. By adjusting these two parameters, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled.

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39.

A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of how many semiconductors
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
A. 2

Explanation
An MOV is made up of two semiconductors. A metal oxide varistor is a type of voltage-dependent resistor that is commonly used to protect electrical circuits from excessive voltage. It is made up of a ceramic material, typically zinc oxide, which acts as a semiconductor. The varistor has two terminals, and when a voltage is applied across it, the resistance decreases significantly, allowing current to flow through. This characteristic makes it effective in diverting excess voltage away from sensitive components in order to protect them from damage.

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40.

What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?
- A.
  
  Load rheostat
- B.
  
  No load rheostat
- C.
  
  Line drop switch
- D.
  
  Voltage adjustment rheostat
Correct Answer
A. Load rheostat

Explanation
The load rheostat is the component of the voltage regulator that compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. It adjusts the resistance in the circuit to maintain a consistent voltage output, compensating for any fluctuations or losses caused by the power cable.

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41.

The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer
- A.
  
  (T1) and rectifier (B3)
- B.
  
  (T3) and rectifier (B2)
- C.
  
  (T2) and rectifier (B1)
- D.
  
  (T1) and rectifier (CR26)
Correct Answer
D. (T1) and rectifier (CR26)

Explanation
The correct answer is (T1) and rectifier (CR26). The exciter field voltage is supplied by a transformer (T1) and a rectifier (CR26). The transformer steps up or steps down the incoming voltage to the desired level, and the rectifier converts the alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) to supply the exciter field. This combination of transformer and rectifier ensures that the exciter field receives the correct voltage for proper operation.

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42.

Refer to foldout 1. After performing an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S46 open
- B.
  
  S48 open
- C.
  
  S46 closed
- D.
  
  S48 closed
Correct Answer
D. S48 closed

Explanation
When S48 is closed, it means that the switch is still in the "on" position even though the generator has been shut down. This could be the probable cause of the engine on light continuing to glow. Closing the switch would keep the circuit connected and the light illuminated, indicating that the engine is still running even though it has been shut down.

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43.

Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  M4 is open
- B.
  
  S53 is open
- C.
  
  K23 is open
- D.
  
  K16 is open
Correct Answer
B. S53 is open

Explanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open.

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44.

Refer to foldout 1. You are operating an A/M32A-86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S1 is in the automatic position
- B.
  
  R61 is turned fully clockwise
- C.
  
  K16 contacts are closing
- D.
  
  K23 contacts are open
Correct Answer
D. K23 contacts are open

Explanation
The probable cause of the voltage not building up in the A/M32A-86D generator set is that the K23 contacts are open.

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45.

During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, what position do you place control switch S13 in to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 revolutions per minute (RPM)?
- A.
  
  IDLE
- B.
  
  GENERATE
- C.
  
  BUILD UP VOLTS
- D.
  
  AUTO TEST BANK
Correct Answer
B. GENERATE

Explanation
To increase the engine speed to 2,000 RPM during the operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you would place control switch S13 in the "GENERATE" position.

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46.

Refer to foldout 1. During an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S48 open
- B.
  
  S46 open
- C.
  
  S49 shorted
- D.
  
  S22 stuck open
Correct Answer
C. S49 shorted

Explanation
The probable cause of the shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates is that S49 is shorted.

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47.

Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  A2
- B.
  
  DS50
- C.
  
  S55 is closed
- D.
  
  S48 is closed
Correct Answer
A. A2

Explanation
The probable cause of the low coolant light (DS50) illuminating but the unit not shutting down is that S55 is closed.

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48.

What component controls the strength of th A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2?
- A.
  
  Excitation relay K16
- B.
  
  Time delay relay K14
- C.
  
  Voltage regulator VR1
- D.
  
  Automatic manual switch S1
Correct Answer
C. Voltage regulator VR1

Explanation
The voltage regulator VR1 controls the strength of the generator exciter field L2 in the A/M32A-86D generator. It regulates the voltage output of the generator, which in turn determines the strength of the exciter field. By adjusting the voltage, the voltage regulator can control the strength of the exciter field and ensure that it is at the desired level for proper generator operation.

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49.

What component on an A/M32A-86D generator is used to manually increase output voltage?
- A.
  
  Voltage rheostat R61
- B.
  
  Excitation relay K16
- C.
  
  Test bank switch S202
- D.
  
  Auto/Manual switch S1
Correct Answer
A. Voltage rheostat R61

Explanation
The voltage rheostat R61 is used to manually increase the output voltage on an A/M32A-86D generator. This component allows the user to adjust the resistance in the circuit, which in turn affects the output voltage. By increasing the resistance, the voltage can be increased. Therefore, the voltage rheostat R61 is the correct answer to the question.

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50.

Refer to foldout 1. Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field?
- A.
  
  J8, terminal D-F
- B.
  
  J8, terminal V-X
- C.
  
  VR1, terminal C-R
- D.
  
  Automatic/manual switch S1
Correct Answer
A. J8, terminal D-F

Explanation
The best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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May 21, 2014

Quiz Created by
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2A672 Code 6 Volume 1 UREs Complete

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In an inductive circuit, what is meant by current lags voltage by 90 degrees?

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If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?

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Refer to foldout 1. After performing an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Refer to foldout 1. You are operating an A/M32A-86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, what position do you place control switch S13 in to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 revolutions per minute (RPM)?

Refer to foldout 1. During an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

What component controls the strength of th A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2?

What component on an A/M32A-86D generator is used to manually increase output voltage?

Refer to foldout 1. Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field?