1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?
Correct Answer
D. Air education and training command
Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force personnel. As TDs are directly involved in training activities, it makes sense for them to be assigned to the command that focuses on education and training. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (ARC), have different areas of responsibility and are not specifically dedicated to training and education.
2.
The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance orientation
Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach maintenance orientation in a maintenance training flight (MTF) course. This method involves grouping related topics together in blocks or modules, allowing for a more organized and comprehensive approach to training. Maintenance orientation is crucial in familiarizing trainees with the basic concepts, procedures, and responsibilities related to maintenance operations. It provides an overview of the maintenance organization, safety practices, documentation requirements, and other essential aspects of the maintenance field.
3.
How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)
Correct Answer
B. Semi-annually
Explanation
The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the Special Certification Roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of the personnel listed on the roster and can take appropriate actions if any certifications have expired or need renewal. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually helps maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications within the maintenance operations.
4.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of
Correct Answer
B. MSgt
Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can have the authority to downgrade a "red-x." This requirement ensures that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are given the responsibility to make such decisions, as they have demonstrated their expertise and leadership capabilities through their rank advancement.
5.
TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
Explanation
TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that personnel can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows them to stay updated on their own professional development and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.
6.
In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?
Correct Answer
C. Application problems
Explanation
The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update info. This means that users will be informed about any issues or glitches with the application, allowing them to be aware of and possibly troubleshoot any problems they may encounter while using it.
7.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
Correct Answer
B. 2
Explanation
The correct answer is 2. The training phase that has these four sub-phases is the Initial Qualification Training phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which involves learning the basic skills and knowledge required for the job. The majcom mandatory phase focuses on specific requirements set by the Major Command. The freeflow phase allows trainees to practice their skills in a more independent and flexible manner. Finally, the maintenance qualification training phase ensures that trainees are fully qualified and competent in their job before moving on to operational duties.
8.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment courses?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification
Explanation
Continuation training in maintenance consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that build upon the initial skills training received through AETC Mission Ready Airman (MRA) and training detachment courses. This training focuses on enhancing and expanding the maintenance qualifications of the individuals, ensuring they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively. It helps them stay updated with the latest developments in their field and maintain their proficiency.
9.
How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly
Explanation
The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the progress and status of their training activities. This regular briefing helps the commander stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the maintenance training program.
10.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated. provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
If an individual is due for a training recertification while TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or period of incapacitation. If they fail to complete the recertification within these 30 days, they will be decertified.
11.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager
Explanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the trainee is prepared and ready for the career development course and that both the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on expectations and goals.
12.
Manpower authorizations are
Correct Answer
A. Funded
Explanation
Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations.
13.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held
Correct Answer
B. Monthly
Explanation
The correct answer is monthly because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is typically held once a month. Holding the meeting on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on staffing needs and concerns within the group. This frequency ensures that any issues related to manning can be addressed in a timely manner and appropriate actions can be taken to resolve them.
14.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is
Correct Answer
A. 12 hrs
Explanation
The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that any shift longer than 12 hours would require approval from the maintenance group commander.
15.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
Correct Answer
C. 16 hrs
Explanation
Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding the standard 12-hour limit. In this case, the correct answer is 16 hours, indicating that the maintenance group commanders can approve shifts up to 16 hours in duration.
16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liason
Explanation
A maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance and supply personnel, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or discrepancies that may arise in the supply chain, working towards efficient and effective supply management.
17.
Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the
Correct Answer
B. Logistics readiness squadron
Explanation
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the logistics readiness squadron. The logistics readiness squadron is responsible for coordinating and managing all logistics operations within the organization. This includes supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As maintenance supply liaison personnel are involved in the supply and maintenance aspects of the organization, it makes sense for them to report directly to the logistics readiness squadron, which oversees these functions.
18.
Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
Explanation
The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a maintenance supply liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in assets is more likely a responsibility of a different role or department within the organization.
19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This transfer ensures that the assets are properly accounted for and integrated into the base's supply system for efficient management and distribution.
20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
Correct Answer
D. Xb3
Explanation
The correct answer xb3 refers to the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock. The ERRC system is used to determine the level of maintenance support required for an asset, with xb3 indicating that the asset is expendable and cannot be repaired or recovered. This means that if the asset becomes unserviceable, it will be disposed of rather than repaired or replaced.
21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
Correct Answer
A. 30
Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days, ensuring that there is no shortage of essential items or equipment. Having a 30-day supply allows for efficient operations and minimizes the risk of disruptions due to stockouts or delays in replenishment.
22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
Correct Answer
B. 2
Explanation
You are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date a shelf life item if it is still serviceable.
23.
Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
Explanation
The maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This individual oversees the operations and maintenance of the squadron, ensuring that they have the necessary resources, equipment, and personnel to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They are responsible for coordinating with other units and departments to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place and that any issues or challenges are addressed promptly.
24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
Correct Answer
B. Engineering data service center
Explanation
The engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the relevant information related to engineering projects. This includes drawings, blueprints, specifications, and other technical data. By having a central repository, engineers and other stakeholders can easily access and retrieve the necessary information when needed. This helps to ensure that accurate and up-to-date data is available for reference and use in various engineering projects.
25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water
Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not the only cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of contamination in the environment.
26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor
Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations and safety within a specific section or department. They have direct knowledge of the hazards present in their work area and are in the best position to create and implement a training plan to ensure personnel are aware of these hazards and how to mitigate them.
27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
Correct Answer
A. Afto form 20, caution tag
Explanation
The correct answer is "afto form 20, caution tag." The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions, and the caution tag is specifically used to indicate that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag serves as a visual reminder to personnel that the part is ready for use and has been properly prepared.
28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Correct Answer
B. Squadron commander
Explanation
The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian.
29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
Correct Answer
C. 2b
Explanation
Before assuming duties as a Due-In From Maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block 2b of supply training. This training is essential as it provides the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively monitor and manage DIFM items, which are items that are awaiting repair or maintenance. The training likely covers topics such as tracking DIFM items, coordinating with maintenance personnel, and ensuring timely repairs and replacements.
30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Correct Answer
D. Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss
Explanation
The correct answer is dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in recording the details of the investigation, including the cause of the loss, responsible parties, and the amount of financial liability. This documentation is crucial for accountability and ensuring proper procedures are followed in cases of property loss.
31.
Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Correct Answer
B. Equipment liason office (ELO)
Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are recorded on in-use detail records. The ELO is in charge of coordinating equipment needs and ensuring proper maintenance and repair of assets. They work closely with other offices and departments to ensure that SPRAM assets are accounted for and properly managed.
32.
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Correct Answer
C. Mission support group commander
Explanation
The mission support group commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This individual is in charge of overseeing the mission support group, which includes various functions such as logistics, communications, and personnel support. As a result, they have the authority and responsibility to review and approve or deny SPRAM authorizations to ensure they align with the group's mission and objectives.
33.
Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation
The correct answer is c. The PMIC code c indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to classify and identify items that are made of multiple precious metals, such as jewelry or electronic components. The other options, a, g, and p, do not specifically indicate a combination of precious metals.
34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
Correct Answer
B. D04, daily document register
Explanation
The correct answer is d04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and reference.
35.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
Correct Answer
A. D18, priority monitor report
Explanation
The correct answer is d18, priority monitor report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. It is used to track the supply of these parts and prioritize their fulfillment based on their urgency of need.
36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
Correct Answer
C. M-24, organization effectiveness report
Explanation
The organization effectiveness report, also known as the m-24 supply tracking document, provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and analyze the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system, ensuring that issues are being addressed and supplies are being properly managed. It provides valuable insights into the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, allowing for improvements to be made as necessary.
37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
Correct Answer
B. Host installation commander
Explanation
The host installation commander is the correct answer because they are responsible for the overall security and operations of the installation. They have the authority to authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms to ensure its safety and prevent unauthorized access. The other options, such as the aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander, may have specific roles and responsibilities within their respective areas, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.
38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours
Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the equipment, reducing the risk of any potential security breaches.
39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Correct Answer
C. LRS chief inspector
Explanation
The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary inspections and programming are conducted on the unit's supply assets. They have the authority to review and approve the list, making sure that all assets are properly maintained and programmed for operational use.
40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?
Correct Answer
A. Customer
Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the product or service, the customer is in the best position to understand their own needs and urgency. They can assess the importance of the request and communicate their priorities to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.
41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR
Explanation
The correct answer is AR or BR. These urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to indicate a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a Line Replaceable Unit (LRU) or Shop Replaceable Unit (SRU) spare. The AR code signifies an urgent requirement, while the BR code indicates a routine requirement. Both codes are applicable in this scenario to request the necessary supplies for repair purposes.
42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management element
Explanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the required items are available and properly distributed to support maintenance activities. Therefore, coordination with the LRS material management element is crucial in establishing and locating a supply point in a maintenance work area.
43.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually
Explanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process should be conducted twice a year. Reconciling the accounts helps ensure accuracy and consistency in tracking supply points and their inventory. It allows for identifying any discrepancies or errors in the records, as well as maintaining proper control over the supply chain. By reconciling the accounts semiannually, the workcenter supply point monitor can ensure that the supply points are properly managed and that any issues are promptly addressed.
44.
When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance operations center (MOC)
Explanation
When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB (Time Not Mission Capable Benchstock), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the procurement and distribution of parts. They ensure that the necessary parts are available to maintain the operational readiness of aircraft and equipment. By notifying the MOC about the issuance of a MICAP part, supply personnel can initiate the process of acquiring the required part and ensure that it is promptly delivered to the appropriate maintenance personnel.
45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Supply discrepancy report
Explanation
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supplies received, such as incorrect or damaged items. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the person can inform the appropriate authorities about the problem and request a refund or a replacement for the faulty item.
46.
Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?
Correct Answer
D. Originating point
Explanation
The originating point refers to the individual or group who is responsible for the overall management of the Disaster Recovery (DR) program for the submitting organization or group. They are in charge of initiating and overseeing the entire DR program, ensuring that all necessary steps are taken to effectively respond to and recover from potential disasters or emergencies.
47.
Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
Correct Answer
B. Action point
Explanation
The correct answer is "action point." The action point acts as the DR focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions between these two entities.
48.
Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
49.
What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies?
Correct Answer
D. Plans, scheduling, and documentation
Explanation
The plans, scheduling, and documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining maintenance plans, scheduling maintenance activities, and documenting all maintenance operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all maintenance tasks are properly recorded and managed in accordance with time compliance technical orders.
50.
Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within
Correct Answer
C. 24 hrs
Explanation
Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any significant or critical issues that are identified must be reported and addressed within a day. This allows for prompt action to be taken to rectify the deficiency and prevent any potential negative consequences or impacts. The 24-hour timeframe ensures that the issue is promptly communicated and prioritized for resolution.