Stepper Motors & Rotor Control Quiz
(231).webp "Stepper Motors & Rotor Control Quiz - Quiz")
- 1.
The type of rotor control that is phased out during conversion from heli mode to acft mode is the?
- A.
Flaperons
- B.
Elevators
- C.
Rudders
- D.
Cyclic
Correct Answer
D. CyclicExplanation
During the conversion from helicopter mode to aircraft mode, the type of rotor control that is phased out is the cyclic. The cyclic control is used in helicopters to change the pitch of the rotor blades at different points in the rotation, allowing the helicopter to move in different directions. However, in aircraft mode, the rotor is no longer used for propulsion, and the cyclic control becomes unnecessary.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many pounds per square foot is the cabin floor limit load?
- A.
300
- B.
400
- C.
500
- D.
600
Correct Answer
A. 300Explanation
The cabin floor limit load is 300 pounds per square foot. This means that the maximum weight that can be supported by each square foot of the cabin floor is 300 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What windows are configured with explosive (fast burn) escape separators to provide emergency egress for the pilots?
- A.
Left/right windshields
- B.
Left/right side windows
- C.
Left/right cockpit windwos
- D.
Left/right look-down windows
Correct Answer
B. Left/right side windowsExplanation
The left/right side windows are configured with explosive (fast burn) escape separators to provide emergency egress for the pilots. These windows are designed to be easily and quickly removed in case of an emergency, allowing the pilots to escape the aircraft efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The pilot and copilot seats adjust through a range of?
- A.
Five inches vertically and five inches longitudinally
- B.
Five inches vertically and three inches longitudinally
- C.
Seven inches vertically and five inches longitudinally
- D.
Seven inches vertically and three inches longitudinally
Correct Answer
B. Five inches vertically and three inches longitudinallyExplanation
The correct answer is five inches vertically and three inches longitudinally. This means that the pilot and copilot seats can be adjusted up to five inches in a vertical direction and up to three inches in a longitudinal direction. This allows the pilots to find a comfortable seating position that suits their height and preference.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What configuration is flight ready with the nacelles rotated to the vertical position, and the wing rotated perpendicular to the fuselage?
- A.
FULL STOW
- B.
AIRPLANE
- C.
HELICOPTER
- D.
EMERGENCY WING STOW
Correct Answer
C. HELICOPTERExplanation
The correct answer is HELICOPTER. In a helicopter, the nacelles (engine pods) can be rotated to the vertical position, and the wing (rotor) can be rotated perpendicular to the fuselage, allowing the helicopter to be flight ready. This configuration is necessary for the helicopter to take off and fly. The other options, FULL STOW, AIRPLANE, and EMERGENCY WING STOW, do not accurately describe the configuration mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which digit of the four-digit numbering system identifies zones and areas with access provisions on the Osprey is a numerical identification of the panel/door within a zone?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fourth
Correct Answer
D. FourthExplanation
The fourth digit of the four-digit numbering system on the Osprey identifies the panel/door within a zone. This means that it provides a numerical identification for each specific panel or door within a given zone or area with access provisions.Rate this question:
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- 7.
While both cabin doors have normal opening/closing mechanisms, what is the only door that is given emergency opening provisions?
- A.
Side
- B.
Upper
- C.
Lower
- D.
Escape
Correct Answer
B. UpperExplanation
The upper door is the only one that is given emergency opening provisions. This suggests that in case of an emergency, such as a fire or other dangerous situation, the upper door can be opened quickly and easily to allow for a swift evacuation. The other doors may have normal opening and closing mechanisms, but they do not have the same emergency provisions as the upper door.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How many feet above the ground or deck are the rudders that are located on the rear of the edge of the vertical stabilizers?
- A.
7 to 10
- B.
10 to 15
- C.
11 to 17
- D.
11 to 20
Correct Answer
C. 11 to 17Explanation
The rudders that are located on the rear of the edge of the vertical stabilizers are typically positioned between 11 to 17 feet above the ground or deck.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with local activities supplemental instructions and?
- A.
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) 00-80T-109
- B.
Technical Order (TO) 1V-22(C)B-1
- C.
NAVAIR A1-V22AC-MRC-000
- D.
TO 1V-22(C)B-6
Correct Answer
A. Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) 00-80T-109Explanation
All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) 00-80T-109.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What mode of operation does the ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) operate in?
- A.
NORMAL
- B.
REFUEL
- C.
OFF
- D.
ON
Correct Answer
D. ONExplanation
The ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) operates in the "ON" mode of operation. This means that the panel is active and functioning. It allows for the ground refueling and defueling operations to take place.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What system on the nose landing gear (NLG) provides the means to raise the nose of the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?
- A.
Hike
- B.
Chamber
- C.
Elevation
- D.
Extension
Correct Answer
A. HikeExplanation
The correct answer is "Hike". The term "hike" refers to the action of raising the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing. This system on the nose landing gear (NLG) provides the means to perform this action, allowing for easier access to the aircraft's undercarriage or facilitating movement on the ground. The other options, such as "chamber," "elevation," and "extension," do not specifically relate to the action of raising the nose of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What provides control and indication of the primary landing gear extension/retraction system and control of the emergency extension system in the event the primary system fails?
- A.
Drag strut/actuator
- B.
Gas control manifold (GCM)
- C.
Landing gear control unit (LGCU)
- D.
Emergency gear extension unit (EGEU)
Correct Answer
C. Landing gear control unit (LGCU)Explanation
The landing gear control unit (LGCU) is responsible for providing control and indication of the primary landing gear extension/retraction system. It also controls the emergency extension system in case the primary system fails. The LGCU acts as the central control unit for the landing gear, ensuring proper functioning and safety during landing and takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many degrees of steering authority left or right of center is provided by the nose wheel steering system while on the ground?
- A.
45
- B.
60
- C.
75
- D.
90
Correct Answer
C. 75Explanation
The correct answer is 75. The nose wheel steering system provides 75 degrees of steering authority left or right of center while on the ground. This means that the nose wheel can be turned up to 75 degrees in either direction from the center position, allowing for sharp turns and maneuverability during taxiing and ground operations.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What parking brake component applies hydraulic pressure seperately to the main landing gear left and right wheels and brakes and retains hydraulic pressure for parking brake engagement?
- A.
Transfer module
- B.
1st stage relief valve
- C.
Master brake cylinders
- D.
Pressure reducer valve module
Correct Answer
A. Transfer moduleExplanation
The transfer module is the parking brake component that applies hydraulic pressure separately to the main landing gear left and right wheels and brakes. It also retains hydraulic pressure for parking brake engagement.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydro power to the Osprey?
- A.
Auxiliary hydraulic power system
- B.
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 only
- C.
Main hydraulic power system
- D.
Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
D. Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3Explanation
The Osprey is provided with hydro power by hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3. This means that all three hydraulic systems are independent and capable of generating hydraulic power for the Osprey. The auxiliary hydraulic power system is not mentioned as one of the independent systems providing hydro power.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What monitors the fluid level in the reservoirs for hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3?
- A.
Hydraulic reservoir quantity multi-function display control layer
- B.
Hydraulic fluid level monitor (HFLM)
- C.
Fluid compensation valves
- D.
Remote switching valves
Correct Answer
B. Hydraulic fluid level monitor (HFLM)Explanation
The correct answer is "Hydraulic fluid level monitor (HFLM)". The HFLM is responsible for monitoring the fluid level in the reservoirs for hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3. It ensures that the fluid level is maintained within the appropriate range to ensure the proper functioning of the hydraulic systems.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Hydraulic pump 1 delivers how many gallons per minute (GPM) of hydraulic fluid?
- A.
30 Helicopter and 30 airplane
- B.
34 Helicopter and 30 airplane
- C.
38 Helicopter and 32 airplane
- D.
44 Helicopter and 36 airplane
Correct Answer
C. 38 Helicopter and 32 airplaneExplanation
The given answer states that hydraulic pump 1 delivers 38 gallons per minute (GPM) of hydraulic fluid for helicopters and 32 GPM for airplanes.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What components provide artificial feel forces and magnetic brake functions for the mehcanical flight controls?
- A.
Cockpit control thrust dirve actuators and cockpit control feel drive actuators
- B.
CCTDAs and cockpit control position transducers (CCPT)
- C.
CCPTs and thrust control levers (TCL)
- D.
CCFDAs and CCPTS
Correct Answer
A. Cockpit control thrust dirve actuators and cockpit control feel drive actuatorsExplanation
Cockpit control thrust drive actuators and cockpit control feel drive actuators provide artificial feel forces and magnetic brake functions for the mechanical flight controls. These components are responsible for simulating the resistance and feedback that pilots experience when operating the controls. The thrust drive actuators generate the necessary forces for control movement, while the feel drive actuators provide the appropriate feedback to the pilot. Together, they ensure that the controls feel realistic and provide accurate tactile feedback to the pilot.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which panel has the capability to activate and/or reset the automated flight control system (AFCS), adjust individual engine torque values, and engage backup hydraulic power drive units (HPDU) on the conversion actuators?
- A.
Flight control
- B.
Engine control
- C.
Backup flight control
- D.
Primary flight control
Correct Answer
A. Flight controlExplanation
The flight control panel has the capability to activate and/or reset the automated flight control system (AFCS), adjust individual engine torque values, and engage backup hydraulic power drive units (HPDU) on the conversion actuators. This panel is responsible for controlling and managing the various flight control systems and components, ensuring the aircraft's stability and maneuverability. It allows the pilot to make adjustments and activate backup systems when necessary, enhancing the overall safety and control of the aircraft during flight.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What component prevents inadvertent engine shutdown when the condition lever is moved from FLY to START position?
- A.
Nacelle waste gate
- B.
CRANK/START gate
- C.
CRANK/START lever
- D.
Rotor brake control lever
Correct Answer
B. CRANK/START gateExplanation
The CRANK/START gate is the component that prevents inadvertent engine shutdown when the condition lever is moved from FLY to START position. This gate ensures that the engine remains running during the transition, preventing any accidental shutdowns.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In what mode do the rotor hub flapping sensors correct excessive flapping?
- A.
AIRPLANE MODE
- B.
TRANSITION MODE
- C.
HELICOPTER MODE
- D.
Vertical short take-off and landing (VSTOL) MODE
Correct Answer
A. AIRPLANE MODEExplanation
The correct answer is AIRPLANE MODE. In airplane mode, the rotor hub flapping sensors correct excessive flapping. This mode is specifically designed for fixed-wing aircraft and does not involve the use of rotor blades like in helicopter mode. Transition mode refers to the process of switching between different flight modes, while VSTOL mode is related to vertical take-off and landing capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What percentage of the max hinge movement required of the surface are the left, right, and center elevator servo actuators capable of supplying?
- A.
40
- B.
50
- C.
60
- D.
70
Correct Answer
B. 50Explanation
The left, right, and center elevator servo actuators are capable of supplying 50% of the maximum hinge movement required of the surface.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What hydraulic system powers each section of the swashplate actuators?
- A.
Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 1, while section C is powered by system 2
- B.
Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 2, while section C is powered by system 2
- C.
Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 1, while section C is powered by system 3
- D.
Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 2, while section C is powered by system 3
Correct Answer
A. Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 1, while section C is powered by system 2Explanation
Sections A and B are powered by hydraulic system 1, while section C is powered by system 2.Rate this question:
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- 24.
With the doors open, the cargo hook external doors must be latched open prior to flight when the speed will be above how many knots?
- A.
65
- B.
70
- C.
75
- D.
80
Correct Answer
D. 80Explanation
The cargo hook external doors must be latched open prior to flight when the speed will be above 80 knots.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In knots, what is the max speed for flight with a latched open cargo door?
- A.
250
- B.
200
- C.
180
- D.
150
Correct Answer
A. 250Explanation
The correct answer is 250 because in knots, it represents the maximum speed for flight with a latched open cargo door. This speed limit ensures the safety and stability of the aircraft during flight while still allowing for efficient transportation of cargo. Flying at higher speeds with an open cargo door can cause aerodynamic issues and potentially compromise the structural integrity of the aircraft. Therefore, adhering to this speed limit is essential to maintain the safety of the flight.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The boom head assembly is designed to swivel?
- A.
120 degrees about the boom cable axis, 60 degrees either side of center
- B.
220 degrees about the boom cable axis, 90 degrees either side of center
- C.
360 degrees about the boom cable axis, 60 degrees either side of center
- D.
360 degrees about the boom cable axis, 90 degrees either side of center
Correct Answer
A. 120 degrees about the boom cable axis, 60 degrees either side of centerExplanation
The boom head assembly is designed to swivel 120 degrees about the boom cable axis, allowing it to rotate 60 degrees on either side of the center position.Rate this question:
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- 27.
At the hook end, how many feet of the visible cable of the rescue hoist cable is colored orange?
- A.
10
- B.
14
- C.
20
- D.
24
Correct Answer
D. 24Explanation
The correct answer is 24. This means that at the hook end, the visible cable of the rescue hoist is colored orange for a length of 24 feet.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What are the two modes of operation for the rescue hoist system?
- A.
BACKUP and NORMAL
- B.
OVERRIDE and BACKUP
- C.
BACKUP and EMERGENCY
- D.
NORMAL and EMERGENCY
Correct Answer
D. NORMAL and EMERGENCYExplanation
The two modes of operation for the rescue hoist system are NORMAL and EMERGENCY. In NORMAL mode, the hoist operates under standard conditions and follows regular procedures. In EMERGENCY mode, the hoist is used in urgent situations where there is an immediate need for rescue or evacuation. This mode may involve bypassing certain safety protocols or using alternative procedures to expedite the rescue process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What part of the Osprey fuselage is the cargo ramp fast rope trapeze assembly attached to?
- A.
Cargo ramp fast rope attachment beam
- B.
Cargo ramp actuator beam
- C.
End of the cargo ramp
- D.
Fast rope beam mount
Correct Answer
B. Cargo ramp actuator beamExplanation
The cargo ramp actuator beam is the part of the Osprey fuselage to which the cargo ramp fast rope trapeze assembly is attached. This beam is responsible for controlling the movement of the cargo ramp, and it provides the necessary support and stability for the fast rope attachment. By attaching the trapeze assembly to the cargo ramp actuator beam, the Osprey can safely and efficiently deploy and retrieve cargo or personnel using fast ropes.Rate this question:
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- 30.
At what pressure, in pounds per square inch gage (psig), is the enriched inerting gaseous nitrogen (N2) environment kept in the fuel cells to provide a fire and explosion suppressive environment?
- A.
Zero to three
- B.
One to three
- C.
Zero to one
- D.
One to two
Correct Answer
D. One to twoExplanation
The enriched inerting gaseous nitrogen (N2) environment in the fuel cells is kept at a pressure of one to two pounds per square inch gage (psig). This pressure range is necessary to maintain a fire and explosion suppressive environment within the fuel cells.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Approx how many pounds of JP-8 fuel may be held by each goup of four cells of the wing aux fuel cell system?
- A.
800
- B.
1015
- C.
1500
- D.
2015
Correct Answer
D. 2015Explanation
Each group of four cells of the wing aux fuel cell system can hold approximately 2015 pounds of JP-8 fuel.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What fuel level valves provide a fuel pressure input to the mechanical pressure shutoff valve (PSO) to control the aux cells fuel level?
- A.
Input
- B.
Control
- C.
Pressure
- D.
Management
Correct Answer
B. ControlExplanation
Fuel level valves provide a fuel pressure input to the mechanical pressure shutoff valve (PSO) in order to control the aux cells fuel level. The fuel level valves are responsible for regulating the amount of fuel that is allowed to enter the aux cells, and they do this by providing a fuel pressure input to the PSO. By controlling the fuel pressure, the fuel level valves are able to maintain the desired fuel level in the aux cells, ensuring that the engine operates efficiently and safely.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What fuel distribution pumps are controlled by the fuel management unit (FMU) to provide a continuous flow of fuel to the feed cells during flight?
- A.
Suction lift pumps
- B.
Suction boost pumps
- C.
Suction boost/prime pumps
- D.
Motor operated prime pumps
Correct Answer
A. Suction lift pumpsExplanation
The fuel management unit (FMU) controls the suction lift pumps to provide a continuous flow of fuel to the feed cells during flight. Suction lift pumps are designed to draw fuel from the main tanks and deliver it to the engine. They create a suction force that allows fuel to be lifted and delivered to the feed cells. By controlling these pumps, the FMU ensures a steady supply of fuel to the engine, enabling the aircraft to maintain proper operation throughout the flight.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What components are the main entry points for fuel into the left and right forward sponson cells?
- A.
Ground pressure refuel adapters
- B.
Cap and adapter assemblies
- C.
Fuel level control valves
- D.
Refuel/defuel valves
Correct Answer
D. Refuel/defuel valvesExplanation
The refuel/defuel valves are the main entry points for fuel into the left and right forward sponson cells. These valves allow for the refueling and defueling of the cells, controlling the flow of fuel into and out of the cells. They are essential components for managing the fuel levels in the sponson cells and ensuring a proper fuel supply to the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In and emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?
- A.
Fuel jettison shutoff valve
- B.
Fuel dump control panel
- C.
Jettison tube assembly
- D.
Fuel dump valves
Correct Answer
C. Jettison tube assemblyExplanation
The jettison tube assembly provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned in an emergency. This assembly is specifically designed to safely release and direct the fuel away from the aircraft during a fuel dump procedure. It allows for controlled and efficient fuel jettisoning, reducing the weight of the aircraft in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What normally closed valve in the fuel dump system is commanded open to allow fuel to flow out of the jettison tube assembly?
- A.
Fuel jettison shutoff valve
- B.
Fuel dump control panel
- C.
Jettison tube assembly
- D.
Fuel dump valves
Correct Answer
A. Fuel jettison shutoff valveExplanation
The fuel jettison shutoff valve is normally closed in the fuel dump system, meaning that it is in a closed position by default. However, when commanded open, it allows fuel to flow out of the jettison tube assembly. This valve is responsible for controlling the release of fuel during the dumping process.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the approx min pounds of JP-8 fuel per feed tank before the low level sensors in the left and/or right feed tanks indicate low fuel?
- A.
20
- B.
31
- C.
41
- D.
50
Correct Answer
C. 41Explanation
The correct answer is 41. This means that the approximate minimum pounds of JP-8 fuel per feed tank before the low level sensors in the left and/or right feed tanks indicate low fuel is 41 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How many gallons of JP-8 fuel must be exceeded within the feed cells before an overfill condition is indicated?
- A.
104
- B.
94
- C.
64
- D.
24
Correct Answer
B. 94Explanation
An overfill condition is indicated when the number of gallons of JP-8 fuel exceeds a certain threshold within the feed cells. In this case, that threshold is 94 gallons. Therefore, if the number of gallons exceeds 94, it will trigger an overfill condition.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What portion of the composite material of the aerial refueling probe tube assembly is bonded in order to protect the aircraft from electromagnetic environmental effects?
- A.
Two static discharge strips
- B.
Two copper grounding strips
- C.
Three copper grounding strips
- D.
Three external copper grounding straps
Correct Answer
B. Two copper grounding stripsExplanation
Two copper grounding strips are bonded in the composite material of the aerial refueling probe tube assembly to protect the aircraft from electromagnetic environmental effects. These grounding strips help to dissipate any static electricity buildup and provide a path for electrical currents to flow safely to the ground. By bonding these copper strips, the composite material becomes conductive and can effectively mitigate electromagnetic interference, reducing the risk of damage to the aircraft's electrical systems.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What component provides low oil indications for the left and right tilt axis gearboxes, left and right proprotor gearboxes, and left nacelle variable frequency generator?
- A.
Ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP)
- B.
Multi-function display
- C.
Cockpit interface unit
- D.
Cockpit display unit
Correct Answer
A. Ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP)Explanation
The ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) is the component that provides low oil indications for the left and right tilt axis gearboxes, left and right proprotor gearboxes, and left nacelle variable frequency generator. This panel is responsible for monitoring the oil levels in these various components and alerting the pilot if the oil levels are low. It is an important part of the aircraft's systems and helps ensure the safe operation of the tilt axis gearboxes, proprotor gearboxes, and variable frequency generator.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What component provides control and monitoring of fuel center of gravity (CG) management system operation for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?
- A.
Fuel management unit (FMU) 1 (left FMU)
- B.
Central processing unit (CPU)
- C.
FMU 2 (right FMU)
- D.
FMU 3
Correct Answer
A. Fuel management unit (FMU) 1 (left FMU)Explanation
The fuel management unit (FMU) 1, also known as the left FMU, is responsible for controlling and monitoring the fuel center of gravity (CG) management system operation on the left side of the aircraft. It also monitors the low level sensor in the left feed tank. This indicates that FMU 1 is specifically designed to handle the fuel management and monitoring tasks for the left side of the aircraft, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How much of the lower portion of the mission auxiliary tank system (MATS) assembly bladder is self-sealing?
- A.
Half
- B.
One third
- C.
Two thirds
- D.
Three fourths
Correct Answer
C. Two thirdsExplanation
Two thirds of the lower portion of the mission auxiliary tank system (MATS) assembly bladder is self-sealing. This means that the majority of the lower portion of the bladder has the ability to seal itself, providing a level of protection against leaks or damage.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Use of a magnetic float and marked tape to verify a MATS tank assembly has been completely filled with fuel is provided by the fuel?
- A.
Fill sampler tape
- B.
Fill indicating tape
- C.
Quantity sampler tape
- D.
Quantity indicating tape
Correct Answer
B. Fill indicating tapeExplanation
The use of a magnetic float and marked tape in a fuel tank assembly helps verify if the tank has been completely filled with fuel. This is done by using a fill indicating tape, which indicates the level of fuel in the tank. The tape is marked at specific intervals, allowing the user to determine if the tank has reached its full capacity. Therefore, the fill indicating tape is used to ensure that the tank is fully filled with fuel.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How many kilovolt ampere (KVA) are the constant frequency generators (CFG) 1 and 2 rated at?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
40
- D.
50
Correct Answer
C. 40Explanation
The constant frequency generators 1 and 2 are rated at 40 kilovolt ampere (KVA).Rate this question:
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- 45.
What component of the VFG contains a seperate and isolated winding that provides a max rated continuous power output of 420 volt amperes (VA) at 0.8 power factor, or 26 to 62 volts alternating current (VAC), for the flight control system?
- A.
Integral generator control unit
- B.
Permanent magnent generator
- C.
Current transformer
- D.
Power contactor
Correct Answer
B. Permanent magnent generatorExplanation
The correct answer is the permanent magnet generator. A permanent magnet generator is a type of generator that uses a permanent magnet to generate electrical power. It contains a separate and isolated winding that provides a maximum rated continuous power output of 420 volt amperes (VA) at 0.8 power factor, or 26 to 62 volts alternating current (VAC), specifically for the flight control system. This type of generator is commonly used in aerospace applications due to its compact size, high efficiency, and reliable power output.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What components of the alternating current system continuously check that the voltages are within the 109-115 volts AC (VAC) tolerance on each phase of the bus?
- A.
Bus bars
- B.
Circuit breakers
- C.
Terminal boards
- D.
Dedicated bus health monitors
Correct Answer
D. Dedicated bus health monitorsExplanation
Dedicated bus health monitors are components of the alternating current system that continuously check the voltages on each phase of the bus. They ensure that the voltages are within the 109-115 volts AC (VAC) tolerance. This monitoring is crucial for maintaining the stability and safety of the electrical system. Bus bars, circuit breakers, and terminal boards may play important roles in the AC system, but they do not specifically monitor the voltages to ensure they are within the specified tolerance.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The battery heater that is built into the battery case and allows the battery to be electrically heated during cold temperatures is?
- A.
Thermostatically controlled and powered by 115 volts alternating current
- B.
Thermostatically controlled and powered by 28 volts direct current (VDC)
- C.
Electro-thermally controlled and powered by 115 VAC
- D.
Electro-thermally controlled and powered by 28 VDC
Correct Answer
A. Thermostatically controlled and powered by 115 volts alternating currentExplanation
The battery heater is thermostatically controlled, meaning it is able to regulate its own temperature based on the surrounding conditions. It is powered by 115 volts alternating current (VAC), which is a common power source for electrical devices. This allows the battery to be electrically heated during cold temperatures, ensuring optimal performance and preventing damage.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What components provide alternating current to direct current conversion for those systems requiring DC voltage?
- A.
DC regulated inverters
- B.
DC bus health monitors
- C.
DC regulated converters
- D.
Feed through capacitor power filters
Correct Answer
C. DC regulated convertersExplanation
DC regulated converters are components that provide alternating current to direct current conversion for systems requiring DC voltage. These converters regulate the output DC voltage to a specific level, ensuring a stable and consistent power supply. They are commonly used in various applications such as power electronics, telecommunications, and renewable energy systems. By converting AC to DC, DC regulated converters enable the efficient operation of devices that require DC voltage, such as electronic circuits, motors, and sensors.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In the DC power system, what solid state device contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay that automatically disconnects the acft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS to prevent excess battery drain during ground servicing?
- A.
Battery indicator relay
- B.
Battery relay control unit
- C.
Battery indicator and test panel
- D.
APU start battery auxiliary relay
Correct Answer
B. Battery relay control unitExplanation
The battery relay control unit is the solid state device that contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay to automatically disconnect the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS during ground servicing. This is done to prevent excess battery drain. The other options, such as the battery indicator relay, battery indicator and test panel, and APU start battery auxiliary relay, do not perform this specific function.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What DC power distribution system component provides the bus health monitor function for DC BUS 2, DC BUS 3, and the essential/battery BUS?
- A.
Cockpit display unit
- B.
Wiriing interface unit
- C.
Avionics bay interface unit
- D.
Remote control circuit breaker
Correct Answer
C. Avionics bay interface unitExplanation
The avionics bay interface unit is the component that provides the bus health monitor function for DC BUS 2, DC BUS 3, and the essential/battery BUS. This unit is responsible for monitoring the health and status of these power distribution systems, ensuring that they are functioning properly. It acts as an interface between the power distribution systems and the cockpit, allowing for monitoring and control of the DC buses.Rate this question:
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May 01, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 28, 2014Quiz Created by
Hubbardca
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