Mock Test 13 - Gs Paper I

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Civil_mentor

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 216

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 100 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Swadeshi movement was specially marked by:
- A.
  
  Indian becoming aware of economic exploitation of british
- B.
  
  Active participation of women in movement
- C.
  
  Opening of several cottage industries
- D.
  
  Creation of hatefulness towards British industrialist
Correct Answer
B. Active participation of women in movement

Explanation
The Swadeshi movement during the Indian independence struggle was notable for the active participation of women. Women played a crucial role in various aspects of the movement, including organizing protests, boycotting British goods, and promoting indigenous products. They took part in public demonstrations, picketing shops selling foreign goods, and even faced arrests and imprisonment. Their involvement not only highlighted their commitment to the cause of independence but also challenged traditional gender roles and contributed to the empowerment of women in Indian society.

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2.

Non cooperation movement was withdrawn mainly because:
- A.
  
  Friction between moderated and extremists
- B.
  
  Withdrawal of support by muslim league
- C.
  
  Chauri chaura incident
- D.
  
  None of these
Correct Answer
C. Chauri chaura incident

Explanation
The Non Cooperation Movement was withdrawn mainly because of the Chauri Chaura incident. This incident occurred on February 5, 1922, in Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh, where a group of protestors turned violent and attacked a police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen. Mahatma Gandhi, who was leading the Non Cooperation Movement, called off the movement as he believed that nonviolence was the essence of the movement, and the incident went against this principle. He felt that the movement had lost its direction and needed to be halted to prevent further violence and bloodshed.

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3.

How did national liberal federation of India came into existence
- A.
  
  Differences between muslim leagues and congress
- B.
  
  Clash between the moderate and the extremists in the congress
- C.
  
  Failure of muslim leagues and congress to achieve the gaols
- D.
  
  "divide and rule" policy of the brithis
Correct Answer
B. Clash between the moderate and the extremists in the congress

Explanation
The clash between the moderate and the extremists in the Congress led to the formation of the National Liberal Federation of India. This division within the Congress party occurred in the early 1900s, with the moderates advocating for gradual reforms and cooperation with the British government, while the extremists demanded more radical and immediate changes. The disagreements between these two factions eventually became irreconcilable, prompting the extremists to break away and form their own organization, the National Liberal Federation of India.

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4.

Which of the following statement is correct in respect of the lucknow pact
- A.
  
  Through this pact a way was to achieve hindu-muslim
- B.
  
  As per gandhi ji it was a pact for power between the educated and rich hindus and muslims
- C.
  
  It did not involve the hindu and muslims masses
- D.
  
  All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the above

Explanation
The correct answer is "all the above". The Lucknow Pact was a significant event in Indian history, as it aimed to bring Hindus and Muslims together in their struggle for self-government. Through this pact, a way was established to achieve Hindu-Muslim unity. Additionally, Gandhi ji believed that it was a pact for power between the educated and rich Hindus and Muslims, suggesting that it did not involve the Hindu and Muslim masses. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the options are correct in relation to the Lucknow Pact.

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5.

khilafat movement, fully supported by both hindu and muslims and adopted by the congress through gandhi ji subsided because of
- A.
  
  Muslim league's opposition to Indian national congress
- B.
  
  Special concession given to muslims by the British governemnent
- C.
  
  Office of khalifa was abolished in turkey itself and better terms given turkey
- D.
  
  Internal fiction between congress and muslim league
Correct Answer
C. Office of khalifa was abolished in turkey itself and better terms given turkey

Explanation
The Khilafat movement, which was fully supported by both Hindus and Muslims and adopted by the Congress through Gandhi ji, subsided because the office of the Khalifa was abolished in Turkey itself and better terms were given to Turkey. This means that the main objective of the movement, which was to protect the rights and interests of the Khalifa, became irrelevant as the office itself was abolished. Therefore, without a cause to fight for, the movement lost momentum and eventually subsided.

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6.

What was the main aim of home rule movement
- A.
  
  To remove british rule
- B.
  
  To turn out british
- C.
  
  To keep unity among hindu-muslim and fight for freedom
- D.
  
  To attain self govenerment within the british empire
Correct Answer
D. To attain self govenerment within the british empire

Explanation
The main aim of the home rule movement was to attain self-government within the British empire. This means that the movement sought to achieve a level of autonomy and decision-making power for the Indian people while still remaining a part of the British empire. The goal was not to completely remove British rule or turn them out, but rather to establish a system where Indians could govern themselves to a certain extent while still being under British authority. Additionally, the movement aimed to promote unity among Hindus and Muslims and fight for freedom from British oppression.

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7.

Why the movement of Indian national congress remained most successful struggle file freedom?
- A.
  
  Due to leadership of W.B. bonnerjee
- B.
  
  Due to unity among hindu-muslim
- C.
  
  Because the movement was sponsored by a great englishman
- D.
  
  As there was no distrust among the members the british authorities could not find ways of suppressing the movement
Correct Answer
C. Because the movement was sponsored by a great englishman
8.

The gandhi-Irwin pact:
- A.
  
  Agreed not to enforce the salt laws
- B.
  
  Release all political prisoners except those convicted of violence
- C.
  
  Nagpur session approved the agreement
- D.
  
  The congress was o suspend the civil disobedient movement
Correct Answer
C. Nagpur session approved the agreement

Explanation
The Nagpur session refers to the meeting of the Indian National Congress held in Nagpur in 1920. During this session, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin, was approved. The pact aimed to resolve the issues between the British government and the Indian National Congress. It included the release of political prisoners (except those convicted of violence) and the suspension of the civil disobedience movement. Therefore, the statement that the Nagpur session approved the agreement is a correct explanation.

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9.

For which of the following was there support both from Hinud and muslims?
- A.
  
  Champaran satyaghraha
- B.
  
  Anti-partition movement
- C.
  
  Khilafat movement
- D.
  
  Quit India movement
Correct Answer
C. Khilafat movement

Explanation
The Khilafat Movement was a political campaign launched by Indian Muslims in the early 20th century to protest against the dismantling of the Ottoman Caliphate by the British after World War I. The movement gained support from both Hindus and Muslims because it was seen as a way to unite Indian Muslims and Hindus against British imperialism. Hindus saw it as an opportunity to build Hindu-Muslim unity and fight for independence, while Muslims saw it as a way to protect the religious and political rights of Muslims in India. Therefore, both communities supported the Khilafat Movement.

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10.

Regarding the quit India resolution, which of the following statement is not true
- A.
  
  The communities opposed the quit India revolution
- B.
  
  Golwalker's RSS kept strictly aloof from the movement
- C.
  
  Rajgopalachari, the leading gandhian, opposed quit india campaign and pleaded for negotiations on the demands for pakistan
- D.
  
  The movement was relative strong in the punjab NWFP madras presidencey and kerela
Correct Answer
D. The movement was relative strong in the punjab NWFP madras presidencey and kerela

Explanation
The statement "the movement was relative strong in the Punjab NWFP Madras Presidency and Kerala" is not true. The Quit India movement faced opposition from various communities, Golwalker's RSS did not participate in the movement, and Rajgopalachari, a leading Gandhian, opposed the campaign and called for negotiations on the demands for Pakistan. However, the movement was not particularly strong in the mentioned regions.

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11.

Keynes states that the aggregate demand function is:
- A.
  
  An increasing function of the level of employment
- B.
  
  A decreasing function of the level of employment
- C.
  
  A constant function of the level of employment
- D.
  
  Not related to the level of employment
Correct Answer
A. An increasing function of the level of employment

Explanation
According to Keynes, the aggregate demand function is an increasing function of the level of employment. This means that as the level of employment increases, the aggregate demand for goods and services in the economy also increases. This is because when more people are employed, they have more income to spend, which in turn stimulates consumption and increases overall demand. As a result, businesses are encouraged to produce more to meet the higher demand, leading to economic growth and expansion.

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12.

Which of the following are the limitations of national incomeestimation in India?1. Output of non-monetized sector. -2. Non availability of data about income of small producers or household enterprises.3. Unreported legal income.4. Inflation.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A.
  
  1,2,3 and 4
- B.
  
  1,2 and 3
- C.
  
  2 and 3
- D.
  
  1 and 4
Correct Answer
B. 1,2 and 3

Explanation
The limitations of national income estimation in India include the output of non-monetized sectors, such as agriculture, which are not accounted for in the calculation. Additionally, data about the income of small producers or household enterprises is often not available, leading to an incomplete picture of the overall national income. Furthermore, unreported legal income, such as underreporting of income or tax evasion, can also affect the accuracy of national income estimation.

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13.

Which one of the following is the difference between value atmarket prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate?
- A.
  
  Value of consumption of fixed capital
- B.
  
  Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies
- C.
  
  Value of net factor income earned abroad
- D.
  
  Value of subsidies net of indirect taxes
Correct Answer
B. Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies

Explanation
The difference between value at market prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate is the value of indirect taxes net of subsidies. This means that when calculating the value at factor cost, any indirect taxes levied on goods and services are subtracted, while any subsidies provided are added. This adjustment is made to account for the impact of taxes and subsidies on the overall value of the national aggregate.

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14.

Which one of The following is shown by the Phillips Curve?
- A.
  
  Inverse relationship between real and nominal wages
- B.
  
  Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
- C.
  
  Positive relationship between nominal wages and the rate of employment
- D.
  
  Positive relationship between rate of inflation and nominal wages
Correct Answer
B. Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment

Explanation
The Phillips Curve shows an inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the rate of unemployment. This means that when the rate of inflation is high, the rate of unemployment tends to be low, and vice versa. This relationship suggests that there is a trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the short run, as policymakers can manipulate one variable to influence the other. For example, if inflation is high, policymakers can implement contractionary monetary or fiscal policies to reduce inflation, but this may lead to an increase in unemployment. Conversely, expansionary policies can be used to reduce unemployment, but this may lead to higher inflation.

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15.

If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs that it uses, equal to its value of marginal product, then which one of the following does it earn?
- A.
  
  Positive supernormal profit
- B.
  
  Zero supernormal profit
- C.
  
  Negative supernormal profit
- D.
  
  Monopoly profit
Correct Answer
B. Zero supernormal profit

Explanation
If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs equal to its value of marginal product, it means that the producer is earning exactly what it is putting into the production process. This indicates that the producer is not making any additional profit beyond covering its costs. Therefore, the producer is earning zero supernormal profit.

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16.

Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
- A.
  
  It was launched in the year 2007
- B.
  
  The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25
- C.
  
  The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
- D.
  
  It provides insurance against natural death as well as accidental death
Correct Answer
B. The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25

Explanation
The correct answer is "The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25." This statement is incorrect because the Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is a social security scheme that provides insurance coverage to rural landless households. However, the contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is not in the ratio of 75:25.

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17.

Consider the following statements regarding argument for freetrade:1. Free trade leads to maximization of output, income andemployment.2. Free trade prevents monopoly.3. Free trade protects domestic industries.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2
- C.
  
  2and3
- D.
  
  1,2and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2

Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct because free trade allows countries to specialize in producing goods and services that they have a comparative advantage in, leading to increased output, income, and employment. Statement 2 is correct because free trade promotes competition and prevents the formation of monopolies, which can harm consumers and limit market efficiency. Statement 3 is incorrect because free trade can actually expose domestic industries to competition from foreign firms, potentially leading to challenges for some industries.

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18.

Which of the following are the characteristics of progressivetax?I. Marginal tax rate should be increasing.2. Marginal tax rate should be more than average tax rate.3. Gini coefficient for the post-tax distribution of income should be less than that of pre-tax distribution.4. Tax amount should be lump sum in nature.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A.
  
  1,2,3and4
- B.
  
  1,2and3
- C.
  
  1 and 4
- D.
  
  2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1,2,3and4

Explanation
Progressive tax is a tax system in which the tax rate increases as the taxable amount increases. This is reflected in characteristics I and II, which state that the marginal tax rate should be increasing and should be more than the average tax rate. Additionally, characteristic III states that the Gini coefficient, which measures income inequality, should be lower for the post-tax distribution of income compared to the pre-tax distribution. Finally, characteristic IV states that the tax amount should be lump sum in nature. Therefore, all the characteristics mentioned in the answer (1,2,3, and 4) are correct for a progressive tax.

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19.

With which one of the following does the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deal?
- A.
  
  Terms of trade of less developed countries
- B.
  
  Terms of trade of developed countries
- C.
  
  Balance of payments of less developed countries
- D.
  
  Balance of payments of developed countries
Correct Answer
C. Balance of payments of less developed countries

Explanation
The Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deals with the terms of trade of less developed countries, not the balance of payments. The hypothesis suggests that the terms of trade for primary commodities, which are primarily exported by less developed countries, tend to deteriorate over time compared to manufactured goods, which are primarily exported by developed countries. This means that less developed countries receive less value for their exports, leading to a negative impact on their balance of payments.

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20.

The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
- A.
  
  Asset creation and income generation
- B.
  
  Population groups and their respective income shares
- C.
  
  Unemployment and inflation
- D.
  
  Wages, labour hours and leisure
Correct Answer
B. Population groups and their respective income shares

Explanation
The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation that shows the distribution of income within a population. It plots the cumulative percentage of income received by the population groups on the y-axis, and the cumulative percentage of the population on the x-axis. Therefore, the correct answer is "population groups and their respective income shares."

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21.

which of the following is correct?The prime minister of India-
- A.
  
  Is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
- B.
  
  Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard.
- C.
  
  Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet.
- D.
  
  Has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion ary power vested with the President of India.
Correct Answer
C. Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet.

Explanation
The Prime Minister of India has full discretion in choosing the individuals who will serve as ministers in their cabinet. This means that they have complete freedom and authority to select the people they believe are most suitable for the positions, without any limitations or interference from other sources such as the President of India or the Parliament.

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22.

Which one of the following is true regarding the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
- A.
  
  One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman.
- B.
  
  One need not necessarily be member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice Chairman, as is in the case of Chairman.
- C.
  
  One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of Vice- Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
- D.
  
  There is an established convention that the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha belongs to the main Opposition Party in Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer
A. One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman.

Explanation
The correct answer is that one has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman. This means that only individuals who are already members of Rajya Sabha are eligible to be elected as Vice-Chairman. This requirement ensures that the Vice-Chairman is familiar with the functioning and procedures of Rajya Sabha, and can effectively carry out their responsibilities in the role.

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23.

Which one of the following statements is correct?
- A.
  
  If both the President and the Vice President resign, the Speaker of Sabha will act as President till a new President is elected.
- B.
  
  The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election
- C.
  
  In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President’s tenure as in the U.S.A.
- D.
  
  In India, the President a part of Parliament
Correct Answer
D. In India, the President a part of Parliament
24.

The position of the president which was undermined by the 42nd amendment was sub-sequently somewhat retrieved by the
- A.
  
  44th amendment
- B.
  
  45th amendment
- C.
  
  26th amendment
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 44th amendment

Explanation
The 44th amendment is the correct answer because it played a role in restoring some of the powers and position of the President that were undermined by the 42nd amendment. This amendment aimed to rectify some of the changes made by the previous amendment and restore a balance of power between the executive and the legislature.

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25.

The nature of the anti-Imperialist struggle was
- A.
  
  Always peaceful and constitutional
- B.
  
  Initially constitutional and by large non-violent
- C.
  
  Based on continuous armed resistance
- D.
  
  Largely supported by foreign powers
Correct Answer
B. Initially constitutional and by large non-violent

Explanation
The correct answer is "initially constitutional and by large non-violent." This means that in the beginning, the anti-Imperialist struggle was primarily peaceful and adhered to legal and constitutional means. It suggests that the resistance initially focused on non-violent methods to oppose imperialism. However, it does not imply that the struggle remained peaceful throughout its entirety or that it was entirely non-violent.

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26.

The position of the prime minister of India is superior to that of his counter-part in Britain because
- A.
  
  India is the biggest democracy
- B.
  
  India has adopted the federal system
- C.
  
  India has a written constitution
- D.
  
  His office enjoys constitutional basis
Correct Answer
D. His office enjoys constitutional basis

Explanation
The correct answer is that the position of the prime minister of India is superior to that of his counterpart in Britain because his office enjoys constitutional basis. This means that the prime minister's role and powers are defined and protected by the constitution, providing a strong legal framework for the position. In contrast, the position of the prime minister in Britain is not explicitly defined in the constitution, making it more flexible and subject to potential changes in political circumstances.

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27.

The objective of the Morley-Minto Reforms was
- A.
  
  Extension of provincial assemblies
- B.
  
  To give more powers to local government
- C.
  
  To abolish the post of secretary of the state for India
- D.
  
  To establish diarchy in provinces
Correct Answer
A. Extension of provincial assemblies

Explanation
The objective of the Morley-Minto Reforms was to extend the provincial assemblies. This means that the reforms aimed to increase the representation and participation of Indians in the provincial legislative bodies. By extending the provincial assemblies, the reforms sought to give more power to the local government and provide a platform for Indians to have a say in the decision-making process. The extension of provincial assemblies was a significant step towards granting more autonomy and self-governance to the Indian provinces.

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28.

The president can assign any of the functions of the union government to the state government
- A.
  
  In consultation with the chief justice of India
- B.
  
  In consultation with the state governor
- C.
  
  In his discretion
- D.
  
  In consultation with the government of the state
Correct Answer
D. In consultation with the government of the state

Explanation
The correct answer is "in consultation with the government of the state." This means that the president can assign any functions of the union government to the state government after discussing and seeking the opinion of the concerned state government. This ensures that the state government is involved in the decision-making process and allows for a collaborative approach between the central and state governments.

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29.

When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister ?
- A.
  
  In no circumstances
- B.
  
  Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
- C.
  
  When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
- D.
  
  In all circumstances
Correct Answer
C. When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

Explanation
The President can use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister when no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In such a situation, the President has the power to appoint a person who, in his opinion, is most likely to command the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha. This allows the President to play a crucial role in the formation of the government and ensures that a government can be formed even in the absence of a clear majority by any political party.

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30.

The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the
- A.
  
  Chief minister
- B.
  
  Chief justice
- C.
  
  Governor
- D.
  
  Vice-president
Correct Answer
C. Governor

Explanation
The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the governor. The governor is responsible for appointing the members of the commission, who play a crucial role in the recruitment and selection process for various state government jobs. The governor, as the head of the state, holds the power to make these appointments, ensuring that the commission operates independently and free from political influence. The governor's appointment of the members helps in maintaining the integrity and impartiality of the State Public Service Commission.

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31.

Coral reef systems such as the Great Barrier Reef are under threat because of the loss of sharks. But what is the main cause of the latter’s decline in numbers?
- A.
  
  A deadly virus
- B.
  
  Humans hunting for shark fins
- C.
  
  A lack of prey
- D.
  
  A rise in orca predators
Correct Answer
B. Humans hunting for shark fins

Explanation
The main cause of the decline in shark numbers is humans hunting for shark fins. Shark finning is a practice where sharks are caught, their fins are cut off, and then they are thrown back into the water, often still alive. This is primarily done to meet the demand for shark fin soup, a delicacy in some Asian cultures. This unsustainable and cruel practice has led to a significant decrease in shark populations worldwide. As sharks play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of coral reef ecosystems, their decline has put coral reef systems such as the Great Barrier Reef at risk.

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32.

Out of the following pairs, choose the pair in which the physical quantities do not have identical dimension?
- A.
  
  Pressure and Young's modules
- B.
  
  Planck's constant and Angular momentum
- C.
  
  Impulse and moment of force
- D.
  
  Force and rate of change of linear momentum
Correct Answer
C. Impulse and moment of force

Explanation
Impulse and moment of force do not have identical dimensions. Impulse is defined as the change in momentum of an object, which is equal to the force applied multiplied by the time interval over which it acts. Its dimensions are mass times velocity, while moment of force, also known as torque, is the product of force and the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the line of action of the force. Its dimensions are force times distance. Therefore, impulse and moment of force have different dimensions and do not form an identical pair.

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33.

If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same
- A.
  
  Velocity
- B.
  
  Momentum
- C.
  
  Acceleration
- D.
  
  Kinetic energy
Correct Answer
B. Momentum

Explanation
When two bodies of different masses are acted upon by the same force for the same time, they both experience the same change in momentum. Momentum is the product of an object's mass and velocity, and it is a measure of how difficult it is to stop the object's motion. Since both bodies experience the same force for the same time, the change in momentum will be the same for both, regardless of their masses. Therefore, the correct answer is momentum.

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34.

It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than on a concrete road because
- A.
  
  Sand is soft and concreter is hard
- B.
  
  The friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet
- C.
  
  The friction between sand and feet is more than that between concrete and feet
- D.
  
  The sand is grainy but concrete is smooth
Correct Answer
B. The friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet

Explanation
Walking on a sandy road is more difficult than walking on a concrete road because the friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet. Friction is the force that opposes motion when two surfaces are in contact, and it helps us maintain balance and stability while walking. In this case, the sand particles are loose and have less contact with the feet, resulting in reduced friction. On the other hand, the solid and smooth surface of concrete provides more contact area, leading to greater friction and making it easier to walk.

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35.

It takes much longer to cook food in the hills than in the plains, because
- A.
  
  In the hills the atmospheric pressure is lower than that in the plains and therefore water boils at a temperature lower than 100oC causing an increase in cooking time
- B.
  
  Due to low atmospheric pressure on the hills, the water boils at a temperature higher than 100oC and therefore water takes longer to boil
- C.
  
  In the hills the atmospheric density is low and therefore a lot of heat is lost to the atmosphere
- D.
  
  In the hills the humidity is high and therefore a lot of heat is absorbed by the atmosphere leaving very little heat for cooking
Correct Answer
A. In the hills the atmospHeric pressure is lower than that in the plains and therefore water boils at a temperature lower than 100oC causing an increase in cooking time

Explanation
In the hills, the atmospheric pressure is lower than in the plains. This difference in pressure causes water to boil at a lower temperature than the standard boiling point of 100°C. As a result, the cooking time is increased because the lower boiling point means that the food takes longer to cook.

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36.

Rectifiers are used to convert
- A.
  
  Direct current to Alternating current
- B.
  
  Alternating current to Direct current
- C.
  
  High voltage to low voltage
- D.
  
  Low voltage to high voltage
Correct Answer
B. Alternating current to Direct current

Explanation
Rectifiers are electronic devices that convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). This is achieved by utilizing diodes, which allow current to flow in only one direction. The AC input is passed through the diodes, which effectively "rectify" the current by blocking the negative half-cycles and allowing only the positive half-cycles to pass through, resulting in a unidirectional flow of current. Therefore, the correct answer is "Alternating current to Direct current."

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37.

Materials for rain-proof coats and tents owe their water-proof properties to
- A.
  
  Surface tension
- B.
  
  Viscosity
- C.
  
  Specific gravity
- D.
  
  Elasticity
Correct Answer
A. Surface tension

Explanation
Materials for rain-proof coats and tents owe their water-proof properties to surface tension. Surface tension is the property of a liquid that allows it to resist external forces, such as water droplets sliding off a surface. When a raindrop falls on a rain-proof material, the surface tension of the material causes the water droplet to bead up and roll off, rather than soaking into the fabric. This is what keeps the wearer or the contents of the tent dry during rainy conditions.

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38.

Oil raise up the wick in a lamp. The principle involves
- A.
  
  The diffusion of oil through the wick
- B.
  
  The liquid state of oil
- C.
  
  Capillary action phenomenon
- D.
  
  Volatility of oil
Correct Answer
C. Capillary action pHenomenon

Explanation
Capillary action phenomenon explains why oil raises up the wick in a lamp. Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces, such as the tiny gaps between the fibers of a wick. In this case, the oil is drawn up the wick due to the adhesive forces between the oil and the wick material, as well as the cohesive forces within the oil itself. This allows the oil to move against gravity and reach the flame, where it can be burned as fuel.

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39.

Suitable impurities are added to a semiconductor depending on its use. This is done in order to
- A.
  
  Increase its life
- B.
  
  Enable it to withstand higher voltages
- C.
  
  Increase its electrical conductivity
- D.
  
  Increase its electrical conductivity
Correct Answer
C. Increase its electrical conductivity

Explanation
Impurities are intentionally added to a semiconductor to increase its electrical conductivity. This process is called doping. By introducing impurities, extra charge carriers are created in the semiconductor material, either by adding extra electrons (n-type doping) or by creating "holes" (p-type doping). This increases the number of charge carriers available for conduction, thus enhancing the material's electrical conductivity.

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40.

Which one of the following is not correct?
- A.
  
  Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Goa and Maharastra are the main states producing cashew nuts
- B.
  
  90% of the world demand of cashew nut is met by India
- C.
  
  Cashew nut requires average temperature between 10C to 450C, rainfall between 85cm to 300 cm
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Cashew nut requires average temperature between 10C to 450C, rainfall between 85cm to 300 cm

Explanation
The given answer is not correct because cashew nuts do not require an average temperature between 10C to 450C and rainfall between 85cm to 300cm. The correct temperature range for cashew nut cultivation is between 20C to 32C, and the ideal rainfall range is between 100cm to 200cm.

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41.

Which method of water purification does not kill microorganism?
- A.
  
  Boiling
- B.
  
  Filtration
- C.
  
  Chlorination
- D.
  
  UV-irradiation
Correct Answer
B. Filtration

Explanation
Filtration is a method of water purification that does not kill microorganisms. Instead, it removes them from the water by passing it through a filter that can trap particles, bacteria, and other microorganisms. This process helps to remove impurities and improve the clarity and taste of the water, but it does not have the ability to kill or inactivate microorganisms like boiling, chlorination, or UV-irradiation methods do.

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42.

Railway tracks are banked on curves
- A.
  
  Necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the horizontal component weight of the train
- B.
  
  To avoid frictional force between the tracks and wheels
- C.
  
  Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train
- D.
  
  The train may not fly off in the opposite direction
Correct Answer
C. Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train

Explanation
Railway tracks are banked on curves to ensure that the necessary centripetal force is obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train. This is done to prevent the train from flying off in the opposite direction. By banking the tracks, the train is able to navigate the curve without relying solely on frictional force between the tracks and wheels. Instead, the horizontal component of the weight of the train provides the centripetal force needed to keep the train on the tracks and maintain a safe and stable motion.

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43.

Pudding is done to—
- A.
  
  Reduce percolation of water
- B.
  
  Pulverise and levelling soil
- C.
  
  Kill weeds
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above

Explanation
Pudding is done to achieve multiple objectives. It helps to reduce the percolation of water, which means it prevents excessive water from draining away too quickly. Pudding also pulverizes and levels the soil, making it more even and suitable for planting. Additionally, it helps to kill weeds by burying them under the soil. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for why pudding is done.

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44.

Which of the followings are short day crops ?
- A.
  
  Maize, Lobia, Bajra
- B.
  
  Wheat, Mustard, Gram
- C.
  
  Moong, Soybean, Bajra
- D.
  
  Wheat, Soybean, Bajra
Correct Answer
B. Wheat, Mustard, Gram

Explanation
Short day crops are plants that require a shorter duration of daylight to initiate flowering and produce seeds. Wheat, Mustard, and Gram are considered short day crops because they can flower and produce seeds with less daylight hours. Maize, Lobia, Moong, Soybean, and Bajra are not short day crops as they require longer daylight hours to complete their reproductive cycle.

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45.

The main function of NABARD is—
- A.
  
  Farmers’ loaning
- B.
  
  Agricultural research
- C.
  
  Refinancing to agricultural financing institutions
- D.
  
  Development of agriculture
Correct Answer
C. Refinancing to agricultural financing institutions

Explanation
NABARD, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, primarily focuses on providing refinancing facilities to agricultural financing institutions. This means that NABARD provides financial support to banks and other institutions that lend to farmers and agricultural businesses. By doing so, NABARD helps to ensure that there is adequate credit available for agricultural activities, which in turn promotes the development of agriculture in the country. This function is crucial in supporting the financial needs of the agricultural sector and facilitating its growth and sustainability.

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46.

The permanent preservative, which is used for preservation of fruit and vegetables, is—
- A.
  
  Sodium chloride
- B.
  
  Potassium metabisulphate
- C.
  
  Potassium sulphate
- D.
  
  Sugar
Correct Answer
B. Potassium metabisulpHate

Explanation
Potassium metabisulphate is used as a permanent preservative for fruits and vegetables. It helps to prevent spoilage and inhibit the growth of microorganisms. It is commonly used in the food industry to extend the shelf life of perishable products. Sodium chloride (common salt) is used as a preservative for certain foods, but it is not specifically used for fruits and vegetables. Potassium sulphate is a fertilizer and not a preservative. Sugar can also be used as a preservative, but it is not considered a permanent preservative like potassium metabisulphate.

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47.

Sugarcane + Potato is an intercropping system of—
- A.
  
  Autumn season
- B.
  
  Zaid season
- C.
  
  Spring season
- D.
  
  Rainy season
Correct Answer
A. Autumn season

Explanation
Sugarcane and potato are commonly grown together as an intercropping system during the autumn season. This is because both crops have different growth requirements and can benefit from each other. Sugarcane provides shade to the potato plants, reducing weed growth and conserving soil moisture. On the other hand, potato plants help break up the soil, making it easier for sugarcane roots to penetrate and access nutrients. Additionally, the autumn season provides favorable temperature and moisture conditions for both crops to grow and mature successfully.

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48.

Sprinkler irrigation is suitable, where the soil has—
- A.
  
  Clayey texture
- B.
  
  Loamy texture
- C.
  
  Undulating topography
- D.
  
  All of these
Correct Answer
D. All of these

Explanation
Sprinkler irrigation is suitable in areas where the soil has clayey texture, loamy texture, and undulating topography. Clayey soil retains water well, making it suitable for sprinkler irrigation. Loamy soil has a balanced mixture of clay, sand, and silt, allowing for good water infiltration and drainage, making it suitable for sprinkler irrigation. Undulating topography refers to areas with varying slopes and elevations, and sprinkler irrigation can be used in such areas by adjusting the sprinkler heads to ensure even water distribution. Therefore, all of these soil and topographic conditions make sprinkler irrigation a suitable choice.

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49.

Insecticides are specific inhibitors of—
- A.
  
  Excretory system
- B.
  
  Digestive system
- C.
  
  Nervous system
- D.
  
  Blood Circulatory system
Correct Answer
D. Blood Circulatory system

Explanation
Insecticides are chemicals designed to kill or repel insects. They are specifically formulated to target and disrupt the functioning of the nervous system in insects. By targeting the nervous system, insecticides interfere with the insects' ability to send and receive signals, leading to paralysis and ultimately death. Therefore, the correct answer is the nervous system.

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50.

Consider the following statements:When factor intensity reversal occurs1. Heckscher-Ohlin trade model fads.2. factor price equalization theorem fails.3. elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3
- D.
  
  1,2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1,2 and 3

Explanation
When factor intensity reversal occurs, all three statements are correct. In the Heckscher-Ohlin trade model, factor intensity reversal refers to a situation where the factor intensities of production are reversed between two countries. This can lead to a reversal of trade patterns and can cause the factor price equalization theorem to fail, which is statement 2. Additionally, statement 3 states that the elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity, which is also true in the case of factor intensity reversal. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

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