Hardest Trivia Questions On Flight Operations And Responsibilities! Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1443 | Total Attempts: 6,714,231
| Attempts: 125 | Questions: 92
Please wait...
Question 1 / 92
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected ensures that the investigator can review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that no evidence will be tampered with or disturbed, providing the investigator with an accurate representation of the crime scene. This allows for a more thorough examination and analysis of the evidence, increasing the chances of solving the crime.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Hardest Trivia Questions On Flight Operations And Responsibilities! Quiz - Quiz

This quiz has the Hardest Trivia Questions on Flight Operations and Responsibilities! Before, during, and after takeoff, there are specific designs that are put in place to ensure the safety of people in the flight and those operating it? How about you take up this quiz and see how well... see moreyou understand the operations and responsibilities of those in search. see less

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

Explanation

During the first 15 to 45 minutes, the hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction. This suggests that they may not have fully composed themselves or developed a strategic plan yet. As a result, they may act more impulsively and unpredictably, potentially increasing the danger for the hostage. It is crucial for the hostage negotiation team to establish contact during this time to try and calm the situation and gain control over the hostage takers.

Submit
3. Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping

Explanation

Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high by ensuring that all members of the flight have the opportunity to experience different duties and responsibilities. This helps prevent burnout and boredom, as well as promotes teamwork and skill development. When individuals are able to rotate through different positions, they feel valued and motivated, leading to increased morale and overall job satisfaction.

Submit
4. All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a

Explanation

All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This means that in addition to being visibly identifiable and equipped with emergency lights and sirens, these vehicles must also have a public address system. The public address system allows security forces personnel to communicate with the public or issue instructions in emergency situations.

Submit
5. What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

Explanation

The first impression you make when arriving on-scene should be calm, positive, and helpful. This sets a welcoming and reassuring tone, showing that you are composed and ready to assist. Being agitated or uncaring would only escalate the situation and make the individuals involved feel more anxious. Similarly, being aggressive or hostile would create a hostile environment and hinder effective communication. Therefore, it is important to approach the scene with a calm demeanor, a positive attitude, and a willingness to provide assistance.

Submit
6. Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

Explanation

Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone present and prevent any further harm or damage. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up barriers or cordons, and preventing unauthorized access. It allows for a systematic approach to the situation, ensuring that all necessary steps can be taken without interference or disturbance. By securing the area, potential threats can be contained, evidence can be preserved, and further actions can be planned and executed effectively.

Submit
7. Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

Explanation

Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because any tampering with the evidence can lead to the contamination or alteration of crucial information that could be used to accurately determine what happened at the crime scene. In order to ensure the integrity of the investigation, it is important to preserve the crime scene and prevent any unnecessary interference or destruction of evidence.

Submit
8. When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

Explanation

Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing helps remove any residue or debris that may affect their performance. Cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage or corrosion. Regular cleaning as needed helps maintain the overall functionality and longevity of the weapons. It is important for unit personnel to take responsibility for cleaning their own weapons rather than relying solely on armory personnel.

Submit
9. Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation

Explanation

Having a patrol officer who has not been involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This officer can provide a new perspective and potentially notice details that others may have missed. It ensures a thorough examination of the scene and increases the chances of finding important evidence.

Submit
10. Which code is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

The options provided in the question are numerical values representing alarm response codes. Out of the given options, 4 is not an alarm response code.

Submit
11. Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

Explanation

During personnel inspection during guardmount, the main focus is on ensuring that the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment. However, checking if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing is not part of the personnel inspection. This means that the individual's readiness to present a post briefing is not assessed during this inspection.

Submit
12. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information on the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand the impact of their strategies and make necessary adjustments to achieve desired outcomes. Feedback helps commanders identify strengths and weaknesses, improve performance, and enhance decision-making processes. By receiving feedback from various sources, commanders can gain valuable insights and make informed decisions to effectively lead their teams and achieve their objectives.

Submit
13. What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?

Explanation

If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview, it is best to let another investigator conduct the interview. This is because a personality conflict can hinder the progress of the interview and may lead to biased or incomplete information being gathered. Allowing another investigator to take over ensures a more objective and effective interview process.

Submit
14. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Explanation

An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. Unlike a first time offender, who may have made a mistake or acted impulsively, a habitual offender demonstrates a pattern of criminal behavior and shows no remorse for their actions. The term "psychotic offender" refers to someone who commits crimes due to a severe mental illness, while a "professional offender" typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.

Submit
15. Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to

Explanation

If the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that they can hide or destroy any potential evidence that could incriminate them or prove their involvement in a criminal activity. By doing so, they aim to avoid being caught or prosecuted for their actions.

Submit
16. Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the

Explanation

The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. This means that the size of the area to be searched will dictate the appropriate search method to be used. If the area is large, a more systematic and organized search method may be required, such as grid searching or using search teams. On the other hand, if the area is small, a more focused and targeted search method may be sufficient, such as a line search or a visual search. Therefore, the area to be covered is a crucial factor in determining the most effective search method.

Submit
17. What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

Explanation

The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that law enforcement officials can take as much time as they need to conduct the interview and gather information from the suspect. The absence of a time limit allows for thorough questioning and investigation, ensuring that all relevant details are uncovered. It also provides flexibility in case the suspect requires more time to provide a statement or if unforeseen circumstances arise during the interview process.

Submit
18. When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

Explanation

When interviewing residents, being alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus indicates that the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This behavior suggests that they are trying to conceal something or protect someone, which could potentially be a threat or a dangerous situation. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of these signs and take appropriate action to ensure their safety and the safety of others involved.

Submit
19. All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

Explanation

The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked. Portable emergency lights ensure that the vehicle is visible and can signal emergencies. Magnetic signs can be easily attached and removed, allowing for flexibility in marking the vehicle. A public address system enables communication with the public or other personnel. These features help to identify and distinguish security forces vehicles during their temporary assignments.

Submit
20. Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

Explanation

Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement, which means that authorities should focus on targeting specific violations rather than enforcing all laws uniformly. By doing so, drivers are more likely to comply voluntarily, as they understand the rationale behind the enforcement and the importance of following the rules. This approach encourages a sense of responsibility and cooperation among drivers, leading to safer roads and a better overall traffic environment.

Submit
21. What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

Explanation

The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable routine, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements and patterns of the MWD teams. This unpredictability can enhance the safety and security of the teams and the area they are responsible for.

Submit
22. Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

Explanation

AF Forms 629 and 1297 are the correct answer because these forms are commonly used for the receipt of weapons. These forms are likely specific to the Air Force and are likely the standard forms used to document the transfer and receipt of weapons within the organization. The other options, AF Forms 629 and 1473, AF Forms 1297 and 1473, and AF Forms 1437 and 1279, are not the correct answer as they do not match the commonly used forms for receipt of weapons.

Submit
23. Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

Explanation

The correct answer is "OPSEC practices." OPSEC stands for Operational Security, which refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. In this context, posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place while following OPSEC practices means ensuring that the information is not accessible to unauthorized individuals who may exploit it for malicious purposes. This includes safeguarding the roster from potential threats and adhering to established security protocols.

Submit
24. The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to

Explanation

The MWD program, which stands for Military Working Dog program, is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the program is to train and utilize dogs for various tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and bomb detection. Detecting classified information is a specialized skill that typically falls under the domain of intelligence agencies and specialized units, rather than the MWD program.

Submit
25. When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If a juvenile's parent cannot respond in a timely manner during questioning, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the proper course of action to take in such situations. They can help determine the next steps to ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning process is handled correctly.

Submit
26. Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

Explanation

The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, and they have the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. They are in charge of managing the personnel within the security forces unit, ensuring that they meet the required standards, and evaluating their performance. SFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of the security forces unit.

Submit
27. What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The Internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and ensuring a timely response to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. Their role is to quickly assess and address any security threats or breaches within the organization. This team is specifically focused on internal security measures and is trained to respond within three minutes to any alarms or incidents that occur.

Submit
28. What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is External SRT. An External SRT (Security Response Team) operates both inside and outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. This team is trained to quickly assess and handle security threats and ensure the safety and security of the area.

Submit
29. What is the unit flight schedule based on?

Explanation

The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by the requirements and priorities of the unit as a whole, rather than individual needs or preferences. The unit needs could include factors such as mission requirements, operational tempo, and resource availability. By considering the unit needs, the flight schedule can be optimized to ensure efficient and effective operations.

Submit
30. It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important to maintain proficiency. By allowing individuals to gain experience and skills in different roles, they can become more versatile and knowledgeable. This rotation helps prevent employees from becoming stagnant or complacent in their current positions and ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest practices and procedures. It also allows for a better understanding of the overall operations and enhances teamwork and collaboration among team members. Overall, rotating personnel promotes continuous learning and development, leading to increased proficiency in their respective roles.

Submit
31. What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

Explanation

The responsibility of coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained is not a responsibility of the unit training section.

Submit
32. Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

Explanation

The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting statistical and information reports/analysis falls under the office of Reports and Analysis. This office is in charge of collecting, organizing, and analyzing data related to criminal incidents, and providing reports and analysis based on this data as required. They play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and up-to-date information is available for decision-making and resource allocation in the field of law enforcement.

Submit
33. When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as you finish your qualification training, you are required to notify the training section on the very next working day. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of your training. It is essential to inform the training section promptly to maintain accurate records and to ensure that any further actions or assignments related to your training can be scheduled accordingly.

Submit
34. Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

Explanation

A MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands OUT and HEEL before being assigned operational duties. The command OUT is used to direct the dog to release or let go of something, while the command HEEL is used to instruct the dog to walk or run alongside the handler's left leg. These commands are essential for the dog's obedience and control during operations.

Submit
35. Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

Explanation

The controller must keep the flight chief and flight commander informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each. These individuals are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight, and it is crucial for them to have up-to-date information in order to make informed decisions and effectively carry out their duties. By keeping them informed, the controller ensures that the flight chief and flight commander have a clear understanding of the situation and can take appropriate actions as needed.

Submit
36. What installations are required to have an ISP?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan." This means that any installation that has or supports resources that require protection must have an ISP (Installation Security Plan) in place. The other options mentioned, such as installations with a flying mission or installations located overseas, may or may not require an ISP depending on the specific circumstances and the determination of the base commander. However, the requirement for an ISP is specifically tied to the presence of protection level resources.

Submit
37. Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?  

Explanation

PL4 resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security. This means that the highest level of protection is required for PL4 resources, and the owners or users of these resources have the main responsibility for ensuring their security. PL4 resources may include highly sensitive information or critical systems that require strict access control and protection measures.

Submit
38. When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search? 

Explanation

The handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD to conduct a search. This is important because different buildings may present different challenges and hazards for the canine. For example, a large building may require more time and resources to search effectively, while a small building may have limited space for the canine to maneuver. Additionally, certain types of buildings, such as warehouses or high-rise buildings, may have specific safety concerns or obstacles that need to be taken into account. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the search.

Submit
39. When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous.

Explanation

A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and highly skilled dog can create fear and intimidation in potential criminals, deterring them from committing crimes. The psychological impact of knowing that a trained dog is on patrol can discourage individuals from engaging in illegal activities, as they may fear being apprehended or attacked by the dog. This psychological deterrent can help maintain law and order and enhance public safety.

Submit
40. Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?

Explanation

The command post is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident. The command post is typically the central coordination point during a crisis or emergency situation, where key decision-makers and officials gather to manage and direct response efforts. They have the authority and resources to quickly communicate and coordinate with the disaster control group, ensuring that they are promptly alerted and can take appropriate action to mitigate the situation.

Submit
41. The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

Explanation

The correct answer is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the purpose of submitting a financial plan is to ensure that the budget is allocated fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, without any bias or favoritism. The financial plan submission aims to ensure that all necessary expenses are covered and that resources are distributed in a way that supports the overall goals and objectives of the organization or government.

Submit
42. How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?

Explanation

The correct answer is "An interview is limited to two investigators." This means that during a suspect interview, only two investigators should be present. This ensures that the interview process is not overwhelming for the suspect and allows for a more focused and controlled environment. Having too many investigators may intimidate the suspect and hinder the effectiveness of the interview.

Submit
43. How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

Explanation

The Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly after the training, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's skills and knowledge. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made in a timely manner.

Submit
44. While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

Explanation

The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is because the MWD (Military Working Dog) should be allowed to move freely within the vehicle while on a mobile patrol. Being off leash allows the dog to respond quickly to any potential threats or situations that may arise. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable during the patrol.

Submit
45. If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Guard" because when an apprehension is made, the handler will typically position the dog in a guarding stance to protect and secure the area. This position allows the dog to stay alert and ready to respond to any potential threats or intruders.

Submit
46. The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?

Explanation

The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight belongs to the Security Forces Investigations office. This office is specifically tasked with conducting thorough investigations into such matters, ensuring that all necessary analysis and expertise are applied to gather accurate information and evidence. The Report of Survey office of investigation, Air Force office of investigation, and Security Forces training team may have their own respective roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically designated to handle investigations of this nature.

Submit
47. If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?

Explanation

If an individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following an interview, they can be released to their supervisor. This suggests that the supervisor is responsible for the well-being and support of the individual in such situations. The supervisor may have the necessary training or resources to address the emotional state of the individual and provide appropriate assistance or guidance.

Submit
48. What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution. This answer is correct because Title 18, United States Code, is the federal law that governs criminal offenses in the United States, including offenses committed on military installations. The US Constitution also plays a role in authorizing the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation, as it provides the framework for the legal system and the rights of individuals. Together, these two sources of authority establish the basis for detaining civilians in such cases.

Submit
49. The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "Dull Sword" identifies a nuclear weapons

Explanation

The term "Dull Sword" is used as a flag word to identify a deficiency related to nuclear weapons. This means that when this term is used, it indicates that there is a problem or a lack in the nuclear weapons system. It does not specifically refer to an accident or incident, but rather highlights a deficiency or issue that needs to be addressed.

Submit
50. What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command "Open Ranks, MARCH"?

Explanation

After the command "Open Ranks, MARCH", the last element of the flight will stand fast and automatically execute a dress right at a normal interval. Each succeeding element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces forward, halt, and automatically execute a dress right. This means that each member of the flight will move forward a certain number of paces, stop, and align themselves with the person in front of them before executing a dress right.

Submit
51. Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

Explanation

The statement "They should not be used often in daylight hours" is not true. Military working dogs are trained to work at any time of the day, including daylight hours. They are trained to perform various tasks such as patrol, detection, and search and rescue operations, which may require them to be active during the day. Therefore, this statement contradicts the role and capabilities of military working dogs.

Submit
52. When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?

Explanation

The military working dog's detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility with few distractions because they rely heavily on their sense of smell. In low light conditions, their sense of smell becomes even more heightened, allowing them to detect scents more easily. Additionally, with fewer distractions, they can focus better on their task at hand.

Submit
53. What does SEI stand for?

Explanation

SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term is used to refer to a unique identifier that represents an individual's specialized knowledge, skills, or expertise in a particular field. It is a way to recognize and differentiate individuals who have gained significant experience or expertise in a specific area. The other options provided, such as Security Entry Identifier, Security Experience Index, and Special Delivery Identifier, do not accurately represent the meaning of SEI in this context.

Submit
54. Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called

Explanation

A follow-up investigation is the process of tying up loose ends and ensuring that nothing was missed during an initial investigation. It involves conducting additional interviews or reviewing the case to gather any additional information or evidence that may have been overlooked. This step is crucial in order to ensure a thorough and comprehensive investigation. A hearing refers to a legal proceeding where evidence and arguments are presented, while a case review is a general assessment of a case. Additional interviews are a part of the follow-up investigation process, but they are not the term used to describe the overall process.

Submit
55. The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight.

Explanation

The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. The chief is a senior position within the flight organization and has the authority to make decisions and provide guidance to ensure safe and efficient flight operations. The commander, supervisor, and SNCO may have their own roles and responsibilities within the flight, but the chief holds the overall responsibility for directing flight operations.

Submit
56. The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

Explanation

When testifying, it is important to have tact, which means being sensitive and careful in one's words and actions. This ensures that the testimony is delivered respectfully and without causing offense. Poise refers to composure and grace under pressure, allowing the witness to present their testimony confidently and effectively. Self-confidence is crucial as it helps the witness appear credible and trustworthy. Reliance, cockiness, and any other attribute mentioned in the options are not essential when testifying and may even hinder the effectiveness of the testimony.

Submit
57. Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the ISI (Installation Security Instruction) is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction. This role holds the highest authority within the installation and is responsible for overseeing all aspects of its operations, including security measures. As such, they have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that the ISI is properly implemented to maintain the security and safety of the installation and its personnel.

Submit
58. In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

Explanation

Communications need to meet the tests of simplicity and directness in terms of readability. This means that the messages should be easy to understand and straightforward, avoiding unnecessary complexity or ambiguity. By keeping the content simple and direct, the communication becomes more effective in conveying the intended message to the audience.

Submit
59. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The HQ Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This means that they oversee and manage the training program for all security forces personnel. They are in charge of developing and implementing training policies, procedures, and curriculum to ensure that security forces members are properly trained and prepared for their duties. This includes coordinating with other units and organizations to ensure that training is comprehensive and meets the needs of the Air Force security forces.

Submit
60. Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

Explanation

The correct answer is individual skills. This type of training focuses on teaching the specific tasks and responsibilities required for a particular duty position. It is designed to enhance an individual's knowledge, abilities, and competencies in performing the required tasks independently. This training is tailored to the needs of the individual and aims to develop their expertise and proficiency in their designated role.

Submit
61. During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH"?

Explanation

The command "Close Ranks, MARCH" is given upon departure of the inspecting official during an open ranks inspection. This command is given to signal the soldiers to close ranks and return to their original positions after the inspection is complete.

Submit
62. When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

Explanation

The dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This ensures that the dogs are strategically placed to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering the area. By positioning them at these locations, the dogs can effectively detect and deter any potential threats, enhancing security measures.

Submit
63. Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?

Explanation

When a subject is not willing or ready to provide information, using a direct approach to questioning is the most effective. This approach involves asking straightforward and specific questions to directly address the issue at hand. It helps to cut through any evasiveness or reluctance from the subject and encourages them to provide the necessary information. By being direct, the interviewer can maintain control of the conversation and increase the chances of obtaining the desired information.

Submit
64. What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?

Explanation

When testifying in court, there are three sources that can be used: personal knowledge, memoranda, and notes. Tape recordings are not one of the permissible sources because they are considered hearsay evidence, which means that they are an out-of-court statement offered for the truth of the matter asserted. Hearsay evidence is generally not admissible in court unless it falls under an exception, and tape recordings do not typically meet those exceptions. Therefore, tape recordings cannot be used as a source when testifying in court.

Submit
65. What is a confession?

Explanation

A confession refers to a complete acknowledgement of guilt for all elements of an offense. It involves the accused admitting their guilt for every aspect of the crime they are being accused of. This implies that they are taking responsibility for all the elements of the offense, leaving no room for doubt or denial. A confession is a powerful piece of evidence in legal proceedings as it directly implicates the accused in the crime they are being charged with.

Submit
66. The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the

Explanation

The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the SJA, which stands for Staff Judge Advocate. The SJA is a legal officer who provides legal advice and support to the installation commander. They are responsible for ensuring compliance with laws and regulations, reviewing legal documents, and handling legal matters within the installation. By delegating LRO duties to the SJA, the installation commander can ensure that legal matters are properly addressed and managed.

Submit
67. When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

Explanation

When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, it creates two single-person fire teams. These fire teams can then act as security patrols, covering different areas and ensuring the safety and security of the restricted area.

Submit
68. What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

Explanation

Before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams in an area, leaders must consider the location and size of the area. The location is important because it determines the specific environment and potential threats that the teams may encounter. The size of the area is also crucial as it affects the resources needed and the effectiveness of the teams in covering the entire area. By considering these factors, leaders can ensure that the MWD teams are strategically deployed and can effectively carry out their tasks.

Submit
69. From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

Explanation

A dog team should approach a building they are about to check from the downwind direction. This is because approaching from downwind allows the dogs to catch any scents or odors that may be coming from inside the building. By approaching downwind, the dogs can use their sense of smell effectively to detect any potential threats or individuals inside the building. Approaching from upwind or crosswind may cause the scent to disperse and make it more difficult for the dogs to detect any potential dangers. Wind direction is important in this scenario to ensure the dogs can effectively use their sense of smell.

Submit
70. It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced

Explanation

The correct answer is "a serious violent crime" because it is implied that the victim has experienced a crime that involves violence. The other options, such as financial trauma, physical trauma, and emotional trauma, may also be present in a serious violent crime, but the emphasis is on the severity of the crime itself.

Submit
71. Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?

Explanation

The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on Department of Defense (DOD) installations or within DOD facilities. The FBI has jurisdiction over federal crimes and is responsible for ensuring the enforcement of federal laws, including those that pertain to DOD activities. The other options, OSI (Office of Special Investigations), CIA (Central Intelligence Agency), and SJA (Staff Judge Advocate), do not have the primary responsibility for investigating and prosecuting violations of the United States Code within DOD installations.

Submit
72. As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for

Explanation

As a leader and supervisor, it is important to create a positive and harmonious work environment. Asking questions that could lead to arguments can disrupt the team dynamics and create tension among team members. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid asking questions that could potentially spark arguments and instead focus on fostering open discussions, encouraging collaboration, and promoting a healthy exchange of ideas and opinions.

Submit
73. Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of

Explanation

Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are all forms of emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any behavior that harms a child's emotional well-being or development. This can include constant criticism, humiliation, or belittlement, as well as withholding love, support, or affection. These behaviors can have long-lasting negative effects on a child's mental health and overall well-being. Therefore, emotional maltreatment is the correct answer in this case.

Submit
74. The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

Explanation

The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that the SEI is used to recognize and assign resources that are capable of handling specific situations, fulfilling contingency plans, or meeting the needs of management. It is not about identifying the number of specialists assigned to a squadron or avoiding unnecessary inspections. The focus is on finding resources that are suitable for specific circumstances and requirements.

Submit
75. After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

Explanation

After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This means that there is a specific time frame in which the reevaluation must take place, allowing the individual to have a chance to improve and demonstrate their skills after receiving additional training.

Submit
76. In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?

Explanation

Personnel should withdraw from an accident site in the direction of upwind or crosswind. This is because in the event of a hazardous material release or fire, the wind can carry toxic fumes, smoke, or flames in the downwind direction, posing a risk to those in that path. Therefore, moving in the opposite direction, either upwind or crosswind, helps to minimize exposure to these hazards and ensures the safety of personnel.

Submit
77. On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the on-scene commander deems it appropriate?

Explanation

The United States retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons on the battlefield when the on-scene commander deems it appropriate. This indicates that the United States has the authority and capability to make decisions regarding the use of lethal force in combat situations. The other options, DFC, LOAC, and Geneva Convention, do not specifically address the immediate use of lethal weapons by the on-scene commander.

Submit
78. What is not included in the ISP?

Explanation

The ISP (Installation Security Plan) includes various components to assess and address security measures for an installation. These components typically include threat estimates, terrain and weather analysis, vulnerability assessments, and estimates of support from friendly forces. However, a cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment is not included in the ISP. This suggests that the ISP focuses more on analyzing and evaluating potential threats and vulnerabilities rather than the financial aspect of acquiring anti-terrorism equipment.

Submit
79. The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

Explanation

The correct answer is "security force members" because the area supervisor's duties are performed by the members of the security force. This implies that the area supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing the security force, and the members of the security force carry out the day-to-day tasks and responsibilities required for the role.

Submit
80. When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

Explanation

In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These highly trained dogs are used to detect various threats such as explosives, drugs, or illegal substances. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items or individuals that may pose a risk to security. By focusing on detection, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing security measures and preventing potential threats from causing harm.

Submit
81. Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The correct answer is CBS. CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system that allows for video surveillance of a specific area or resource boundary. It is commonly used to provide security surveillance for restricted or individual resources, such as private property or high-security areas. The other options, MSCFO and IVA, do not specifically relate to security surveillance systems, while CCTV is a general term that encompasses various types of video surveillance systems, including CBS.

Submit
82. What is not an indication of child neglect?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Signs of impoverishment." This is not an indication of child neglect because poverty alone does not necessarily mean that a child is being neglected. Child neglect refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as medical care, nourishment, supervision, and clothing. While poverty can contribute to these issues, it is not a direct indication of neglect.

Submit
83. The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional investigative steps of an incident when the member is

Explanation

When reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared, the member can gather important information and insights about the incident. This will help them identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the reports, which can guide them in developing an effective investigative strategy. By thoroughly understanding the information already available, the member can determine what additional investigative steps need to be taken, such as conducting additional interviews or collecting physical evidence, in order to further investigate the incident and potentially identify and apprehend suspects.

Submit
84. At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?

Explanation

During the preliminary visual examination, you gather important information about the scene and assess the situation. This includes identifying potential hazards, determining the scope and nature of the search, and formulating a game plan based on the available resources and strategies. This step allows you to establish a clear direction and prioritize areas to search, ensuring an organized and effective search operation.

Submit
85. What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas." This answer is not a function performed by MSCFOs because it involves assessing the interior facility and ensuring that it meets higher headquarters requirements, which is typically the responsibility of higher-ranking officials or facility managers. MSCFOs are more focused on assessing exterior IDS, acting as a subordinate C3 center, and controlling entry into structures.

Submit
86. POM submissions are done in

Explanation

POM submissions are done in even years. This means that whenever someone needs to submit a POM, they can only do it in a year that is divisible by 2. For example, they can submit it in 2020, 2022, 2024, and so on. Odd years, on the other hand, are not valid for POM submissions.

Submit
87. Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?

Explanation

AFI 36–2225 is the correct answer because it specifically governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program. AFI 36–2226, AFI 36–2227, and AFI 36–2525 may be related to other regulations or programs, but they do not specifically pertain to the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program. Therefore, AFI 36–2225 is the most appropriate regulation that governs this program.

Submit
88. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Explanation

Senior security forces NCOs are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the chance to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They play a crucial role in overseeing the training and development of enlisted personnel within the security forces. As experienced and knowledgeable leaders, senior security forces NCOs have the responsibility to ensure that their subordinates receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles and advance in their careers. They work closely with individual supervisors and the unit training section to ensure that the personnel under their command are properly trained and prepared for their duties.

Submit
89. What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFH 33–337. The question is asking for the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill. The options provided are different references, and the correct answer is AFH 33–337.

Submit
90. A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of

Explanation

The correct answer is "precedence as outlined in the ISI." This means that the post priority chart lists the posts and patrols in order of importance, with the least important ones at the bottom and the most important ones at the top, according to the guidelines provided in the ISI.

Submit
91. Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

Explanation

The correct answer is medical staff. During a high-risk incident, only individuals with specific expertise and training, such as medical staff, are allowed within the inner perimeter. This is because they are equipped to handle emergency medical situations and provide immediate assistance to those in need. Reporters, photographers, and key personnel may have limited access to the outer perimeter for information gathering or coordination purposes, but they are not permitted within the inner perimeter due to safety and security concerns.

Submit
92. Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies?

Explanation

RO, or the Responsible Official, is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies. This means that the RO is in charge of making sure that all local agencies complete the necessary training that is required of them. They are responsible for ensuring that all employees receive the proper training and that it is completed in a timely manner. The RO plays a crucial role in ensuring that all local agencies are meeting the necessary training requirements.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 05, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
Cancel
  • All
    All (92)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it...
From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most...
Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping
All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly...
What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy...
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in...
Which code is not an alarm response code?
Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking...
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their...
What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an...
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a...
Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive...
Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search...
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements...
All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly...
Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and...
What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing...
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with...
The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the...
When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot...
Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and...
What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response...
What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically...
What is the unit flight schedule based on?
It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post...
What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required...
When must you notify the training section that qualification training...
Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD...
Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents,...
What installations are required to have an ISP?
Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users...
When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into...
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a...
Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major...
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to...
While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place...
The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring...
If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned...
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a...
The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "Dull Sword" identifies a nuclear...
What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection...
Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?
What does SEI stand for?
Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an...
The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency...
The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and...
In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to...
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a...
During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "Close...
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them...
Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject...
What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in...
What is a confession?
The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and...
When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted...
What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an...
From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are...
It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who...
Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged...
As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that...
Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are...
The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many...
In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal...
What is not included in the ISP?
The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of...
Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual...
What is not an indication of child neglect?
The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting...
At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
POM submissions are done in
Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?
A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order...
Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required...
Alert!

Advertisement