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What is the strongest and longest bone in the body?
A.
Mandible
B.
Femur
C.
Humerus
D.
Tibia
E.
Ulna
Correct Answer
B. Femur
Explanation The femur is the correct answer because it is the strongest and longest bone in the body. It is located in the thigh and is responsible for supporting the weight of the body and facilitating movement. The femur is also a major component of the hip joint and plays a crucial role in walking, running, and other physical activities.
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2.
What is the difference between endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A.
In endochondral ossification, cartilage is replaced with bone, and in intramembranous ossification, mesenchyme in an embryo is transformed into bone.
B.
In endochondral ossification, mesenchyme in an embryo is transformed into bone, and in intramembranous ossification, cartilage is replaced with bone.
C.
Endochondral ossification produces flat bones of the skull and the clavicle in the fetus.
D.
Intramembranous ossification produces the long bones.
Correct Answer
A. In endochondral ossification, cartilage is replaced with bone, and in intramembranous ossification, mesenchyme in an embryo is transformed into bone.
Explanation The correct answer explains the difference between endochondral and intramembranous ossification. It states that in endochondral ossification, cartilage is replaced with bone, while in intramembranous ossification, mesenchyme in an embryo is transformed into bone. This explanation highlights the specific processes involved in each type of ossification, clarifying how bone formation occurs in different situations.
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3.
When blood calcium levels become low, what major hormone is released in the blood to increase blood calcium levels?
A.
Calcitonin
B.
Parathyroid hormone
C.
Testosterone
D.
Estrogen
Correct Answer
B. Parathyroid hormone
Explanation Parathyroid hormone is released in the blood when blood calcium levels become low. This hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels by stimulating the release of calcium from the bones, increasing calcium absorption in the intestines, and reducing calcium excretion in the kidneys.
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4.
David has had eczema, a chronic and itchy inflammation of the skin, since childhood. He wants to learn about the different layers of the skin. Which of the following is not true?
A.
The Epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium, and is part of the skin.
B.
The Dermis is composed of connective tissue, and is part of the skin.
C.
The hypodermis is composed of connective tissue, and is not part of the skin.
Correct Answer
B. The Dermis is composed of connective tissue, and is part of the skin.
Explanation The Dermis is composed of connective tissue, and is part of the skin. The dermis is the layer of skin that lies beneath the epidermis and is composed of connective tissue. It contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and sweat glands. It provides support and nourishment to the epidermis and helps regulate body temperature.
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5.
Which of the following is true concerning thick and thin skin?
A.
Thick skin is found in the palms of hands and soles of feet, and has sweat glands, but not hair follicles nor sebaceous (oil) glands.
B.
Thin skin is found in the palms of hands and soles of feet, and has sweat glands, but not hair follicles nor sebaceous (oil) glands.
C.
Stratum Lucidum is found in thick and thin skin.
D.
Stratum Lucidum is found in neither thick nor thin skin.
Correct Answer
A. Thick skin is found in the palms of hands and soles of feet, and has sweat glands, but not hair follicles nor sebaceous (oil) glands.
Explanation Thick skin is found in the palms of hands and soles of feet, and has sweat glands, but not hair follicles nor sebaceous (oil) glands. This is true because thick skin, also known as glabrous skin, is characterized by a thicker epidermis and lacks hair follicles and sebaceous glands. It is found in areas of the body that are subjected to constant pressure and friction, such as the palms of hands and soles of feet. Additionally, thick skin contains sweat glands, which help regulate body temperature.
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6.
What are the five layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial?
Explanation The correct answer is "Stratum Basale, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Corneum." This is the correct order of the five layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial. The stratum basale is the deepest layer, followed by the stratum spinosum, then the stratum granulosum, and finally the stratum corneum, which is the outermost layer of the epidermis.
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7.
Dendritic cells are macrophages that guard against pathogens, and are produced by the bone marrow. Where would you find these?
A.
Stratum Basale only
B.
Stratum Spinosum only
C.
Stratum Granulosum only
D.
Stratum Corneum only
E.
Both B & C
Correct Answer
E. Both B & C
Explanation Dendritic cells are macrophages that guard against pathogens and are produced by the bone marrow. The stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum are both layers of the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. Therefore, dendritic cells can be found in both the stratum spinosum and the stratum granulosum.
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8.
Jimmy is a surfer and loves to spend a lot of time outdoors. What cell in the skin synthesizes a pigment that shields DNA from ultraviolet radiation?
A.
Stem Cells
B.
Keratinocytes
C.
Melanocytes
D.
Tactile Cells
E.
Dendritic Cells
Correct Answer
C.
Melanocytes
Explanation Melanocytes are the cells in the skin that synthesize a pigment called melanin. Melanin helps to shield the DNA in skin cells from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation. UV radiation can damage DNA and increase the risk of skin cancer. Melanocytes produce and distribute melanin to nearby skin cells, providing protection against UV radiation. This is why melanocytes are important in preventing sunburn and other UV-related skin damage.
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9.
In the Houston humidy, Ashley notices that she sweats a lot when she runs 3 miles in the late afternoon. There are different mechanisms that the body does to maintain the internal temperature from rising too high. Afterall, homeostasis keeps us alive. Which gland is responsible for the watery perspiration that helps cool the body?
A.
Apocrine (Sweat) Glands
B.
Merocrine (Eccrine) Sweat Glands
Correct Answer
B. Merocrine (Eccrine) Sweat Glands
Explanation Merocrine (Eccrine) Sweat Glands are responsible for the watery perspiration that helps cool the body. These glands are distributed all over the body and produce sweat in response to an increase in body temperature. When we exercise or are in a hot environment, these glands secrete sweat onto the skin's surface, which then evaporates and cools the body. The sweat produced by these glands is mostly water and helps regulate body temperature by dissipating heat. Apocrine glands, on the other hand, are not involved in temperature regulation and produce a thicker, odorless sweat in response to emotional or stressful stimuli.
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10.
What is the eponychium composed of?
A.
Dead epidermal cells
B.
Dead epidermal cells
C.
Live dermal cells
D.
Dead dermal cells
Dead dermal cells
Correct Answer
A. Dead epidermal cells
Explanation The eponychium is the thin layer of skin that covers the base of the nail. It is composed of dead epidermal cells, which are the outermost layer of the skin. These cells are constantly being shed and replaced by new cells from the deeper layers of the epidermis. The eponychium acts as a protective barrier for the nail matrix, preventing infection and damage to the growing nail.
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11.
The skin has many important functions. One of them is thermoregulation. In response to feeling cold, the body will retain heat by _____ the vessels in theskin. In response to feeling hot, the body will loose heat by _____ the vessels in the skin.
A.
Dilating; constricting
B.
Constricting; dilating
Correct Answer
B. Constricting; dilating
Explanation The skin plays a crucial role in thermoregulation, which involves maintaining the body's internal temperature. When feeling cold, the body will constrict the vessels in the skin to conserve heat. This narrowing of blood vessels helps to reduce blood flow near the skin's surface, minimizing heat loss. Conversely, when feeling hot, the body will dilate the vessels in the skin. By widening the blood vessels, more blood is brought to the skin's surface, allowing for increased heat dissipation through sweating and radiation.
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12.
You are standing near the fridge looking for something to eat, and suddenly develop goosebumps. What type of muscle tissue is a piloerector muscle (arrector pili) composed of?
A.
Skeletal Muscle
B.
Cardiac Muscle
C.
Smooth Muscle
Correct Answer
C. Smooth Muscle
Explanation The piloerector muscle, also known as the arrector pili muscle, is composed of smooth muscle tissue. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles found in various organs and structures throughout the body, including the skin. They are responsible for various functions such as regulating blood flow, controlling the diameter of airways, and causing the hair to stand up when we experience goosebumps. Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles attached to bones, while cardiac muscles are found in the heart.
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13.
What is the region pointed by the double-arrow called?
A.
Epidermal Papilla
B.
Dermal Papilla
Correct Answer
B. Dermal Papilla
Explanation The region pointed by the double-arrow is called the dermal papilla. The dermal papilla is a small, cone-shaped elevation of the dermis located at the base of the hair follicle. It contains blood vessels that supply nutrients to the hair follicle and play a role in hair growth. The dermal papilla also helps to regulate the size and shape of the hair follicle, contributing to the overall appearance and health of the hair.
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14.
Which of the following organs carries out the first step in the synthesis of Vitamin D?
A.
Intestines
B.
Skin
C.
Liver
D.
Kidney
Correct Answer
B. Skin
Explanation The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of Vitamin D. When the skin is exposed to sunlight, a compound called 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted into Vitamin D3. This precursor molecule then undergoes further modifications in the liver and kidneys to become the active form of Vitamin D that the body can use. Therefore, the skin plays a crucial role in the initial synthesis of Vitamin D.
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15.
Where are hair follicles embedded?
A.
Epidermis
B.
Dermis
C.
Both
Correct Answer
B. Dermis
Explanation Hair follicles are embedded in the dermis, which is the second layer of the skin. The dermis contains various structures, including blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, and hair follicles. Hair follicles are small cavities within the dermis where hair growth occurs. They are responsible for producing and nourishing the hair shaft, which extends through the epidermis (the outer layer of the skin) and can be seen on the surface. Therefore, the correct answer is "Dermis."
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16.
The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation The stratum basale is the deepest layer of the epidermis, where new skin cells called keratinocytes are produced. These keratinocytes are initially young and then gradually move up to the upper layers of the epidermis as they mature. Therefore, it is true that the youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale.
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17.
Which of the following is not found in the epidermis?
A.
Melanocytes
B.
Fibroblasts
C.
Stem Cells
D.
Keratinocytes
E.
Tactile (Merkel) Cells
Correct Answer
A. Melanocytes
Explanation Melanocytes are not found in the epidermis. Melanocytes are specialized cells located in the bottom layer of the skin's epidermis, called the basal layer. These cells produce melanin, the pigment responsible for giving color to the skin, hair, and eyes. The epidermis is primarily composed of keratinocytes, which produce the protein keratin and form the protective barrier of the skin. Fibroblasts are found in the dermis, the layer beneath the epidermis, and are responsible for producing collagen and other connective tissues. Stem cells and tactile (Merkel) cells are also found in the epidermis.
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18.
Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?
A.
Fibroblasts
B.
Melanocytes
C.
Keratinocytes
D.
Dendritic (Langerhans) Cells
E.
Tactile (Merkel) Cells
Correct Answer
E. Tactile (Merkel) Cells
Explanation Tactile (Merkel) cells are associated with the sense of touch. These specialized cells are found in the skin's epidermis and are responsible for detecting light touch and pressure. They have nerve endings that allow them to transmit signals to the brain, providing information about the texture, shape, and temperature of objects that come into contact with the skin. Fibroblasts, melanocytes, and keratinocytes are not directly involved in the sense of touch, while dendritic (Langerhans) cells are part of the immune system and play a role in detecting and responding to pathogens.
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19.
1. A _____ connects a muscle to a bone, whereas a _____ connects one bone to another. Use lowercase alphabet letters only and separate the first and second answers with a coma. Do not use spaces.
Correct Answer tendon,ligament
Explanation A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone, while a ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that connects one bone to another.
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20.
This hand belongs to a(n) _____.
A.
Adult
B.
Child
Correct Answer
B. Child
Explanation Based on the size of the hand in the image, it appears to be smaller and more delicate, suggesting that it belongs to a child rather than an adult. The proportions and features of the hand align with those typically found in children, such as shorter fingers and a rounder palm. Therefore, the correct answer is Child.
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21.
What is represented by Zone 3?
A.
Typical histology of resting hyaline cartilage
B.
Breakdown of lacuna walls, leaving open channels; death of chondrocytes; bone deposition by osteoblasts, forminc trabeculae of spongy bone.
C.
Chondrocytes multiplying and lining up in rows of small flattened lacuna walls
D.
Temporary calcification of cartilage matrix between columns of lacunae
E.
Cessation of mitosis; enlargement of chondrocytes and thinning of lacuna walls
Correct Answer
E. Cessation of mitosis; enlargement of chondrocytes and thinning of lacuna walls
Explanation Zone 3 represents the cessation of mitosis, enlargement of chondrocytes, and thinning of lacuna walls. This zone is known as the hypertrophic zone and is characterized by the chondrocytes enlarging and aligning in rows. The lacuna walls also become thinner during this stage. This process is an important step in the development and growth of cartilage.
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22.
The skeletal system performs all of the following functions except _____.
A.
Protective enclosure of the viscera.
B.
Maintenance of electrolyte balance.
C.
Maintenance of acid-base balance.
D.
Regulation of body temperature.
E.
Production of blood cells.
Correct Answer
D. Regulation of body temperature.
Explanation The skeletal system performs various functions, including the protective enclosure of the viscera, maintenance of electrolyte balance, maintenance of acid-base balance, and production of blood cells. However, it does not play a role in the regulation of body temperature. This function is primarily carried out by the integumentary system, which includes the skin, sweat glands, and blood vessels. The integumentary system helps in maintaining the body's internal temperature through processes like sweating and dilation or constriction of blood vessels.
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23.
You are following the pathway of a glucose molecule from the nutrient foramen in compact bone to an osteocyte in the second row of lacunae of an osteon or Haversian system. Which one of the following represents the most likely pathway?
A.
Central (haversian) canal-->perforating (Volkmann) canal-->canaliculus-->lacuna-->canaliculus-->lacuna
Central canal -->perforating canal -->lacuna -->canaliculus -->lacuna
Correct Answer
D. perforating canal-->central canal -->canaliculus -->lacuna -->canaliculus -->lacuna
Explanation The correct answer is perforating canal-->central canal -->canaliculus -->lacuna -->canaliculus -->lacuna. This pathway represents the most likely route for a glucose molecule to travel from the nutrient foramen in compact bone to an osteocyte in the second row of lacunae of an osteon or Haversian system. The glucose molecule would enter the bone through the perforating canal, then move into the central canal. From there, it would travel through canaliculi, which are small channels that connect lacunae, before reaching the desired osteocyte in the second row of lacunae.
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24.
Appositional growth of a long bone has the effect of
A.
Replacing osteoid tissue with osseous tissue.
B.
Replacing spongy bone with compact bone.
C.
Increasing the diameter of the bone.
D.
Increasing the length of the bone.
E.
Fusing the epiphysis to the diaphysis.
Correct Answer
C. Increasing the diameter of the bone.
Explanation Appositional growth refers to the process of bone growth where new bone tissue is added to the surface of existing bones. This type of growth occurs in the periosteum, which is the outer layer of the bone. As new bone tissue is added to the surface, it gradually increases the diameter of the bone. This allows the bone to become stronger and more resistant to fractures. Therefore, the correct answer is increasing the diameter of the bone.
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25.
The cavity in the diaphysis of long bones is called the ______ cavity and commonly contains ______ marrow.
A.
Medullary; red
B.
Epiphysis; red
C.
Medullary; yellow
D.
Epiphysis; yellow
E.
Endosteum; gelatinous
Correct Answer
C. Medullary; yellow
Explanation The correct answer is "medullary; yellow." The cavity in the diaphysis of long bones is called the medullary cavity. This cavity commonly contains yellow marrow.
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26.
Osteoclasts are stimulated, calcium is reabsorbed by the kidneys, calcitriol is formed and osteoblasts are inhibited from forming collagen. The best explanation for these activities is
A.
low blood calcium and increased production of calcitonin.
B.
High blood calcium and decreased production of calcitonin.
C.
Low blood calcium and increased production of PTH.
D.
High blood calcium and decreased production of PTH.
E.
Normal blood calcium and decreased dietary calcium.
Correct Answer
C. Low blood calcium and increased production of PTH.
Explanation The given activities, including stimulation of osteoclasts, reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys, formation of calcitriol, and inhibition of osteoblasts, suggest a response to low blood calcium levels. This is because these activities aim to increase the levels of calcium in the blood. Additionally, the increased production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is consistent with the response to low blood calcium, as PTH helps to increase calcium levels in the blood by promoting calcium reabsorption from the kidneys and stimulating osteoclast activity.
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27.
One thing calcitriol does that parathyroid hormone does not is
A.
Raise the calcium concentration of the blood.
B.
Stimulate the small intestine to absorb more phosphate.
C.
Stimulate the kidneys to excrete more phosphate.
D.
stimulate the osteoclasts to resorb more bone.
E.
Stimulate the skin to synthesize more vitamin D.
Correct Answer
B. Stimulate the small intestine to absorb more pHospHate.
Explanation Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D and it plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) primarily acts to increase blood calcium levels but does not directly affect phosphate absorption. On the other hand, calcitriol stimulates the small intestine to absorb more phosphate, which helps in maintaining phosphate homeostasis in the body. This is why the correct answer is "stimulate the small intestine to absorb more phosphate."
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28.
This histological slide belongs to _____.
A.
Compact Bone Only
B.
Spongy Bone Only
Correct Answer
B. Spongy Bone Only
Explanation The histological slide belongs to spongy bone only because spongy bone is characterized by a lattice-like structure with trabeculae, which can be observed in the slide. Compact bone, on the other hand, is denser and lacks the presence of trabeculae. Therefore, based on the histological features observed, the slide can be identified as spongy bone only.
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29.
Hemopoiesis typically occurs in _____.
A.
The epiphyseal plate.
B.
The articular cartilages.
C.
The red bone marrow
D.
The yellow bone marrow
E.
The gelatinous bone marrow
Correct Answer
C. The red bone marrow
Explanation Hemopoiesis, also known as hematopoiesis, is the process of producing new blood cells. It typically occurs in the red bone marrow, which is a soft tissue found in the hollow spaces of certain bones. The red bone marrow contains stem cells that can differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These blood cells are essential for carrying oxygen, fighting infections, and clotting blood. The other options mentioned, such as the epiphyseal plate, articular cartilages, yellow bone marrow, and gelatinous bone marrow, do not play a significant role in hemopoiesis.
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30.
The most serious effect of severe hypocalcaemia is likely to be _____.
A.
Laryngospasm and suffocation.
B.
Carpopedal spasm.
C.
Brittle bones and spontaneous fractures.
D.
Depression of the nervous system.
E.
Cardiac arrest.
Correct Answer
A. Laryngospasm and suffocation.
Explanation Severe hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by dangerously low levels of calcium in the blood. Calcium plays a crucial role in muscle function, including the muscles involved in breathing. Laryngospasm, a sudden spasm of the vocal cords, can occur as a result of hypocalcaemia, leading to difficulty in breathing and potentially suffocation. This is the most serious effect because it directly affects the ability to breathe and can be life-threatening.
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31.
Bone is a composite material. Which of the following is not true?
A.
The combination composite material is made of a ceramic and a polymer.
B.
Hydroxyapatite and other minerals are the ceramic and collagen (protein) is the polymer
C.
Ceramic portion allows the bone to support body weight without sagging
D.
Polymer (protein) gives some flexibility
E.
Rickets is a disease caused by polymer deficiency and resulting in soft, deformed bones
Correct Answer
E. Rickets is a disease caused by polymer deficiency and resulting in soft, deformed bones
Explanation Rickets is not a disease caused by polymer deficiency and resulting in soft, deformed bones. Rickets is actually a disease caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, which leads to soft and weak bones. The correct answer is stating that rickets is caused by a polymer deficiency, which is not true.
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32.
Ms. Janeway is a 75 y.o. Asian female with a significant past medical history of osteoporosis and who presents to the clinic for follow up after falling 1 month ago. She wants to know how to get her bones stronger. Which of the following is not a mechanism for increasing bone density and/or preventing osteoporosis.
A.
Lifting weights because of bone remodeling
B.
Estrogen, assuming she has no contraindications
C.
The best treatment is prevention, with exercise and a good bone-building diet between ages 25 and 40.
D.
Anabolic Steroids
Correct Answer
D. Anabolic Steroids
Explanation Anabolic steroids are not a mechanism for increasing bone density and preventing osteoporosis. While anabolic steroids can increase muscle mass and strength, they do not directly affect bone density. The other options mentioned, such as lifting weights for bone remodeling, estrogen therapy (assuming no contraindications), and a good bone-building diet along with exercise during early adulthood, are all known to help increase bone density and prevent osteoporosis.
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33.
In order for mineralization to begin, two steps must occur. These steps are
A.
The solubility product must be reached and the pH must drop to below 4.
B.
the solubility product must be reached and the inhibitors are neutralized.
C.
The pH must be above 7 and osteoclasts become activated.
D.
Osteoblasts begin secreting calcium and phosphate which then attract collagenous fibers.
E.
Osteoblasts begin secreting enzymes to activate inhibitors.
Correct Answer
C. The pH must be above 7 and osteoclasts become activated.
34.
A child lives under the dense canopy of a rainforest in a developing nation. The child shows early symptoms of rickets with the legs beginning to bow. Which one of the following best explains the cause of rickets?
A.
The child cannot form sufficient parathyroid hormone.
B.
Calcium levels in the diet are too low.
C.
The child cannot form sufficient vitamin D3.
D.
The child cannot form sufficient calcitonin.
E.
The child cannot form sufficient vitamin C.
Correct Answer
C. The child cannot form sufficient vitamin D3.
Explanation The child cannot form sufficient vitamin D3, which is the best explanation for the cause of rickets. Vitamin D3 is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the diet, and its deficiency can lead to impaired bone mineralization and the development of rickets. The child's symptoms of bowed legs are consistent with the characteristic deformities seen in rickets, which is caused by a lack of vitamin D3.
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35.
What is an example of a leafy green?
A.
Potatoes
B.
Kale
C.
Corn
Correct Answer
B. Kale
Explanation Kale is an example of a leafy green because it belongs to the cruciferous vegetable family and has dark green, curly leaves. It is rich in vitamins A, C, and K, as well as minerals like calcium and iron. Kale is often used in salads, smoothies, or cooked as a side dish. Its leafy structure and green color make it a prime example of a leafy green vegetable.
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36.
A stress fracture is a break in a bone weakened by disease (such as bone cancer or osteoporosis), and a pathological fracture is a break caused by abnormal trauma to a bone (such as in a fall).
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation A stress fracture is not a break in a bone weakened by disease, but rather a small crack or severe bruising within a bone caused by repetitive stress or overuse. On the other hand, a pathological fracture is indeed a break in a bone weakened by disease, such as bone cancer or osteoporosis. Therefore, the statement is false as it incorrectly defines a stress fracture.
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37.
The adult body contains about 1,100 g of calcium with about ______% stored in bone.
A.
1
B.
15
C.
85
D.
99
E.
100
Correct Answer
D. 99
Explanation Approximately 99% of calcium is stored in the bones in the adult body. This is because calcium plays a critical role in maintaining bone health and strength. It is necessary for the formation and maintenance of bone structure. The remaining 1% of calcium is found in the blood and other body fluids, where it is involved in various physiological functions such as muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting.
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38.
Which of the following is not true?
A.
The cribiform plate is not associated with the sphenoid bone.
B.
The cribiform plate is associated with the ethmoid bone.
C.
The cribiform plate is associated with the frontal bone.
D.
The cribiform plate has foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve, which allows us to smell.
Correct Answer
C. The cribiform plate is associated with the frontal bone.
Explanation The cribiform plate is a part of the ethmoid bone, not the frontal bone. It is located in the roof of the nasal cavity and contains small openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of the olfactory cranial nerve. This nerve is responsible for our sense of smell. Therefore, the statement that the cribiform plate is associated with the frontal bone is not true.
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39.
Mary recently moved to Houston and started to develop new allergies. She has to take anti-histamines to prevent sneezing and itchy eyes and throat. If she does not take her antihistamines, she could potentially develop a cold, and if she does not treat her cold, she could potentially get inflammations of potential spaces. What is the space labeled by the X?
A.
Sphenoid Sinus
B.
Frontal Sinus
C.
Ethmoid Sinus
D.
Maxillary Sinus
Correct Answer
D. Maxillary Sinus
Explanation The maxillary sinus is the space labeled by X. If Mary does not treat her cold, she could potentially get inflammations of the maxillary sinus.
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40.
The _____, labeled below, is located in the temporal bone and serves as the attachment site for connective tissue that connects it with the hyoid bone.
A.
Mastroid Process
B.
External Acoustic Meatus
C.
Styloid Process
D.
Zygomatic Process
Correct Answer
C. Styloid Process
Explanation The styloid process, located in the temporal bone, serves as the attachment site for connective tissue that connects it with the hyoid bone.
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41.
Which of the following does not border the parietal bone?
A.
Sagittal
B.
Sphenosquamosal suture
C.
Lambdoid
D.
Squamous
Correct Answer
A. Sagittal
Explanation The parietal bone forms the sides and roof of the skull. It is bordered by the sphenosquamosal suture, lambdoid suture, and squamous suture. However, the sagittal suture is not a border of the parietal bone. The sagittal suture is the midline joint between the two parietal bones and runs from the front to the back of the skull.
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42.
What is the tagged structure called?
A.
Styloid Process
B.
Mastoid Process
C.
External Acoustic Meatus
D.
Zygomatic Process
Correct Answer
C. External Acoustic Meatus
Explanation The correct answer is External Acoustic Meatus. The external acoustic meatus is a structure in the ear that is responsible for transmitting sound waves from the outer ear to the middle ear. It is also known as the ear canal. The other options listed are different anatomical structures and are not related to the ear.
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43.
Which one of the following is not true concerning the petrous part of the temporal bone?
A.
It is part of the cranial floor
B.
It houses the middle and inner ear cavities
C.
It has the Jugular foramen and carotid canal
D.
It has the External auditory meatus
Correct Answer
D. It has the External auditory meatus
Explanation The petrous part of the temporal bone is true concerning the petrous part of the temporal bone. It is part of the cranial floor, houses the middle and inner ear cavities, and has the Jugular foramen and carotid canal. However, it does not have the External auditory meatus.
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44.
What is labeled by the red arrow?
A.
Foramen Spinosum
B.
Foramen Ovale
C.
Foramen Rotundum
D.
Superior Orbital Fissure
Correct Answer
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
Explanation The correct answer is Superior Orbital Fissure. The Superior Orbital Fissure is a small opening located in the sphenoid bone of the skull. It is labeled by the red arrow in the image. The fissure allows for the passage of several structures, including nerves, blood vessels, and muscles, that are involved in the movement and function of the eye.
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45.
What is labeled by the blue arrow?
A.
Foramen Spinosum
B.
Superior Orbital Fissure
C.
Superior Orbital Fisure
D.
Foramen Rotundum
Correct Answer
D. Foramen Rotundum
Explanation The correct answer is Foramen Rotundum. The blue arrow is pointing to a specific structure, which is the foramen rotundum. This is a small opening located in the sphenoid bone of the skull. It serves as a passageway for the maxillary nerve, which is a branch of the trigeminal nerve responsible for sensory innervation of the face.
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46.
What is labeled red?
A.
Coracoid Process
B.
Acromion Process
C.
Anterior Fossa
D.
Posterior Fossa
Correct Answer
B. Acromion Process
Explanation The correct answer is Acromion Process. The acromion process is a bony projection on the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. It is easily identifiable as it is located at the lateral end of the scapular spine and has a distinct shape resembling a hook or a curved process. The other options listed, such as the Coracoid Process, Anterior Fossa, and Posterior Fossa, are not related to the shoulder anatomy and are therefore not labeled red.
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47.
Natassia fell while running to kick the soccer ball with her outstretched upper extremity. She damaged the bone labeled in red. What bone did she damaged?
A.
Lunate
B.
Triquetrum
C.
Pisiform
D.
Scaphoid
Correct Answer
D. ScapHoid
Explanation Natassia damaged the scaphoid bone. The scaphoid bone is located in the wrist and is one of the eight carpal bones. It is commonly injured during falls or sports activities that involve impact to the hand or wrist.
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48.
What is labeled?
A.
Ethmoid Bone
B.
Sella Turcica
C.
Foramen Magnum
D.
Pituitary Gland
Correct Answer
B. Sella Turcica
Explanation The correct answer is Sella Turcica. The Sella Turcica is a depression in the sphenoid bone of the skull, located in the middle cranial fossa. It is named after its resemblance to a Turkish saddle. The Sella Turcica houses the pituitary gland, which is responsible for the production and release of hormones that regulate various bodily functions.
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49.
Which of the following is not true?
A.
Concha occupy most of the nasal cavity, create turbulence of airflow, and help humidify air
B.
The superior and middle nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone.
C.
The inferior nasal conchae is not part of the ethmoid bone.
D.
The superior, middle nasal, and inferior conchae are part of the ethmoid bone.
Correct Answer
D. The superior, middle nasal, and inferior conchae are part of the ethmoid bone.
Explanation The correct answer is that the superior, middle nasal, and inferior conchae are part of the ethmoid bone. This means that all three conchae are not part of the ethmoid bone, but rather separate structures within the nasal cavity.
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50.
What is labeled by B?
A.
Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
B.
Vomer
C.
Medial Pterygoid Plate
D.
Lateral Pterygoid Plate
Correct Answer
C. Medial Pterygoid Plate
Explanation The medial pterygoid plate is a bony structure located in the skull. It is part of the sphenoid bone and helps form the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone is located in the nasal cavity and helps form the nasal septum. The vomer is also part of the nasal septum. The lateral pterygoid plate is a bony structure located in the sphenoid bone and helps form the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. Therefore, B is correctly labeled as the medial pterygoid plate.
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