Medical Term Quiz Questions Part - 12

1.

The most strongly implicated premalignant condition of the oral cavity is

A.

Fordyce spots
B.

Erythroplakia
C.

Median rhomboid glossitis
D.

Erythema multiforme

Correct Answer
B. Erythroplakia

Explanation
Erythroplakia is the correct answer because it is a well-known premalignant condition of the oral cavity. Erythroplakia refers to a red, velvety patch that cannot be attributed to any other cause and has a high risk of developing into oral cancer. It is considered more concerning than leukoplakia, another premalignant condition, because erythroplakia has a higher likelihood of malignant transformation. Fordyce spots are harmless ectopic sebaceous glands, median rhomboid glossitis is a benign inflammatory condition, and erythema multiforme is an immune-mediated disorder, none of which are strongly implicated as premalignant conditions.

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2.

MC organ involved in MEN I is

A.

Parathyroid
B.

Thyroid
C.

Adrenal
D.

Testis

Correct Answer
A. Parathyroid

Explanation
The correct answer is Parathyroid. MEN I, also known as multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, is a hereditary condition that affects multiple endocrine glands. The parathyroid glands, which are small glands located in the neck, are primarily involved in MEN I. These glands regulate the levels of calcium in the body by producing parathyroid hormone (PTH). In individuals with MEN I, the parathyroid glands may develop tumors, leading to excessive production of PTH and resulting in hypercalcemia. This condition can cause symptoms such as kidney stones, bone pain, and gastrointestinal issues.

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3.

MC cause of severe hypercalcemia is

A.

Vit D toxicity
B.

Sarcoidosis
C.

CRF
D.

Malignancy

Correct Answer
D. Malignancy

Explanation
Malignancy can be a cause of severe hypercalcemia due to the production of certain tumor-secreted factors that increase calcium levels in the blood. These factors can promote bone resorption, impair calcium excretion by the kidneys, and stimulate the production of active vitamin D, leading to hypercalcemia. Malignancies such as multiple myeloma, breast cancer, lung cancer, and certain lymphomas are known to be associated with hypercalcemia. Therefore, malignancy is a plausible explanation for severe hypercalcemia in this scenario.

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4.

Drugs to be avoided in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are A/E

A.

Diuretics
B.

Beta blockers
C.

Digitalis
D.

Nitrates

Correct Answer
B. Beta blockers

Explanation
Beta blockers should be avoided in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because they can worsen the symptoms and lead to a decrease in cardiac output. In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, the heart muscle is already thickened, and beta blockers can further decrease the ability of the heart to contract effectively. This can result in a decrease in blood flow and worsening of symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and fatigue. Therefore, beta blockers are contraindicated in this condition. Diuretics, digitalis, and nitrates may be used in the management of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy depending on the individual patient's symptoms and clinical presentation.

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5.

Niacin should be avoided in patients with

A.

Peptic ulcer
B.

Hypertension
C.

Alzheimer's disease
D.

Parkinsonism

Correct Answer
A. Peptic ulcer

Explanation
Niacin should be avoided in patients with peptic ulcer because it can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen the symptoms of peptic ulcer disease. Niacin is a form of vitamin B3 that is used to treat high cholesterol, but it can cause gastrointestinal side effects such as stomach pain, nausea, and vomiting. In patients with peptic ulcer, these side effects can exacerbate the inflammation and damage to the lining of the stomach or small intestine, leading to increased pain and discomfort. Therefore, it is important to avoid niacin in patients with peptic ulcer to prevent further complications.

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6.

Waddling gait is seen in

A.

Muscular dystrophy
B.

Traumatic paraplegia
C.

Parkinsonism
D.

Cerebellar infarct

Correct Answer
A. Muscular dystropHy

Explanation
Waddling gait is a characteristic symptom of muscular dystrophy. Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive weakness and degeneration of muscle fibers. This weakness affects the muscles responsible for walking, resulting in a waddling gait. Traumatic paraplegia refers to paralysis of the lower body due to a spinal cord injury and would not typically cause a waddling gait. Parkinsonism is a neurological disorder that affects movement, but it does not typically cause a waddling gait. Cerebellar infarct refers to a stroke in the cerebellum, which can cause coordination and balance problems, but it is not typically associated with a waddling gait.

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7.

Heyde's syndrome includes A/E

A.

Aortic stenosis
B.

GI bleeding
C.

Angiodysplasia of colon
D.

PAH

Correct Answer
D. PAH

Explanation
Heyde's syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of gastrointestinal bleeding, aortic stenosis, and angiodysplasia of the colon. Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is not typically associated with Heyde's syndrome. Therefore, PAH is the exception or the answer that does not belong in the list of conditions associated with Heyde's syndrome.

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8.

Which muscle is relatively spared in facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?

A.

Deltoid
B.

Biceps
C.

Triceps
D.

Orbicularis oris

Correct Answer
A. Deltoid

Explanation
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the muscles of the face, shoulder blades, and upper arms. The deltoid muscle, which is responsible for shoulder abduction, is relatively spared in FSHD. This means that it is less affected by the degeneration and weakness that occurs in other muscles affected by the condition. In contrast, the biceps, triceps, and orbicularis oris muscles are commonly affected in FSHD, leading to weakness and muscle wasting in these areas.

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9.

The ideal tidal volume in a patient ventilated for ARDS is

A.

6 ml/kg
B.

10 ml/kg
C.

14 ml/kg
D.

20 ml/kg

Correct Answer
A. 6 ml/kg

Explanation
The ideal tidal volume in a patient ventilated for ARDS is 6 ml/kg. This is because ARDS patients have damaged lungs with decreased compliance, making them more prone to lung injury. Using a lower tidal volume helps to prevent further lung damage and reduce the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury. Higher tidal volumes can cause overdistension of the alveoli, leading to barotrauma and worsening of the patient's condition. Therefore, a tidal volume of 6 ml/kg is recommended to maintain adequate ventilation while minimizing the risk of further lung injury.

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10.

This CXR is suggestive of

A.

Aortic dissection
B.

Aortic coarctation
C.

Aortic aneurysm
D.

Aortic pseudocoarctation

Correct Answer
A. Aortic dissection

Explanation
The given CXR is suggestive of aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a potentially life-threatening condition where there is a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, causing blood to flow between the layers and potentially leading to a rupture. The CXR may show widened mediastinum, abnormal contour of the aorta, or signs of complications such as pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in aortic dissection to prevent further complications.

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