OPC Practice Quiz 2
(319).jpg "OPC Practice Quiz 2 - Quiz")
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- 1.
Which of the following statements is most correct with respect to provisions afforded to the landlord under the Tenant Protection Act?
- A.
A landlord may enter a rental unit to perform repairs and maintenance at any time without notice
- B.
A landlord may change the locks on a rental unit when a tenants rental payments are in arrears for more that 3 months
- C.
A landlord may enter a rental unit without written notice to show the unit to a perspective tenant with the consent o fate tenant between 8am and 8pm.
- D.
A landlord may seize a tenants property for default in payment of rent or a breach of any obligation under the rental agreement
Correct Answer
C. A landlord may enter a rental unit without written notice to show the unit to a perspective tenant with the consent o fate tenant between 8am and 8pm.Explanation
The correct answer is that a landlord may enter a rental unit without written notice to show the unit to a prospective tenant with the consent of the tenant between 8am and 8pm. This means that the landlord can enter the rental unit to show it to potential tenants, but they must have the tenant's consent and it must be during reasonable hours. This provision allows the landlord to market the rental unit effectively while still respecting the tenant's privacy and right to notice.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In a coroners inquest, a jury is composed of 5 persons.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In a coroner's inquest, a jury is indeed composed of 5 persons. A coroner's inquest is a legal proceeding that investigates the cause and circumstances of a person's death. The purpose of the jury is to review the evidence presented during the inquest and determine the cause of death. Having a jury of 5 persons ensures a diverse range of perspectives and opinions when reaching a verdict.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who is in charge of a scene when the coroner arrives?
- A.
The police
- B.
The coroner
Correct Answer
B. The coronerExplanation
When the coroner arrives at a scene, they are the person who takes charge. The coroner is responsible for determining the cause of death and collecting evidence related to the death. The police may be present to assist the coroner, but ultimately it is the coroner's role to lead the investigation and make decisions regarding the scene.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does MSDS mean?
- A.
Manufacturers an suppliers description sheets
- B.
Minimum safe distance schedule
- C.
Material Safety Data Sheets
- D.
Manufacturer Supplied Data sheets
Correct Answer
C. Material Safety Data SheetsExplanation
MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheets. These sheets provide detailed information about the potential hazards, handling procedures, and safety precautions for substances or products. They are typically prepared by manufacturers or suppliers and are important tools for ensuring the safe use, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials. MSDSs are essential for workers, emergency responders, and anyone who may come into contact with these substances.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A male party calls police asking to check on the well being of his brother who is MHA. His brother is not answering the door. What is your authority to enter the residence?
- A.
MHA
- B.
Common Law
- C.
Feeney
- D.
No authority
Correct Answer
B. Common LawExplanation
Common Law is the correct answer because it refers to the legal principle that allows law enforcement officers to enter a residence without a warrant if there is a reasonable belief that someone inside is in danger or needs assistance. In this scenario, the male party calling the police is concerned about the well-being of his brother who is not answering the door, indicating a potential emergency situation. Therefore, based on Common Law, the police would have the authority to enter the residence to check on the brother's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The two dimensions of the Michigan State studies were
- A.
Initiating structure and Consideration
- B.
Concern for people and concern for production
- C.
Employee oriented and production oriented
- D.
Team management and Authority obedient
Correct Answer
C. Employee oriented and production orientedExplanation
The two dimensions of the Michigan State studies were employee oriented and production oriented. This means that the studies focused on two main aspects: the concern for the well-being and satisfaction of employees (employee oriented) and the focus on achieving high levels of productivity and efficiency (production oriented). These dimensions were used to assess and analyze different leadership styles and their impact on organizational performance.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Blake and Mouton, leadership Grid stated managers perform best under a 9,9 style as to a 9,1 or 1,9 style. What are those styles?
- A.
Team management, country club and authority obedient
- B.
Country club, team management authority obedient
- C.
Team management, authority obedient, country club
- D.
Who cares!
Correct Answer
C. Team management, authority obedient, country clubExplanation
The correct answer is Team management, authority obedient, country club. The Blake and Mouton Leadership Grid identifies five different leadership styles based on two dimensions - concern for people and concern for production. The 9,9 style represents a high concern for both people and production, known as the team management style. The 9,1 style represents a high concern for production but a low concern for people, known as the authority obedient style. The 1,9 style represents a low concern for production but a high concern for people, known as the country club style.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the lawful requirement of a police officer after a person has been apprehended under section17 of the MHA and taken to a psychiatric facility?
- A.
Retain custody until the persons name and circumstances have been communicated the attending physician
- B.
Retain custody until the facility accepts custody of the person
- C.
Retain custody until a family member has arrived
- D.
Retain custody until the person is no longer acting in a disorderly manner
Correct Answer
B. Retain custody until the facility accepts custody of the personExplanation
After apprehending a person under section 17 of the MHA and taking them to a psychiatric facility, the lawful requirement of a police officer is to retain custody until the facility accepts custody of the person. This means that the officer must ensure that the person is handed over to the facility and their custody is officially transferred before they can be released from their responsibility. This is important to ensure the proper and legal handling of the individual who requires psychiatric care.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A physician who issued a community treatment order, has reasonable cause to believe that the person has failed to comply with the order, may issue an order for the party to be examined. Where or to whom does this order direct the police officer to take the person following the apprehension?
- A.
The physician or designate who issued the order
- B.
A psychiatric facility
- C.
A hospital
- D.
A qualified mental health practitioner
Correct Answer
A. The pHysician or designate who issued the orderExplanation
MHA 33.3Rate this question:
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- 10.
A justice of the peace order for psychiatric examination issued under section 16 of the MHA directs police to apprehend the person named. The order is valid for _________________ from and including the day it is made.
- A.
24 hours
- B.
7 days
- C.
30 days
- D.
One month
Correct Answer
B. 7 daysExplanation
MHA 16(3)Rate this question:
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- 11.
A patient subject to detention under the MHA leaves the facility without authorization. After the OIC of the facility issues an order, how long from the time the absence comes known does a police officer have to return the patient to the facility?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
48 hours
- C.
120 hours
- D.
1 month within
- E.
6 months within
- F.
30 days
Correct Answer
D. 1 month withinExplanation
After a patient subject to detention under the MHA leaves the facility without authorization, the OIC of the facility has the authority to issue an order. According to the given answer, a police officer has 1 month within the time the absence is known to return the patient to the facility. This means that the police officer has a maximum of 30 days to locate and bring back the patient to the facility, as per the order issued by the OIC.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following HTA offences is NOT arrestable?
- A.
Racing a horse on a highway
- B.
Making false statement in an application, declaration, affidavit or paper writing
- C.
Careless driving
- D.
Deface or alter licence plate
Correct Answer
A. Racing a horse on a highwayExplanation
Racing a horse on a highway is not an arrestable HTA (Highway Traffic Act) offense. While all of the other options listed are arrestable offenses under the HTA, racing a horse on a highway is not specifically mentioned as an arrestable offense in the Act. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it does not fit the criteria of being an arrestable HTA offense.Rate this question:
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- 13.
You observe a motor vehicle speeding in a posted community safety zone and follow the vehicle into a private drive. As you approach the vehicle, the driver orders you to leave his property. He will not surrender his drivers licence as you have demanded, nor will he identify himself. What legal authority if any do you have under HTA?
- A.
No legal authority
- B.
Arrest the driver for fail to give identification
- C.
Arrest the driver for obstruct police
- D.
Arrest he driver for speeding in a posted community safety zone
Correct Answer
B. Arrest the driver for fail to give identificationExplanation
HTA 33Rate this question:
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- 14.
Can a citizen arrest a person for breach of the peace? And can they use force?
- A.
Yes and yes
- B.
No and yes
- C.
No and No
- D.
Depends on the breach of peace
Correct Answer
B. No and yesExplanation
s.30 CCC Can only detain to turn over to a peace officer. Only use as much force as reasonably necessary.Rate this question:
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- 15.
You arrest a youth for assault with a weapon. He is being held at your division and refuses to speak with his parents. What do you do?
- A.
Give notice to parent orally or in writing ASAP.
- B.
Give notice in writing ASAP
- C.
Nothing as he doesn't want parents to know
- D.
Only oral notice needed ASAP
Correct Answer
A. Give notice to parent orally or in writing ASAP.Explanation
YCJA - 26 (1) Subject to subsection (4), if a young person is arrested and detained in custody pending his or her appearance in court, the officer in charge at the time the young person is detained shall, as soon as possible, give or cause to be given to a parent of the young person, orally or in writing, notice of the arrest stating the place of detention and the reason for the arrest.Rate this question:
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- 16.
You are on patrol and you notice a male at a bar drinking. You are aware that he is on an undertaking with conditions for no alcohol. What do you do?
- A.
Arrest for breach
- B.
Apply for warrant
- C.
Arrest and charge for disobey court order
- D.
Apply to court to revoke undertaking
Correct Answer
A. Arrest for breachExplanation
Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to arrest the male for breach. Since you are aware that he is on an undertaking with conditions for no alcohol and you notice him drinking at a bar, it indicates that he is violating the conditions of his undertaking. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to arrest him for breaching the conditions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Investigative detention: Everyone has the right on arrest or detention i. To be informed promptly of the reasonii. To retain and instruct counsel without delay and to be informed of that rightiii. Have the validity of the detention determined by way of habeas corpus and to be released if detention is not lawful
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because investigative detention refers to the temporary detention of an individual by law enforcement for the purpose of investigating a crime or gathering evidence. During this detention, individuals have certain rights, including being informed promptly of the reason for their detention, retaining and instructing counsel without delay, and being informed of their right to do so. They also have the right to have the validity of their detention determined through habeas corpus and to be released if the detention is found to be unlawful.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An officer is notified after ______ days that a complaint has been withdrawn.
- A.
10
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
1 year
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
An officer is notified after 30 days that a complaint has been withdrawn. This suggests that there is a specific time frame within which a complaint can be withdrawn, and in this case, it is 30 days. After this period, the officer is informed that the complaint is no longer valid.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is not an influence on an officer’s ethical world?
- A.
Personal
- B.
External Environment
- C.
Organization
- D.
The public
Correct Answer
B. External EnvironmentExplanation
External environment refers to the factors outside of an officer's control, such as societal norms, cultural values, and economic conditions. While these factors can indirectly influence an officer's ethical world, they are not considered a direct influence. Personal beliefs, the organization they work for, and the public they serve all have a more direct impact on shaping an officer's ethical values and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is not a reason why middle managers may resist the community-policing mode?
- A.
They've tried it before
- B.
They feel threatened
- C.
The dont see a role for themselves
- D.
They support a different model
Correct Answer
A. They've tried it beforeExplanation
Middle managers may resist the community-policing mode because they have already tried it before and found it ineffective or unsuccessful in achieving their goals. They may have faced challenges or encountered obstacles that hindered their ability to implement and sustain this approach. As a result, they may be skeptical about the potential benefits and prefer to explore alternative models or strategies that they believe will be more effective in addressing their concerns and meeting their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not work that a volunteer should be doing (according to the PSA)?
- A.
Providing comfort
- B.
Searching for missing persons
- C.
Assisting with block parent programs
- D.
Driving police vehicles
Correct Answer
D. Driving police vehiclesExplanation
According to the PSA, a volunteer should not be driving police vehicles. This is because driving police vehicles requires specialized training and qualifications that volunteers may not possess. Volunteers should focus on providing comfort, searching for missing persons, and assisting with block parent programs, as these tasks align with their role and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
According to Gordon J Graham which of the following approaches to training is most supportive to risk management?
- A.
One that includes monthly training for high risk/low frequency tasks
- B.
One that focuses on tasks that allow officers time to think in advance of responding
- C.
One that addresses low risk incidents that officers frequently encounter
- D.
One that focuses on high risk/low frequency tasks that require an immediate response
Correct Answer
D. One that focuses on high risk/low frequency tasks that require an immediate responseExplanation
The most supportive approach to risk management, according to Gordon J Graham, is one that focuses on high risk/low frequency tasks that require an immediate response. This approach ensures that officers are adequately trained and prepared for situations that may have severe consequences but occur infrequently. By focusing on these high-risk tasks, officers can develop the necessary skills and knowledge to respond effectively and mitigate potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Congratulations! You have been promoted & transferred to administration. The officer in charge of your new unit realizes that you read the text of the speech by Gordon J. Graham on risk management in preparation for your OPC promotional exam. He asks you to briefly describe Graham’s risk management perspective with respect to police service policy. Which of the following statements is accurate?
- A.
In order to be responsive to local risk factors, policies should be developed locally rather than “borrowed” or “adapted” from other services
- B.
Most police services Graham has visited already have good policies in place focusing appropriately on high risk tasks
- C.
Police services are not “root casual factors” underlying negative consequences and therefore have relatively little importance from a risk management perspective
- D.
Policies should focus on high risk, low frequency tasks and be reviewed annually by competent counsel and subject matter experts
Correct Answer
D. Policies should focus on high risk, low frequency tasks and be reviewed annually by competent counsel and subject matter expertsExplanation
Graham's risk management perspective with respect to police service policy is that policies should focus on high risk, low frequency tasks and be reviewed annually by competent counsel and subject matter experts. This means that policies should prioritize addressing tasks that have a high potential for risk, even if they occur infrequently. Additionally, regular review by knowledgeable individuals ensures that the policies remain up to date and effective in managing risks.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Supervisors are required to confront members about inappropriate behaviours. According to “Every Officer is a Leader” which of the following practices should supervisors adopt in order to influence positive changes in behaviour?
- A.
Manage your half” of the confrontation discussion to retain focus on your key messages
- B.
Make a genuine effort to build relationships with members preferably in advance
- C.
Challenge defensiveness & include a positive statement for each negative, confrontational statement you make
- D.
Keep subordinates at arm’s length to show them who is in charge
Correct Answer
B. Make a genuine effort to build relationships with members preferably in advanceExplanation
Supervisors should make a genuine effort to build relationships with members preferably in advance in order to influence positive changes in behavior. Building relationships helps to establish trust and rapport, making it more likely that members will be receptive to feedback and open to making changes. By investing time and effort into building relationships, supervisors can create a supportive and collaborative environment where members feel valued and respected. This approach is more likely to result in positive behavior changes compared to keeping subordinates at arm's length or solely focusing on confrontational discussions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What does the LEADERSHIP reading from FUNDAMENTALS OF ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR suggest about leadership trait theory?
- A.
Charisma, courage, knowledge & commitment can guarantee leadership effectiveness
- B.
Despite decades of research, there are no traits which have been consistently associated with leadership
- C.
Some traits increase the likelihood of success, but none of the traits guarantee it
- D.
There is a clearly defined set of traits that distinguish effective leaders from ineffective leaders
Correct Answer
C. Some traits increase the likelihood of success, but none of the traits guarantee itExplanation
The reading suggests that while certain traits may increase the chances of success in leadership, there is no guarantee that possessing these traits will make someone an effective leader.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The reading entitled LEADERSHIP suggested that employees benefit most from leaders who possess self-awareness, self-management, self-motivation, empathy & social skills. These were described as the 5 components of”
- A.
Emotional Intelligence
- B.
Employee orientation
- C.
Human relations
- D.
Self interest
Correct Answer
A. Emotional IntelligenceExplanation
The reading suggests that employees benefit most from leaders who possess self-awareness, self-management, self-motivation, empathy, and social skills. These qualities are described as the five components of emotional intelligence. Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions and the emotions of others. Leaders who have emotional intelligence are more likely to create a positive and supportive work environment, effectively communicate with their team members, and make informed decisions based on emotional cues. This ultimately leads to higher employee satisfaction, productivity, and overall organizational success.Rate this question:
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- 27.
According to Hershey & Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Theory, if you are supervising a member who is capable, however lacking motivation to perform a specific task, you should:
- A.
Give clear & specific directions
- B.
Resassign the task to another member
- C.
Respond with a similar laissez-faire approach
- D.
Use a supportive and participative style
Correct Answer
D. Use a supportive and participative styleExplanation
According to Hershey & Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory, if a member is capable but lacking motivation to perform a specific task, using a supportive and participative style would be the most appropriate approach. This style involves providing support, encouragement, and involving the member in decision-making and problem-solving processes. By doing so, the leader can help increase the member's motivation and engagement, ultimately leading to improved task performance. Giving clear and specific directions may not address the issue of motivation, reassigning the task may not address the underlying problem, and responding with a laissez-faire approach may further decrease motivation and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 28.
You are in charge of a platoon whose members are experienced & have a clear understanding of their duties & obligations. According to the research findings for behavioural theories outlined in the LEADERSHIP reading, which of the following approaches is recommended for supervising these members?
- A.
Skill orientation
- B.
People orientation
- C.
Production orientation
- D.
Task orientation
Correct Answer
B. People orientationExplanation
According to the research findings for behavioural theories outlined in the LEADERSHIP reading, a people orientation approach is recommended for supervising experienced platoon members who have a clear understanding of their duties and obligations. This approach focuses on building positive relationships, fostering teamwork, and considering the needs and well-being of the individuals in the platoon. It involves effective communication, empathy, and providing support and motivation to the team members. This approach is especially beneficial when working with experienced individuals who already have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 29.
When a police service concentrates on physiological needs as a means of motivating officers, it places emphasis on:
- A.
Challenging assignments
- B.
Improved shift schedules
- C.
Internal relationships
- D.
Status symbols
Correct Answer
B. Improved shift schedulesExplanation
When a police service focuses on improving shift schedules as a means of motivating officers, it recognizes the importance of work-life balance and the impact that irregular or demanding schedules can have on an officer's well-being. By providing more favorable shift schedules, such as consistent and predictable hours or opportunities for rest and recovery, the police service acknowledges the physiological needs of its officers and aims to enhance their overall job satisfaction and performance. This can contribute to higher morale, reduced fatigue, and better physical and mental health among the officers.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following statements is consistent with Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of motivation?
- A.
A person’s behaviour in a situation in influenced by the rewards or penalties experienced in similar situations in the past
- B.
A person’s behaviour relates to his or her perception of the fairness of the treatment he or she receives
- C.
A person’s behaviour is a function of how much something is wanted & the likelihood that his or her effort will lead to the desired outcome
- D.
A person’s behaviour is influenced by the extent to which management gives him or her the autonomy to be responsible & creative
Correct Answer
C. A person’s behaviour is a function of how much something is wanted & the likelihood that his or her effort will lead to the desired outcomeExplanation
Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation suggests that a person's behavior is influenced by their perception of the likelihood that their effort will lead to the desired outcome and how much they want that outcome. This means that individuals are more motivated to exert effort when they believe that their actions will result in the desired outcome and when they value that outcome highly. Therefore, the statement "A person’s behavior is a function of how much something is wanted & the likelihood that his or her effort will lead to the desired outcome" is consistent with Vroom's theory.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Based on the “hot stove rule”, punishment should be:
- A.
Respectful, adequate & appropriate
- B.
Swift, intense, impersonal & consistent
- C.
Rule-based, firm, fair & non-contingent
- D.
Appropriate, effective & transparent
Correct Answer
B. Swift, intense, impersonal & consistentExplanation
The "hot stove rule" suggests that punishment should be swift, intense, impersonal, and consistent. This means that when someone engages in behavior that requires punishment, it should be delivered promptly and with enough severity to discourage the behavior. The punishment should not be influenced by personal feelings or biases, but rather applied consistently to all individuals who commit the same offense. This approach aims to create a clear and predictable consequence for negative behavior, promoting a sense of fairness and discouraging future misconduct.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In many police services training is focused on the acquisition of specific, measurable skills and knowledge that can be transferred to the operational level. This style of training is known as:
- A.
The adult learning model
- B.
Competency based training
- C.
Proficiency training
- D.
Practical training
Correct Answer
B. Competency based trainingExplanation
Competency based training is a style of training that focuses on developing specific skills and knowledge that can be directly applied to real-life situations. This approach emphasizes the acquisition of practical abilities and measurable competencies, rather than theoretical or abstract concepts. It aims to ensure that trainees are capable of performing their duties effectively and efficiently in their operational roles.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with Gordon J Graham’s perspective on risk management?
- A.
Arrogance, ignorance & complacency can lead to severe consequences
- B.
Policing is the riskiest profession, by adjusted loss rate
- C.
Risk management is the process of looking into the future & asking what can go wrong & then doing something about it to prevent it from going wrong
- D.
Solid, realistic, ongoing & verifiable training represents a systematic approach to risk management
Correct Answer
B. Policing is the riskiest profession, by adjusted loss rateExplanation
(page 279-289 Restorative justice)
This is not a for sure answer.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following forms of interpersonal communication tends to have the greatest impact on an employee’s understanding of a message? Check 232 – 238 management
- A.
Words
- B.
Non-verbal behaviour
- C.
Voice
- D.
Eye contact
Correct Answer
C. VoiceExplanation
Reading 5. Pg 238Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is the best example of a secondary crime prevention program?
- A.
A school liaison officer assigned full time to a local high school
- B.
A citizens foot patrol on Halloween night
- C.
Police assisting senior citizens engraving personal property
- D.
Residents posting ‘speed kills’ signs along their streets minimal police involvement
Correct Answer
A. A school liaison officer assigned full time to a local high schoolExplanation
A school liaison officer assigned full time to a local high school is the best example of a secondary crime prevention program because their presence and involvement in the school can help deter potential criminal activity, intervene in conflicts or incidents, and build positive relationships with students. By being present and proactive in the school environment, the officer can contribute to creating a safer and more secure atmosphere for students, reducing the likelihood of crime or misconduct occurring.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following is characteristic of the ‘restorative justice’ approach to responding to crime?
- A.
Excludes crime victims’ participation
- B.
Is more cost effective than traditional justice methods
- C.
Provided officers with an opportunity to engage in problem solving
- D.
Focuses on establishing guilt
Correct Answer
C. Provided officers with an opportunity to engage in problem solvingExplanation
The characteristic of the 'restorative justice' approach to responding to crime is that it provides officers with an opportunity to engage in problem solving. Restorative justice focuses on repairing the harm caused by the crime and involves bringing together the offender, victim, and community to find solutions that address the needs of all parties involved. By allowing officers to actively participate in problem-solving, restorative justice aims to promote accountability, healing, and community involvement in the justice process.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The strategy of using problem oriented policing (POP) is defined by the following clearly defined stages:
- A.
Reasonable, understandable, measurable, attainable
- B.
Specific, measurable, achievable, time-related
- C.
Development, implement, measure, evaluate
- D.
Scanning, analysis, response, assessment
Correct Answer
D. Scanning, analysis, response, assessmentExplanation
The correct answer is "scanning, analysis, response, assessment". This strategy of problem-oriented policing involves scanning the environment to identify recurring problems, analyzing the root causes and contributing factors of these problems, developing and implementing a response to address the problems, and assessing the effectiveness of the response. This approach allows law enforcement agencies to focus on specific problems and tailor their responses accordingly, leading to more effective and efficient crime prevention and reduction efforts.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which is not an element of crime prevention
- A.
Environmental design
- B.
Auxiliary police
- C.
Social development
- D.
Reducing opportunity
Correct Answer
B. Auxiliary policeExplanation
Auxiliary police is not an element of crime prevention. Auxiliary police refers to a group of volunteers who assist the regular police force in maintaining law and order, but they do not directly contribute to preventing crime. On the other hand, environmental design focuses on creating physical spaces that deter criminal activity, social development aims to address the root causes of crime through education and community programs, and reducing opportunity involves implementing measures to make it harder for criminals to commit offenses.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Target Hardening
- A.
Makes crime less appealing
- B.
Makes the victim less appealing
- C.
Makes crime more difficult
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Target hardening refers to the implementation of measures that increase the difficulty of committing a crime. By making crime more difficult, potential criminals are deterred and may be less likely to attempt it. Additionally, target hardening can make the victim less appealing by reducing their vulnerability and making them less of a target. Overall, target hardening makes crime less appealing by increasing the risks and challenges involved, thereby reducing the likelihood of criminal activity.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Social development focuses on
- A.
The victim
- B.
The offender
- C.
The location
- D.
The school system
Correct Answer
B. The offenderExplanation
Social development focuses on the offender because it aims to understand the root causes of their behavior and address them through interventions and support. By addressing the underlying issues that lead to offending behavior, social development seeks to prevent future offenses and promote rehabilitation and reintegration into society. This approach recognizes that individuals who engage in harmful behavior often do so due to various social, psychological, and environmental factors, and seeks to address these factors to create positive change.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The most widely known crime prevention program is neighbourhood watch
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Neighbourhood watch is indeed the most widely known crime prevention program. It involves residents of a particular neighborhood voluntarily organizing themselves to keep an eye out for suspicious activities and report them to the authorities. This program aims to create a sense of community and increase vigilance, ultimately deterring criminals from targeting the area. Neighbourhood watch programs have been implemented in numerous communities worldwide and have proven to be effective in reducing crime rates.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is not a demographic trend?
- A.
Aging population
- B.
Immigration patterns
- C.
Youth culture
- D.
Gun control legislation
Correct Answer
D. Gun control legislationExplanation
Gun control legislation is not a demographic trend because it refers to laws and regulations related to the possession and use of firearms, which is a policy issue rather than a demographic characteristic. Demographic trends typically refer to changes in population characteristics such as age, race, gender, or migration patterns. Aging population, immigration patterns, and youth culture are examples of demographic trends as they involve shifts in the composition and behavior of specific population groups.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is not a key characteristic of a learning organization?
- A.
Open to new ideas
- B.
Maintain a status quo
- C.
Tolerance for risk taking
- D.
Shared vision
Correct Answer
B. Maintain a status quoExplanation
Maintaining a status quo is not a key characteristic of a learning organization. Learning organizations are known for their ability to adapt and change in response to new information and ideas. They are open to new ideas, encourage risk-taking, and have a shared vision that guides their actions. However, maintaining a status quo implies a resistance to change and a reluctance to explore new possibilities, which goes against the principles of a learning organization.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Cst Toth is aware that his partner, Cst Prim, has been accepting bribes from a local bar owner in exchange for discretion relating to liquor licence violations. Cst Toth is reluctant to report this activity because Cst Prim is suffering emotionally & financially following a recent marital separation. According to the ETHICS reading, Cst Toth is:
- A.
Experiencing an ethical dilemma
- B.
In need of ethics training to increase his ethical-behaviour intentions
- C.
Not committed to morals & values
- D.
Under no (legal) obligation to report
Correct Answer
A. Experiencing an ethical dilemmaExplanation
Cst Toth is experiencing an ethical dilemma because he is torn between his duty to report Cst Prim's unethical behavior and his empathy towards Cst Prim's difficult situation. The ETHICS reading suggests that ethical dilemmas arise when individuals face conflicting moral obligations or values. In this case, Cst Toth's commitment to upholding the law conflicts with his concern for Cst Prim's emotional and financial well-being. This conflict puts Cst Toth in a difficult situation where there is no clear right or wrong answer, hence experiencing an ethical dilemma.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Based on our knowledge of goal setting from the MOTIVATION & PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT readings, which of the following is NOT true?
- A.
Assigned goals can be effective for inexperienced employees
- B.
Defining goals in relation to exceeding the performance of another member or group can be beneficial in some circumstances
- C.
Difficult but attainable goals lead to higher performance than easy goals
- D.
Encourage members to set “do your best” goals in order to avoid setting an artificial performance ceiling
Correct Answer
D. Encourage members to set “do your best” goals in order to avoid setting an artificial performance ceilingExplanation
Encouraging members to set "do your best" goals does not help in avoiding setting an artificial performance ceiling. In fact, setting specific and challenging goals is more likely to lead to higher performance. The other options are all true based on the knowledge of goal setting from the readings. Assigned goals can be effective for inexperienced employees, defining goals in relation to exceeding others can be beneficial in certain situations, and difficult but attainable goals generally result in higher performance compared to easy goals.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Cst Cleave is disciplined for using offensive language towards a dispatcher. At the next shift briefing, the supervisor refers to the incident & says “in light of what happened, I want to remind everyone to be aware of our new Anti-Harassment policy. Harassment is any behaviour that demeans or embarrasses someone, & that a reasonable person should have known would be unwelcome. Our service’s new policy prohibits harassment based on the “official” prohibited grounds of discrimination as defined in Human Rights legislation. The anti-harassment policy also includes “disrespectful behaviour” towards any member of a service. As members are leaving, Cst Todd states, “I don’t know what the problem is, Cst Cleave didn’t intend any harm.” It is evident that:
- A.
The supervisor failed to employ a “formal channel”
- B.
The supervisor failed to achieve understanding
- C.
The supervisor employed an informal communication channel
- D.
Cst Todd disagreed with the message
Correct Answer
B. The supervisor failed to achieve understandingExplanation
The explanation for the correct answer is that the supervisor failed to achieve understanding. This is evident from Cst Todd's statement where he expresses confusion about the problem and states that Cst Cleave didn't intend any harm. This indicates that the supervisor's message about the new Anti-Harassment policy was not effectively understood or internalized by Cst Todd.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Several officers were recently documented for accepting free food from local restaurants, contrary to your police service policy. As a supervisor, which of the following communication strategies would be LEAST effective in promoting compliance?
- A.
Use written communication only
- B.
Use direct and simple language
- C.
Repeat communication as needed
- D.
Clarify essential information
Correct Answer
A. Use written communication onlyExplanation
Using written communication only would be the least effective strategy in promoting compliance in this situation. While written communication can be useful for providing documentation and clarity, it may not be the most effective method for addressing a sensitive issue like officers accepting free food. Verbal communication would allow for more immediate feedback, clarification, and discussion, which are important for addressing the issue and promoting compliance.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A police service’s administration issues a new policy which prohibits officers from trading shifts with their colleagues. Supervisors get together to discuss the impact of this change, including the loss of flexibility in staffing & a decrease in morale. This action by supervisors is known as:
- A.
Insubordinate subversion
- B.
Horizontal communication
- C.
A vertical clique
- D.
A task force
Correct Answer
B. Horizontal communicationExplanation
Horizontal communication refers to the exchange of information and ideas between individuals or groups at the same level of hierarchy within an organization. In this scenario, the supervisors getting together to discuss the impact of the new policy demonstrates horizontal communication as they are engaging in a discussion amongst themselves, sharing their thoughts and concerns about the change. This type of communication allows for collaboration, problem-solving, and the sharing of perspectives among peers.Rate this question:
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- 49.
You are meeting with Cst Hull regarding performance issues. You begin the discussion by sharing specific details about the officer’s incomplete occurrence reports. Cst Hull speaks with a strong accent & his response is defensive. As he is talking, you begin to wonder whether your service made a mistake hiring this officer. In order to ensure effective communication, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Withhold judgement until the officer has responded to your questions
- B.
Use clear & direct language
- C.
Request the assistance of an interpreter
- D.
Ask questions to ensure understanding
Correct Answer
C. Request the assistance of an interpreterExplanation
The correct answer is to request the assistance of an interpreter. This is because the question mentions that Cst Hull speaks with a strong accent, implying that the issue lies with understanding his accent rather than a language barrier. Therefore, requesting an interpreter may not be necessary in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Residents of a condominium have complained to police about noise from an outdoor patio at a nearby restaurant. Their condo association has called a meeting to discuss this issue & you have been invited to represent your service at this meeting. You are aware that the outdoor patio has been operating at this location for many years before the condo was constructed. According to EVERY OFFICER IS A LEADER, which of the following strategies should you adopt in order to ensure effective communication?
- A.
Maintain control of the discussion by asking direct/specific questions
- B.
Defer questions to your municipality’s by-law enforcement officer
- C.
Communicate with empathy & understanding
- D.
Assert the police service position, including statistics that support your position
Correct Answer
C. Communicate with empathy & understandingExplanation
In order to ensure effective communication, it is important to adopt the strategy of communicating with empathy and understanding. This approach acknowledges the concerns of the residents and shows that you are listening and empathizing with their situation. By demonstrating understanding, you can build rapport and trust with the residents, which can lead to a more productive and collaborative discussion. This strategy promotes open dialogue and allows for the exploration of potential solutions that can address the noise issue while considering the long-standing operation of the outdoor patio.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 23, 2017Quiz Created by
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