OPC Practice Quiz 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
According to Ethics reading the the six pillars of character are Trustworthiness, ________________ , Responsibility, __________________, ____________________ and civic virtue and citizenship.
- A.
Honesty, Truthfulness, knowledge
- B.
Honesty, knowledge, respect
- C.
Respect, fairness, caring
- D.
Honesty, fairness, caring
Correct Answer
C. Respect, fairness, caringExplanation
The correct answer is respect, fairness, caring. According to the Ethics reading, the six pillars of character are Trustworthiness, respect, Responsibility, fairness, caring, and civic virtue and citizenship. These pillars represent important values and qualities that individuals should possess in order to be considered of good character. Respect involves treating others with dignity and showing consideration for their feelings and rights. Fairness refers to being just and impartial in one's actions and decisions. Caring involves showing compassion and empathy towards others.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Carefully thinking through the consequences of your actions and modifying your decisions to produce a desire outcome is:
- A.
Thinking risk management
- B.
Thinking communication
- C.
Doing ethics
- D.
Accepting responsibility
Correct Answer
C. Doing ethicsExplanation
Doing ethics involves carefully thinking through the consequences of your actions and modifying your decisions to produce a desired outcome. It involves considering the moral and ethical implications of your choices and taking responsibility for the impact they may have on others. By engaging in ethical decision-making, individuals can ensure that their actions align with their values and contribute to the greater good.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
____________________ is automatically the jurisdiction of OIPRD.
- A.
Police on and off duty
- B.
On duty police
- C.
Special Cst
- D.
Auxiliary
Correct Answer
B. On duty policeExplanation
On duty police are automatically under the jurisdiction of OIPRD. This means that any complaints or issues related to the conduct or actions of on duty police officers will be handled by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD). The OIPRD is responsible for receiving and investigating public complaints against police in Ontario, Canada. Therefore, any misconduct or complaints against on duty police officers would fall within the purview of OIPRD.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Issues involving competing rights are often referred to as ethical dilemmas.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Issues involving competing rights are often referred to as ethical dilemmas because in such situations, there is a conflict between two or more moral principles or values. These conflicts arise when individuals or groups have legitimate claims or rights that are in opposition to each other. Ethical dilemmas require individuals to make difficult decisions and choose between different courses of action, considering the potential consequences and the moral implications of their choices. Therefore, it is true that issues involving competing rights are often referred to as ethical dilemmas.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Responding is a personal and intimate skill and sometimes requires the other persons
- A.
Frame of reference
- B.
Permission
- C.
Respect
- D.
Thought
Correct Answer
B. PermissionExplanation
In order to respond effectively to someone, it is important to have their permission. This means that the other person is open to receiving your response and is willing to engage in a conversation or share their thoughts. Without permission, responding may be seen as intrusive or disrespectful. Permission allows for a respectful and considerate exchange of ideas and opinions.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
In what stage of problem solving do you determine the cause of the problem?
- A.
Scanning
- B.
Analysis
- C.
Response
- D.
Assessment
Correct Answer
B. AnalysisExplanation
In the analysis stage of problem solving, you examine the situation and gather information to determine the cause of the problem. This involves identifying patterns, investigating potential factors, and evaluating possible solutions. By conducting a thorough analysis, you can gain a deeper understanding of the problem's root cause and develop effective strategies to address it.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Words that are peculiar to an occupation or speciality. What is
- A.
Semantics
- B.
Jargon
- C.
Status
- D.
Filtering
Correct Answer
B. JargonExplanation
Jargon refers to words that are specific to a particular occupation or specialty. It is a type of language that is used by professionals in a specific field and may not be easily understood by those outside of that field. Jargon is often used to communicate complex ideas or concepts efficiently among professionals who share the same knowledge and understanding.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The multiple meaning of words. What is
- A.
Stereotyping
- B.
Semantics
- C.
Jargon
- D.
Status
Correct Answer
B. SemanticsExplanation
Semantics refers to the study of meaning in language. It focuses on how words, phrases, and sentences convey meaning and how they are interpreted. In the context of the question, the term "semantics" is relevant because it is one of the concepts being discussed alongside other terms like stereotyping, jargon, and status. While stereotyping refers to generalizations or assumptions about a group, jargon refers to specialized vocabulary used within a specific profession or group, and status refers to one's position or rank in society, semantics specifically deals with the meaning of words and language.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
The perception that all people in a certain group share common attitudes, values and beliefs. What is
- A.
Jargon
- B.
Semantics
- C.
Status
- D.
Stereotyping
Correct Answer
D. StereotypingExplanation
Stereotyping refers to the perception that all people in a certain group share common attitudes, values, and beliefs. It is a cognitive process where individuals make assumptions or judgments about others based on their membership in a particular group. Stereotypes can be based on race, gender, age, religion, or any other characteristic. They often oversimplify and generalize individuals, leading to unfair judgments and discrimination. Stereotyping can be harmful as it perpetuates biases and prejudices, limiting individuals' opportunities and reinforcing social inequalities.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Attitudes towards a person based on the position he or she occupies. What is
- A.
Filtering
- B.
Stereotyping
- C.
Semantics
- D.
Status
Correct Answer
D. StatusExplanation
Status refers to the social or professional position that a person holds. Attitudes towards a person based on their status can vary, as individuals may be perceived differently based on their position in society or within an organization. This can include attitudes of respect, admiration, or even discrimination based on someone's status.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
The process of softening or omitting unpleasant details.
- A.
Status
- B.
Sematics
- C.
Filtering
- D.
Jargon
Correct Answer
C. FilteringExplanation
Filtering is the correct answer because it refers to the process of softening or omitting unpleasant details. Filtering involves selectively presenting information or communication in a way that removes or downplays certain aspects, often to make it more palatable or to manipulate the perception of the audience. It is a common technique used in various contexts such as media, marketing, and interpersonal communication.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
The best practices of PMS are all EXCEPT:
- A.
Senior management commitment
- B.
Has to have a clear criteria for rating
- C.
Training on PMS across the board
- D.
Feedback is optional
Correct Answer
D. Feedback is optionalExplanation
The best practices of PMS include senior management commitment, having a clear criteria for rating, and training on PMS across the board. These practices ensure that the performance management system is effective and fair. However, feedback is not optional in a successful PMS. It is crucial for employees to receive feedback on their performance in order to improve and grow. Without feedback, employees may not be aware of their strengths and weaknesses, hindering their professional development.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Maslows hierarchy of needs list five needs. If an employee its trying to be accepted by their peers, what need are they focusing on?
- A.
Physiological need
- B.
Safety need
- C.
Social need
- D.
Self-esteem need
- E.
Self-actualization need
Correct Answer
C. Social needExplanation
When an employee is trying to be accepted by their peers, they are focusing on the social need. Maslow's hierarchy of needs suggests that after physiological and safety needs are met, individuals seek to fulfill their social needs, which include the need for acceptance, belonging, and friendship. This need is related to forming relationships and being part of a group, which is important for an individual's emotional well-being and sense of belonging in the workplace.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Three broad categories for the PMS are 'warden', 'softie' and 'coach'.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Warden - catch employees doing wrong in order to point out weaknesses and enforce rules.
Softie - dating to catch employee doing good work and hides bad, avoid conflict and maintain relations
Coach - Waiting to catch employee to assist through constructive feedback on what should/should no be doing and how to do it otherwise in order to develop himself to successful performance.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Select which ones are Primary Crime prevention programs
- A.
Neighbourhood watch
- B.
Citizen Patrol
- C.
Rehab
- D.
Diversion
Correct Answer(s)
A. Neighbourhood watch
B. Citizen PatrolExplanation
Neighbourhood watch and Citizen Patrol are both examples of primary crime prevention programs. These programs aim to prevent crime from occurring in the first place by increasing community involvement, promoting awareness, and encouraging residents to take proactive measures to protect their neighborhoods. Both Neighbourhood watch and Citizen Patrol involve community members working together to monitor their surroundings, report suspicious activities, and deter potential criminals. By actively engaging the community and creating a sense of collective responsibility, these programs contribute to creating safer and more secure neighborhoods.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Select all that are secondary crime prevention programs
- A.
Operation identification
- B.
Diversion
- C.
School programs
- D.
Community service
Correct Answer(s)
B. Diversion
C. School programsExplanation
Diversion and school programs are considered secondary crime prevention programs because they aim to intervene and redirect individuals who are at risk of engaging in criminal behavior. Diversion programs provide alternative options to traditional criminal justice processing, such as counseling or rehabilitation, to address the underlying causes of criminal behavior. School programs, on the other hand, focus on providing education and support to students to prevent them from engaging in criminal activities. Both of these programs aim to prevent crime by intervening at an early stage and addressing the root causes of criminal behavior.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
According to the firearms act, a registration certificate may only be issued for
- A.
A prohibited or restricted firearm
- B.
A firearm that bears a serial number to distinguish it from other firearms
- C.
A police firearm
- D.
Both A and B
- E.
All of the above
- F.
NONE of the above
Correct Answer
D. Both A and BExplanation
http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/page-4.html#docContRate this question:
-
- 18.
Police execute a warrant and seize a firearm. How long until and oder of disposition has to be given to a JP
- A.
30 days
- B.
1 month
- C.
7 days
- D.
ASAP
Correct Answer
A. 30 daysExplanation
After the police execute a warrant and seize a firearm, they are required to provide an order of disposition to a Justice of the Peace (JP) within 30 days. This order of disposition outlines the plan for the disposal or return of the seized firearm. It ensures that there is a legal process in place for handling the firearm and prevents any unnecessary delays in resolving the matter.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
A persons is not eligible to hold a registration certificate for a firearm unless the person holds a licence authorizing the person to possess that kind of firearm.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In order to hold a registration certificate for a firearm, a person must have a license that authorizes them to possess that specific type of firearm. This means that without a valid license, a person is not eligible to hold a registration certificate for a firearm. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
The following are all duties of a police officer EXCEPT:
- A.
Preserving the peace and preventing crimes and other offences
- B.
Assisting victims of crime and apprehending criminals/offenders
- C.
Working paid duties to assist citizens
- D.
Completing prescribed training
Correct Answer
C. Working paid duties to assist citizensExplanation
The duties of a police officer include preserving the peace, preventing crimes, assisting victims of crime, apprehending criminals/offenders, and completing prescribed training. However, working paid duties to assist citizens is not one of the duties of a police officer. This means that while police officers are responsible for various tasks to ensure public safety and maintain law and order, working paid duties specifically to assist citizens is not part of their job description.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
An auxiliary member of the police force has the authority of a police officer if he or she is __________________________________________ and is authorized to perform the duties by the chief of police.
- A.
Trained appropriately and adequately
- B.
Accompanied or supervised by a police officer
- C.
Is dating a police officer
- D.
Is in full uniform with all their use of force options
Correct Answer
B. Accompanied or supervised by a police officerExplanation
An auxiliary member of the police force has the authority of a police officer if he or she is accompanied or supervised by a police officer and is authorized to perform the duties by the chief of police. This means that the auxiliary member can only exercise their authority and perform their duties when they are under the direct supervision or in the presence of a police officer. Without this supervision, the auxiliary member does not have the same authority as a police officer.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
An officer has a criminal trail on the same days as his PSA hearing. Both are in relation to the same investigation. Who notifies who?
- A.
The chief notifies the board
- B.
The officer notifies the board
- C.
The crown notifies the board
- D.
The board notifies the crown
- E.
Frodo notifies spiegel. Only one notifies the other.
Correct Answer
C. The crown notifies the boardExplanation
Hearing to continue
83(15) If the police officer who is the subject of the hearing is charged with an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory in connection with the conduct that was the subject of the complaint, the hearing shall continue unless the Crown Attorney advises the chief of police or board, as the case may be, that it should be stayed until the conclusion of the proceedings dealing with the offence. 2007, c. 5, s. 10.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Informal resolution agreed to. 8 days later complainant wishes to withdraw they agreement. Can they
- A.
Yes they have 12 days
- B.
NO
- C.
No they had 3 days
- D.
Yes they have 15 days
Correct Answer
A. Yes they have 12 daysExplanation
The correct answer is "Yes they have 12 days." This is because the complainant has the right to withdraw their agreement within a certain timeframe after an informal resolution is agreed upon. In this case, they have 12 days to withdraw their agreement.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
How many days does a police service have to investigate a complaint before asking OIPRD for an extension?
- A.
7 days
- B.
45 days
- C.
30 days
- D.
10 days
Correct Answer
C. 30 daysExplanation
A police service has 30 days to investigate a complaint before asking OIPRD (Ontario Independent Police Review Director) for an extension. This time frame allows the police service to conduct a thorough investigation into the complaint before seeking additional time if necessary. It ensures that the investigation is carried out promptly and efficiently, while also providing the opportunity for an extension if more time is needed to gather evidence or complete the investigation.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The chief of police can auction property that has been their police possession for atleast ____________________. For motor vehicles and bicycles ______________________. Atleast ________________ notice of time and place of the auction shall be given. For money the time period is __________________________
- A.
One month, one month, ten days, 6 months
- B.
One month, 3 months, 10 days, 3 months
- C.
One month for everything
- D.
3 months for everything
Correct Answer
B. One month, 3 months, 10 days, 3 monthsExplanation
The chief of police can auction property that has been in their possession for at least one month. For motor vehicles and bicycles, the minimum possession period is three months. At least ten days' notice of the time and place of the auction shall be given. However, for money, the time period is three months.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
If a motor vehicle, bicycle or other property has been sold before it has been in the possession of the police force for 3 months and if the owner makes a claim before that time, the owner is entitled to receive the proceeds.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Sorry had to do an OPC question. They are entitled LESS the storage, advertising and sale cost.
Claim of owner of property
132(5) If a motor vehicle, bicycle or other property has been sold before it has been in the possession of the police force for three months and if the owner makes a claim before that time, the owner is entitled to receive the proceeds, less the costs of storage, advertising and sale.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Which was Albert Banduara's theory
- A.
Social Learning theory
- B.
Equity theory
- C.
Learned needs theory
- D.
ERG theory
Correct Answer
A. Social Learning theoryExplanation
Albert Bandura's theory is the Social Learning theory. This theory suggests that people learn by observing others and imitating their behavior. Bandura believed that individuals learn not only from direct experience but also from the observation of others. This theory emphasizes the role of modeling and social reinforcement in the learning process. It suggests that individuals can acquire new behaviors, attitudes, and emotional reactions through observational learning, which occurs through the observation of others' actions and the consequences that follow.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
According to the path goal theory the four leadership behaviours are Directive, supportive, participative and:
- A.
Goal oriented
- B.
Achievement oriented
- C.
Success oriented
- D.
Money oriented
Correct Answer
B. Achievement orientedExplanation
According to the path goal theory, the four leadership behaviors are directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented. Achievement-oriented leadership focuses on setting challenging goals for employees and encouraging them to achieve those goals. This leadership style emphasizes high performance and success. It involves providing feedback, recognizing accomplishments, and encouraging employees to strive for excellence. By being achievement-oriented, leaders motivate and inspire their team members to reach their full potential and attain success.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The ERG in Alderfers theory stand for Existence, Relatedness and Growth
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Alderfer's theory of motivation, known as the ERG theory, suggests that individuals are motivated by three key needs: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth. Existence refers to the basic physical and material needs such as food, shelter, and safety. Relatedness refers to the need for social relationships and connections with others. Growth refers to the need for personal development and self-improvement. Therefore, the statement that the ERG in Alderfer's theory stands for Existence, Relatedness, and Growth is true.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Mar 25, 2017Quiz Created by
Aamer
Uncover Your True Personality: Take the 'What Am I?' Quiz
Uncover Your True Personality: Take the 'What Am I?' Quiz
A World History Quiz: Let�s Enjoy General History Quiz Together!
A World History Quiz: Let�s Enjoy General History Quiz Together!
Back to top