Oral Pathology - Systemic Diseases
Oral pathology - oral manifestations of systemic diseases
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The most severe result of infection with HIV is called
- A.
Candidiasis
- B.
AIDS
- C.
Thrombocytopenia
- D.
DiGeorge syndrome
Correct Answer
B. AIDSExplanation
The most severe result of infection with HIV is called AIDS. AIDS stands for Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, which is a condition that occurs when the immune system is severely damaged by the HIV virus. This damage to the immune system leaves the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancer. Candidiasis, thrombocytopenia, and DiGeorge syndrome are all medical conditions, but they are not specifically associated with HIV infection or considered the most severe result of HIV infection.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The most commonly used test to determine HIV infection is a test for
- A.
Viral antigen
- B.
T-lymphocyte function
- C.
B-lymphocyte function
- D.
Antibodies
Correct Answer
D. AntibodiesExplanation
The most commonly used test to determine HIV infection is a test for antibodies. This is because when a person is infected with HIV, their immune system produces antibodies to fight against the virus. The test detects the presence of these antibodies in the blood or saliva samples of the individual. This type of test is highly accurate and widely available, making it the preferred method for diagnosing HIV infection. Other tests, such as viral antigen tests or T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte function tests, may also be used in certain situations, but they are not as commonly used as the antibody test.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The initial infection with HIV can be
- A.
Asymptomatic
- B.
Accompanied by lymphadenopathy
- C.
Accompanied by acute illness
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The initial infection with HIV can be asymptomatic, meaning that there may not be any noticeable symptoms. It can also be accompanied by lymphadenopathy, which is the swelling of lymph nodes. Additionally, it can be accompanied by acute illness, which refers to a sudden and severe onset of symptoms. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as the initial infection with HIV can present in different ways or without any symptoms at all.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Oral candidiasis
- A.
May be an early sign of underlying immunodeficciency
- B.
Is always a white lesion
- C.
Occurs only on the tongue
- D.
Is rarely associated with HIV infection
Correct Answer
A. May be an early sign of underlying immunodeficciencyExplanation
Oral candidiasis refers to a fungal infection in the mouth caused by the Candida fungus. This infection can occur in individuals with compromised immune systems, making it a potential early sign of underlying immunodeficiency. It is not always a white lesion, as it can also appear as red patches or ulcers. While it commonly affects the tongue, it can also occur on other parts of the mouth, such as the inner cheeks and gums. Although oral candidiasis is more common in individuals with HIV infection, it can also occur in individuals without HIV.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In immuniodeficiency patients herpes simplex infection
- A.
Occurs only on keratinized mucosa
- B.
Is diagnosed on the basis of the clinical appearance
- C.
Is painless
- D.
May meet the criteria for the diagnosis of AIDS
Correct Answer
D. May meet the criteria for the diagnosis of AIDSExplanation
The correct answer suggests that herpes simplex infection in immunodeficiency patients may meet the criteria for the diagnosis of AIDS. This implies that the presence of herpes simplex infection in these patients could indicate a severe immunodeficiency, which is one of the criteria for diagnosing AIDS. This answer highlights the potential significance of herpes simplex infection in immunodeficiency patients and its association with AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hairy leukoplakia is associated with the
- A.
Human papillomavirus
- B.
Herpes simplex virus
- C.
Coxsackievirus
- D.
Epstein Barr virus
Correct Answer
D. Epstein Barr virusExplanation
Hairy leukoplakia is a condition characterized by white, hairy patches on the tongue or other areas of the mouth. It is typically seen in individuals with a weakened immune system, such as those with HIV/AIDS. The Epstein Barr virus (EBV) is known to be the causative agent of hairy leukoplakia. EBV is a common virus that infects most people at some point in their lives, but it can cause complications in individuals with weakened immune systems, leading to the development of hairy leukoplakia.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In patients infected with HIV the most common intraoral location of Kaposi sarcoma is the
- A.
Buccal mucosa and tongue
- B.
Floor of the mouth
- C.
Palate and gingiva
- D.
Lower lip
Correct Answer
C. Palate and gingivaExplanation
In patients infected with HIV, Kaposi sarcoma commonly occurs in the palate and gingiva. Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer that affects the blood vessels, and it is often associated with HIV infection. The virus weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to developing this type of cancer. The palate and gingiva, which refers to the roof of the mouth and the gums, are particularly vulnerable sites for Kaposi sarcoma lesions to develop in HIV-infected patients.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis NUP?
- A.
Pain
- B.
Minimal bone loss
- C.
Spontaneous bleeding
- D.
Interproximal necrosis
Correct Answer
B. Minimal bone lossExplanation
Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) is a severe form of periodontal disease characterized by tissue necrosis and inflammation. The correct answer, "minimal bone loss," indicates that this characteristic is not associated with NUP. In NUP, there is typically significant destruction of the periodontal tissues, including the gum and bone. Therefore, minimal bone loss would not be consistent with the diagnosis of NUP. This characteristic helps differentiate NUP from other forms of periodontal disease where bone loss is more common.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Hyperpituitarism result from an excessive production of growth hormone. It is most often caused by one of the following which is benign tumor
- A.
Pituitary adenoma
- B.
Pituitary sarcoma
- C.
Carcinoma in situ
- D.
Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer
A. Pituitary adenomaExplanation
Hyperpituitarism is a condition characterized by the overproduction of growth hormone. The most common cause of hyperpituitarism is a benign tumor called a pituitary adenoma. This tumor develops in the pituitary gland, which is responsible for regulating hormone production. Pituitary sarcoma and carcinoma in situ are malignant tumors that can also cause hyperpituitarism, but they are less common. Ameloblastoma, on the other hand, is a type of tumor that develops in the jawbone and is not associated with hyperpituitarism. Therefore, the correct answer is pituitary adenoma.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Hyperthyroidism in children can lead to
- A.
Partial anodontia
- B.
Amelogenesis imperfecta
- C.
Ankylosis
- D.
Early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruptionof the permanent teeth
Correct Answer
D. Early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruptionof the permanent teethExplanation
Hyperthyroidism in children can lead to an overactive thyroid gland, which can affect the development and eruption of teeth. This condition can cause early exfoliation of the deciduous (baby) teeth and early eruption of the permanent teeth.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Hypercalcemia hypophosphatemia and abnormal bone metabolism are charateristic of whcih of the following?
- A.
Hyperthyroidism
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Hyperparathyroidism
- D.
Hyperpituitarism
Correct Answer
C. HyperparathyroidismExplanation
Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by excessive production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands. This hormone regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood. Hypercalcemia, or high levels of calcium in the blood, is a hallmark of hyperparathyroidism. Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can also occur due to increased excretion of phosphate by the kidneys. Abnormal bone metabolism is another feature of hyperparathyroidism, as excessive PTH can lead to bone resorption and weakening. Therefore, hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and abnormal bone metabolism are characteristic of hyperparathyroidism.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is characteristic of diabetes mellitus?
- A.
Hyperglycemia
- B.
Lack of insulin
- C.
Vascular changes
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Diabetes mellitus is characterized by all of the above options. Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is a common symptom of diabetes. Lack of insulin production or ineffective use of insulin by the body is another key characteristic of diabetes. Additionally, diabetes can lead to vascular changes, such as damage to blood vessels and increased risk of cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, all of these options are characteristic of diabetes mellitus.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are all characteristic of which one of the following?
- A.
Fibrous dysplasia
- B.
Hyperthyroidism
- C.
Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
- D.
Addisons disease
Correct Answer
C. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitusExplanation
Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are all characteristic symptoms of insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. Polydipsia refers to excessive thirst, polyuria refers to excessive urination, and polyphagia refers to excessive hunger. These symptoms occur in diabetes mellitus due to the body's inability to properly regulate blood sugar levels. In insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot use it effectively, leading to high blood sugar levels. This causes the symptoms of excessive thirst, urination, and hunger.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which one of the following is characterised by precocious puberty in females?
- A.
Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
- B.
Albright syndrome
- C.
Jaffe-lichtenstein-type polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
- D.
Paget disease of the bone
Correct Answer
B. Albright syndromeExplanation
Albright syndrome is characterized by precocious puberty in females. This condition is caused by a mutation in the GNAS1 gene, which leads to early activation of the ovaries and subsequent development of secondary sexual characteristics at a young age. The syndrome is also associated with other features such as short stature, skeletal abnormalities, and skin pigmentation changes. Therefore, among the given options, Albright syndrome is the most appropriate choice for a condition characterized by precocious puberty in females.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Bone resorption osteoblastic repair loss of the lamiina dura hyoer cementosis and cottonwool radiopacities are all charateristic of
- A.
Albright syndrome
- B.
Letterer-siwe disease
- C.
Paget disease of bone
- D.
Polyostic fibrous dysplasia
Correct Answer
C. Paget disease of boneExplanation
Paget disease of bone is characterized by bone resorption, osteoblastic repair, loss of the lamina dura, hypercementosis, and cottonwool radiopacities. This condition involves abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and weakened bones. It typically affects older individuals and can cause bone pain, deformities, fractures, and other complications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which one of the following is not a charateristic of type II diabetes mellitus?
- A.
Increased insulin resistance
- B.
Occurs ar 40yrs of age or older
- C.
Autoimmunity is the key to its development
- D.
Glucose control can usually be achieved without daily insulin injection
Correct Answer
C. Autoimmunity is the key to its developmentExplanation
Type II diabetes mellitus is characterized by increased insulin resistance, which means that the body's cells do not respond effectively to insulin. It typically occurs at 40 years of age or older. However, unlike type I diabetes mellitus, which is an autoimmune disease, type II diabetes mellitus is not primarily caused by autoimmunity. Instead, it is primarily caused by lifestyle factors such as obesity, poor diet, and lack of physical activity. Glucose control can usually be achieved without daily insulin injections in type II diabetes mellitus through lifestyle modifications, oral medications, and sometimes, insulin therapy.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following oral complications can occur in diabetes mellitus?
- A.
Candidiasis
- B.
Xerostomia
- C.
Excessive periodontal disease
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above oral complications can occur in diabetes mellitus. Diabetes can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections such as candidiasis, which is a fungal infection that can affect the mouth. Xerostomia, or dry mouth, is a common symptom of diabetes and can lead to various oral health issues including tooth decay and gum disease. Excessive periodontal disease, characterized by inflammation and infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth, is also more common in individuals with diabetes due to impaired blood sugar control and compromised immune function.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Achlorhydria failure to absorb vit B12 and megaloblastic anemia are characteristic features of which one of the following?
- A.
Pernicious anemia
- B.
Thalassemia
- C.
Sickle cell anemia
- D.
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer
A. Pernicious anemiaExplanation
Pernicious anemia is characterized by achlorhydria, which is the failure to produce hydrochloric acid in the stomach. This leads to the inability to absorb vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of healthy red blood cells. The lack of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia, where the red blood cells are larger than normal and unable to function properly. Therefore, achlorhydria, failure to absorb vitamin B12, and megaloblastic anemia are characteristic features of pernicious anemia.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following are characteristic of sickle cell anemia
- A.
Inherited blood disorder found predominately in blacks
- B.
Occurs as a reuslt of abnormal hemoglobin and decreased oxygen in the rbc
- C.
Patient can experience weakness fatigue and joint pain
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder that is more common in individuals of African descent. It is caused by abnormal hemoglobin, which leads to the red blood cells becoming sickle-shaped and less able to carry oxygen. This can result in symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, and joint pain. Therefore, all of the statements provided are characteristic of sickle cell anemia.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which one of the following is characterized by a decrease in platelets?
- A.
Celiac sprue
- B.
Thrombocytopenia
- C.
Mediteranean anemia
- D.
Plummer-vinson syndrome
Correct Answer
B. ThrombocytopeniaExplanation
Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelets. Platelets are important for blood clotting, and a decrease in their number can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and difficulty in clotting. Thrombocytopenia can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, infections, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders. It can present with symptoms like easy bruising, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts or injuries. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve medications to increase platelet production or transfusions of platelets.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Secondary aplastic anemia can be caused by
- A.
Chemotherapy
- B.
Dental radiographs
- C.
A genetic disorder
- D.
An autoimmune factor
Correct Answer
A. ChemotherapyExplanation
Secondary aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the bone marrow. Chemotherapy, a treatment used to kill cancer cells, can also damage the bone marrow cells responsible for blood cell production, leading to secondary aplastic anemia. Chemotherapy drugs can be toxic to the bone marrow, causing a temporary or permanent decrease in blood cell production. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, infections, and bleeding. Therefore, chemotherapy is a potential cause of secondary aplastic anemia.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Leukopenia most often involves which cell type?
- A.
Eosinophils
- B.
Neutrophils
- C.
Basophils
- D.
Erythrocytes
Correct Answer
B. NeutropHilsExplanation
Leukopenia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of white blood cells (leukocytes) in the blood. Among the options provided, neutrophils are the most commonly affected cell type in leukopenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body's immune response, particularly in fighting bacterial infections. A decrease in neutrophil count can weaken the immune system and make individuals more susceptible to infections. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that neutrophils are the cell type most often involved in leukopenia.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which one the following is characterized by abnormal increase in the circulating rbc?
- A.
Leukopenia
- B.
Polydipsia
- C.
Thrombocytopenia
- D.
Polycythemia
Correct Answer
D. PolycythemiaExplanation
Polycythemia is characterized by an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells (RBCs) circulating in the blood. This condition can be primary, caused by a problem in the bone marrow, or secondary, caused by factors such as chronic hypoxia or certain medications. The increased number of RBCs can lead to thickening of the blood, which can cause complications such as blood clots, stroke, or heart attack. Symptoms of polycythemia may include fatigue, headache, dizziness, and difficulty breathing. Treatment aims to reduce the number of RBCs and manage the underlying cause.Rate this question:
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- 24.
If a patient wbc count is 1000/mm3 one might suspect
- A.
Leukopenia
- B.
Thrombocytopenia
- C.
Hemophilia
- D.
Cyclic neutropenia
Correct Answer
A. LeukopeniaExplanation
A patient with a white blood cell count of 1000/mm3 might be suspected of having leukopenia. Leukopenia refers to a decrease in the number of white blood cells in the body, which can make the patient more susceptible to infections. A low white blood cell count can be caused by various factors, including certain medications, viral infections, autoimmune diseases, or bone marrow disorders. It is important to further investigate the underlying cause of leukopenia and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Excessive numbers of abnormal wbc are charateristic of
- A.
Agranulocytosis
- B.
Leukopenia
- C.
Cyclic neutropenia
- D.
Leukemia
Correct Answer
D. LeukemiaExplanation
Excessive numbers of abnormal white blood cells (WBC) are characteristic of leukemia. Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow and blood, causing the production of abnormal WBCs. These abnormal cells multiply rapidly and crowd out the healthy blood cells, leading to a decrease in the production of normal red blood cells, platelets, and other WBCs. This abnormal increase in WBCs can be detected through blood tests and is a key diagnostic feature of leukemia.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Normal bleeding time is usually between
- A.
1-6 min
- B.
2-3 min
- C.
15-45 sec
- D.
15-30min
Correct Answer
A. 1-6 minExplanation
The normal bleeding time is usually between 1-6 minutes. This means that when a person experiences a cut or injury, it typically takes between 1 to 6 minutes for the bleeding to stop. This duration is considered to be within the normal range and indicates that the person's blood is clotting properly. If the bleeding time is significantly shorter or longer than this range, it may suggest a potential bleeding disorder or clotting abnormality.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The normal prothrombin time is
- A.
2-5min
- B.
11-16sec
- C.
10-15 min
- D.
1-6 sec
Correct Answer
B. 11-16secExplanation
The normal prothrombin time is 11-16 seconds. Prothrombin time is a blood test that measures how long it takes for blood to clot. It is used to monitor the effectiveness of blood thinning medications and to diagnose bleeding disorders. The normal range for prothrombin time is typically between 11-16 seconds, indicating that the blood is clotting within a normal timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Antibody testing to determine if a person has been infeted with HIV includes which of the following specific tests?
- A.
Schilling
- B.
Cbc
- C.
Pt and ptt
- D.
Elisa and western blot
Correct Answer
D. Elisa and western blotExplanation
The correct answer is "elisa and western blot" because these specific tests are commonly used for HIV antibody testing. ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a screening test that detects antibodies to HIV in the blood, while Western blot is a confirmatory test that identifies specific HIV antibodies. Together, these tests provide a more accurate diagnosis of HIV infection. The other options mentioned (schilling, cbc, pt and ptt) are unrelated to HIV antibody testing.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which one of the following oral conditions is an early sign of deficiency in the immune system and is commonly found in patients with HIV infection?
- A.
Geographic tongue
- B.
Advanced periodontitis
- C.
Oral candidiasis
- D.
Histoplasmosis
Correct Answer
C. Oral candidiasisExplanation
Oral candidiasis is an early sign of deficiency in the immune system and is commonly found in patients with HIV infection. This condition is caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida in the mouth. HIV weakens the immune system, making it easier for opportunistic infections like oral candidiasis to occur. It presents as creamy white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, and roof of the mouth, which can be painful and may bleed when scraped. Treatment typically involves antifungal medications to control the infection.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which one of the following oral conditions is not specifically chracteristic of patients with HIV or AIDS?
- A.
Herpes simplex
- B.
Hairy leukoplakia
- C.
Karposi syndrome
- D.
Leukoedema
Correct Answer
D. LeukoedemaExplanation
Leukoedema is a benign condition that is not specifically characteristic of patients with HIV or AIDS. It is a common oral mucosal finding that appears as a grayish-white, filmy or milky appearance on the buccal mucosa. While HIV and AIDS can cause various oral conditions such as herpes simplex, hairy leukoplakia, and Kaposi's syndrome, leukoedema is not specifically associated with these conditions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Linear gingival erythema has specific characteristics that include spontaneous bleeding petechiae on the attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa and a band of erythema at the gingival margin which one of the following statements is true?
- A.
These tissues respond well to scaling and root planing
- B.
Excellent oral hygiene and home care techniques will eliminate these gingival conditionsq
- C.
This condition will automatiocally developinto advance periodontal disease in all HIV patients
- D.
LGE patients do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques the gingival condition exists independently
Correct Answer
D. LGE patients do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques the gingival condition exists independentlyExplanation
Linear gingival erythema (LGE) is a specific gingival condition characterized by spontaneous bleeding petechiae on the attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa, as well as a band of erythema at the gingival margin. The given answer states that LGE patients do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques, indicating that these interventions are ineffective in improving the gingival condition. This suggests that LGE exists independently and is not influenced by traditional periodontal treatments or oral hygiene practices.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Symptoms of leukemia can be similar to those found in
- A.
Hepatitis
- B.
Amelogenisis imperfecta
- C.
Nothrombocytopenia purpura
- D.
Mononucleosis
Correct Answer
D. MononucleosisExplanation
Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the abnormal production of white blood cells. Mononucleosis, also known as "mono," is a viral infection that affects the lymph nodes and causes symptoms such as fatigue, fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. Some of these symptoms can be similar to those seen in leukemia, which is why mononucleosis is the correct answer. Hepatitis is a liver infection, amelogenisis imperfecta is a genetic disorder affecting tooth enamel, and nothrombocytopenia purpura is a bleeding disorder, none of which have symptoms that overlap significantly with leukemia.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In treating fibrous dysplasia which one of the following modalities is the only one recommended
- A.
Surgery
- B.
Radiation therapy
- C.
CHEMOTHERAPY
- D.
BONE MARROW DEPRESSANTS
Correct Answer
A. SurgeryExplanation
Surgery is the only recommended modality for treating fibrous dysplasia. This is because surgery allows for the removal or correction of the abnormal bone tissue, which can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and bone marrow depressants are not typically used in the treatment of fibrous dysplasia.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism?
- A.
Osteoclastic resorption
- B.
Excessive production of parathyroid hormone
- C.
Cottonwool radiographic appearance
- D.
Increased serum calcium
Correct Answer
D. Increased serum calciumExplanation
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by excessive production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands. This leads to increased levels of serum calcium in the blood. Osteoclastic resorption, which is the breakdown of bone tissue by osteoclasts, is a characteristic feature of primary hyperparathyroidism. Cottonwool radiographic appearance refers to a specific appearance of bone on X-ray, which is commonly seen in primary hyperparathyroidism due to the effects of excessive PTH. Therefore, the correct answer is increased serum calcium, as this is a characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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