1.
Proteolytic enzyme, also called
Correct Answer
A. All are corrects
Explanation
All three terms, protease, proteinase, and peptidase, are correct and can be used interchangeably to refer to proteolytic enzymes. These enzymes are responsible for breaking down proteins into smaller peptides or amino acids. Proteases specifically refer to enzymes that cleave peptide bonds in proteins, while proteinases and peptidases are broader terms that encompass a wider range of enzymes involved in protein digestion. Therefore, the answer "All are corrects" is appropriate as all three terms accurately describe proteolytic enzymes.
2.
What is the concussion?
Correct Answer
A. Without displacement, pain to percussion
Explanation
A concussion refers to a head injury that typically occurs due to a blow or jolt to the head, resulting in temporary loss of brain function. The given answer states that a concussion is characterized by "without displacement, pain to percussion." This means that there is no movement or shifting of the skull bones, but there is tenderness or pain when the affected area is tapped or pressed. This explanation suggests that a concussion can be identified by these specific symptoms.
3.
What is the subluxation?
Correct Answer
A. No displacement but increase mobility
Explanation
Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation of a joint where there is no complete displacement but an increase in mobility. This means that the joint is not fully displaced from its normal position, but there is some abnormal movement or looseness in the joint. This condition can cause pain, discomfort, and reduced function in the affected joint.
4.
What is the luxation?
Correct Answer
A. Could be extrusive, intrusive or lateral direction displacement
Explanation
Luxation refers to the complete dislocation or displacement of a joint or bone from its normal position. It can occur in different directions, including extrusive (outward displacement), intrusive (inward displacement), or lateral direction displacement. The answer suggests that luxation can occur in any of these directions, indicating that it is not limited to a specific type of displacement.
5.
What is the extrusive injury?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth displaced in the occlusal dirrection
Explanation
An extrusive injury refers to a dental injury where a tooth is displaced in the occlusal direction. This means that the tooth is pushed out of its socket in a way that it protrudes above the normal level of the surrounding teeth. This type of injury can occur due to a traumatic impact to the tooth, such as a fall or a blow to the face. It is important to seek immediate dental attention in such cases to assess the extent of the injury and determine the appropriate treatment.
6.
What is the intrusive injury?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth displaced in apically into socket
Explanation
An intrusive injury refers to a type of dental injury where a tooth is pushed into the socket in an apical direction. This means that the tooth is forced further into the gum and bone, causing it to become partially or completely submerged in the socket. This can result in damage to the tooth's root and surrounding structures, and may require immediate dental intervention to reposition the tooth and prevent further complications.
7.
What is the Lateral displacement injury?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth pushed laterally, buccally or pallatally
Explanation
Lateral displacement injury refers to a situation where a tooth is pushed in a sideways direction, either towards the cheek (buccally) or towards the palate (pallatally). This type of injury can occur due to trauma or impact to the mouth, causing the tooth to move out of its normal position. It is important to seek immediate dental attention in such cases to assess the extent of the injury and determine the appropriate treatment.
8.
What is the Avulsion?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth totally displaced from the socket
Explanation
Avulsion refers to the complete displacement of a tooth from its socket. This means that the tooth is completely knocked out and no longer attached to the surrounding tissues. It can occur due to trauma or injury to the mouth and requires immediate dental attention to increase the chances of successful reimplantation.
9.
The tooth that is not respond to electric pulp tester mean?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth had pulp negative respond or pulp dead
Explanation
The correct answer is "Tooth had pulp negative respond or pulp dead". This means that the tooth is not responding to the electric pulp tester, indicating that the pulp inside the tooth is either non-responsive or dead.
10.
What is the coupling phenomenon?
Correct Answer
A. Resorption-apposition system of osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Explanation
The coupling phenomenon refers to the resorption-apposition system of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, while osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption. In the coupling phenomenon, these two cell types work together in a coordinated manner to maintain bone homeostasis. Osteoclasts resorb old or damaged bone tissue, while osteoblasts deposit new bone tissue in the resorbed areas. This process ensures the continuous remodeling and renewal of bone tissue throughout life.
11.
ក្នុងការរាប់លេខធ្មេញតើកម្ពុជាប្រើការ Dental charting តាមរបៀបអ្វី?
Correct Answer
A. FDI charting system
Explanation
The FDI charting system is used in Cambodia for dental charting.
12.
What is the meaning of tooth impaction?
Correct Answer
A. Tooth fails to erupt into the dental arch within the expected developmental
Explanation
Tooth impaction refers to the condition where a tooth does not fully emerge or erupt into its proper position in the dental arch during normal development. This can occur due to various reasons such as lack of space in the jaw, obstruction by other teeth, or abnormal tooth positioning. Impacted teeth may cause pain, discomfort, and can lead to other dental problems if left untreated.
13.
What is the meaning of Wisdom tooth?
Correct Answer
A. Third molar
Explanation
The correct answer is "Third molar." Wisdom teeth, also known as third molars, are the last set of teeth to develop in the mouth. They typically appear during the late teens or early twenties. These teeth can cause various dental issues such as overcrowding, impaction, and infection, which often require their removal.
14.
តើធ្មេញដុះលើសគេហៅដូចម្តេចក្នុងភាសារបច្ចេកទេស?
Correct Answer
A. Supernumerary teeth
Explanation
Supernumerary teeth are extra teeth that can develop in addition to the normal set of teeth. The term "supernumerary" means exceeding the normal or usual number. Therefore, the correct answer is "Supernumerary teeth" as it accurately describes the condition of having additional teeth.
15.
What is the tooth #18 meaning for the FDI charting system ?
Correct Answer
A. Upper Right Maxillary Third molar
Explanation
The tooth #18 corresponds to the Upper Right Maxillary Third molar in the FDI charting system. This means that tooth #18 is the third molar located in the upper right side of the maxilla (upper jaw).
16.
What is the FDI charting number of tooth #33?
Correct Answer
A. Left lower canine
Explanation
The FDI charting number of tooth #33 is 43, which corresponds to the Left lower canine.
17.
What is the FDI charting number of tooth #31
Correct Answer
A. Left lower cental incisor
18.
What is the FDI charting number of tooth #34?
Correct Answer
A. Left lower first premolar
Explanation
The FDI charting number of tooth #34 is the Left lower first premolar.
19.
What is the FDI charting number of tooth #37?
Correct Answer
A. Left lower second molar
Explanation
The FDI charting number of tooth #37 is the Left lower second molar.
20.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Eruption of tooth
Explanation
PA x-ray is commonly used to visualize the eruption of teeth. It provides a clear view of the teeth, their position, and the stage of eruption. This helps in assessing the growth and development of teeth, identifying any abnormalities or impaction, and planning appropriate dental treatments. Therefore, PA x-ray is a valuable tool in monitoring the eruption process of teeth.
21.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Condition of tooth injury damage
Explanation
A PA x-ray is used to see the condition of tooth injury damage. This type of x-ray provides a detailed view of the teeth and surrounding structures, allowing dentists to assess any damage or trauma to the teeth. It helps in identifying fractures, cracks, or other injuries that may require treatment or intervention. By examining the PA x-ray, dentists can determine the extent of the damage and plan appropriate treatment options.
22.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Working length of endodontic file
Explanation
The correct answer is "Working length of endodontic file." A PA x-ray is commonly used in dentistry to determine the working length of an endodontic file. This is important in root canal treatment as it helps the dentist accurately measure the length of the root canal and determine the appropriate length for the file to reach during the procedure. By knowing the working length, the dentist can ensure that the file reaches the end of the root canal without causing any damage to the surrounding tissues.
23.
OPG xray is use for?
Correct Answer
A. Dental injury pre-assessment
Explanation
OPG x-ray, also known as orthopantomogram, is a type of dental x-ray that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws. It is commonly used for dental injury pre-assessment, as it allows dentists to evaluate the extent of the injury and plan appropriate treatment. This type of x-ray can also be used to spot detailed problems in the teeth, such as cavities or impacted teeth. However, it is not typically used for measuring the inferior dental nerve to the root of the third molar or for sinus assessment.
24.
OPG xray is use for?
Correct Answer
A. Dento-alveolar fracture assessment
Explanation
The correct answer is dento-alveolar fracture assessment. OPG x-ray, also known as orthopantomogram, is a type of dental x-ray that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws, including the teeth, surrounding structures, and the temporomandibular joint. It is commonly used to assess dento-alveolar fractures, which are fractures involving the teeth and the surrounding bone. This type of x-ray allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the extent and location of the fracture, aiding in treatment planning and management.
25.
OPG xray is use for?
Correct Answer
A. Pre-assessment xray period for tooth extraction
Explanation
OPG x-ray is used for pre-assessment before tooth extraction. This type of x-ray provides a panoramic view of the entire mouth, including the teeth, jawbone, and surrounding structures. It helps the dentist to evaluate the position and condition of the tooth to be extracted, assess the surrounding bone density, identify any potential complications or abnormalities, and plan the extraction procedure accordingly. This x-ray is particularly useful when multiple teeth need to be extracted or when there are complex dental issues involved.
26.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Periapical infection of the tooth
Explanation
A PA x-ray is used to see periapical infection of the tooth. This type of infection occurs at the tip of the tooth's root and can be caused by tooth decay or trauma. The x-ray allows the dentist to see any infection or inflammation in the surrounding bone and tissues, helping them to diagnose and treat the condition effectively.
27.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Root morpHology before treatment
Explanation
A PA x-ray is commonly used in dentistry to assess the root morphology of teeth before any treatment is done. This helps the dentist to determine the shape, size, and condition of the roots, which is crucial for planning the appropriate treatment. By evaluating the root morphology, the dentist can identify any abnormalities, such as root canal infections, root fractures, or anatomical variations, that may affect the treatment approach. Therefore, a PA x-ray is an essential tool for assessing the root morphology before initiating any dental treatment.
28.
PA xray is use to see ?
Correct Answer
A. Periapical region of the tooth
Explanation
A periapical x-ray is used to see the periapical region of the tooth. This region includes the tip of the tooth root and the surrounding bone. It is commonly used to diagnose dental conditions such as tooth decay, abscesses, and infections. The other options listed, condyle fracture, maxillary sinus, and coronoid bone, are not typically visualized on a periapical x-ray.
29.
What is the PA xray stand for?
Correct Answer
A. Periapical xray
Explanation
The correct answer is Periapical xray. Periapical x-rays are dental x-rays that capture images of the entire tooth, from the crown to the root. These x-rays are used to detect and diagnose problems in the tooth's root structure, surrounding bone, and the surrounding tissues. They are commonly used in dentistry to identify issues such as tooth decay, abscesses, impacted teeth, and bone abnormalities.
30.
What is OPG stand for ?
Correct Answer
A. Orthopantomagram
Explanation
OPG stands for Orthopantomagram, which is a type of dental radiograph that provides a panoramic view of the upper and lower jaws, including the teeth, jawbone, and surrounding structures. It is commonly used in dentistry to assess the overall dental health and to diagnose various dental conditions such as impacted teeth, fractures, and infections.
31.
What is the Bacteremia?
Correct Answer
A. Presence of bacteria in the blood
Explanation
Bacteremia is a medical condition characterized by the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. This can occur due to various reasons such as an infection in a specific part of the body, a compromised immune system, or a medical procedure. Bacteria in the blood can cause severe infections and lead to serious complications if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and treat bacteremia promptly to prevent further harm to the body.
32.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Use of a specific, narrow spectrum antibiotic and Determine the antibiotic sensitivity
Explanation
The principle of using antibiotics involves using a specific, narrow spectrum antibiotic and determining the antibiotic sensitivity. This means that instead of using a broad spectrum antibiotic that can kill a wide range of bacteria, a narrow spectrum antibiotic is chosen that targets specific types of bacteria. Additionally, determining the antibiotic sensitivity helps in identifying the most effective antibiotic for a particular bacterial infection, ensuring that the chosen antibiotic will be effective in treating the infection.
33.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Cost of the antibiotic
Explanation
The principle of using antibiotic does not depend on the cost of the antibiotic. The effectiveness of an antibiotic is determined by its ability to target and kill the specific bacteria causing the infection, not by its price. Therefore, the cost of the antibiotic is not a valid principle to consider when deciding which antibiotic to use.
34.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Host factors and Encourage patient compliance
Explanation
The principle of using antibiotics involves considering host factors, such as the patient's age, immune system status, and underlying health conditions, to determine the most appropriate antibiotic. Additionally, encouraging patient compliance is crucial to ensure that the prescribed antibiotic is taken as directed, for the full duration of treatment. This helps to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance and ensures the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the infection.
35.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Use of the antibiotic with a proven history of success
Explanation
The principle of using antibiotic with a proven history of success is based on the idea that certain antibiotics have been extensively tested and shown to effectively treat specific bacterial infections. By using an antibiotic that has been proven to work in the past, there is a higher likelihood of successfully treating the current infection. This approach takes into consideration the knowledge and experience gained from previous cases, ensuring a more targeted and effective treatment.
36.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Use of a bactericidal rather than a bacteriostatic
Explanation
The principle of using antibiotics is to use a bactericidal (kills bacteria) rather than a bacteriostatic (inhibits bacterial growth) antibiotic. Bactericidal antibiotics directly kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics only inhibit bacterial growth, allowing the immune system to eliminate the bacteria. Using a bactericidal antibiotic ensures a more effective and efficient treatment of bacterial infections.
37.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Use of the least toxic antibiotic
Explanation
The principle of using the least toxic antibiotic is based on the idea that it is important to minimize the potential harm to the patient while still effectively treating the infection. Antibiotics can have various side effects and toxicities, so choosing the least toxic option helps reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Additionally, using the least toxic antibiotic can help prevent the development of antibiotic resistance, as it minimizes the selective pressure on bacteria. Overall, this principle prioritizes patient safety and the long-term effectiveness of antibiotics.
38.
One of the answers below is the Principle of using antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Identification of the causative organism
Explanation
The correct answer is "Identification of the causative organism." This principle involves determining the specific microorganism responsible for causing the infection before prescribing an antibiotic. By identifying the causative organism, healthcare professionals can select the most appropriate antibiotic that specifically targets and kills the particular microorganism, increasing the chances of successful treatment. This approach helps to avoid the unnecessary use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and reduces the risk of antibiotic resistance.
39.
How many level of Precaution of using antibiotic:?
Correct Answer
A. 3 level: Level A, B, C
Explanation
The correct answer is 3 levels: Level A, B, C. This means that there are three levels of precaution when using antibiotics, which are categorized as Level A, Level B, and Level C. It is important to follow these levels of precaution to ensure the safe and effective use of antibiotics.
40.
Clindamycin is in the group?
Correct Answer
A. Macrolid
Explanation
Clindamycin belongs to the group of macrolide antibiotics. Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. Clindamycin specifically targets anaerobic bacteria and is commonly used to treat infections such as skin and soft tissue infections, respiratory tract infections, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Therefore, the correct answer is Macrolid.
41.
What is the mycotic aneurysm?
Correct Answer
A. Complication of arterial wall from hematogenous spread of bacterial infection
Explanation
A mycotic aneurysm refers to a complication of the arterial wall that occurs due to the hematogenous spread of a bacterial infection. This means that bacteria from another part of the body enter the bloodstream and travel to the arterial wall, causing an infection. This infection weakens the arterial wall, leading to the formation of an aneurysm. It is important to note that mycotic aneurysms are different from true aneurysms, which are typically caused by weakening of the arterial wall due to factors such as high blood pressure or atherosclerosis.
42.
What is the Bactericidal antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Antibiotics kill bacteria
Explanation
The correct answer is "antibiotics kill bacteria." Bactericidal antibiotics are a type of antibiotic that directly kill bacteria by disrupting their cell walls or interfering with essential cellular processes. This is in contrast to bacteriostatic antibiotics, which only inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria without directly killing them. Bactericidal antibiotics are often used in cases of severe infections or when the immune system is compromised, as they provide a more immediate and effective means of eliminating bacterial pathogens.
43.
What is the Bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Correct Answer
A. Antibiotic limit growth of bacteria
Explanation
Bacteriostatic antibiotics are a type of antibiotic that inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but do not directly kill them. These antibiotics work by interfering with essential bacterial processes, such as protein synthesis or DNA replication, which slows down or stops bacterial growth. This allows the body's immune system to effectively eliminate the bacteria. Bacteriostatic antibiotics are often used when the immune system is capable of fighting off the infection with some assistance, or when it is important to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
44.
What is the minimum inhibitory concentration?
Correct Answer
A. Lowest Concentration of antimicrobial drug which prevents visible growth of bacteria
Explanation
The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial drug that is needed to prevent the visible growth of bacteria. This means that at concentrations below the MIC, the drug is not effective in inhibiting bacterial growth, while at or above the MIC, the drug is able to prevent the growth of bacteria. The MIC is an important measure used in determining the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs and helps in determining the appropriate dosage for treatment.
45.
Proteolytic enzyme, also called?
Correct Answer
A. All above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All above." Proteolytic enzymes are enzymes that break down proteins. They are also referred to as proteases, proteinases, and peptidases. All of these terms are used interchangeably to describe enzymes that have the ability to hydrolyze peptide bonds in proteins.
46.
Leukopenia?
Correct Answer
A. Decrease the number of white blood cell in blood
Explanation
Leukopenia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in the number of white blood cells in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, certain medications, autoimmune disorders, or bone marrow disorders. A decrease in white blood cells can weaken the immune system and make the body more susceptible to infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease the number of white blood cell in blood".
47.
Leukocytosis?
Correct Answer
A. Increase in the number of white blood cell in blood
Explanation
Leukocytosis refers to an increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors such as infections, inflammation, and certain diseases. It is a normal response of the body to fight off infections or other harmful substances. Leukocytosis can be detected through a blood test and is often accompanied by symptoms like fever, fatigue, and body aches. It is important to identify the underlying cause of leukocytosis in order to determine the appropriate treatment.
48.
What is the antibiotic prophylaxis?
Correct Answer
A. Prevention of infection complication using antimicrobial therapy
Explanation
Antibiotic prophylaxis refers to the use of antimicrobial therapy to prevent complications from infections. It involves administering antibiotics to individuals who are at high risk of developing an infection, such as before surgery or dental procedures. This preventive measure helps to reduce the risk of infection and its associated complications. Antibiotic prophylaxis aims to prevent the occurrence of infections rather than treating them after they have already developed.
49.
Acute orofacial infections are polymicrobial, dominated by?
Correct Answer
A. Anaerobic
Explanation
Acute orofacial infections are typically caused by multiple types of microorganisms, with anaerobic bacteria being the dominant species. Anaerobic bacteria are able to thrive in low oxygen environments, such as the oral cavity, and are commonly associated with dental infections, abscesses, and periodontal diseases. These bacteria can cause significant tissue damage and inflammation due to their ability to produce toxins and enzymes. In contrast, aerobic bacteria require oxygen to survive and are less commonly associated with these types of infections. The presence of anaerobic bacteria in acute orofacial infections highlights their importance in the pathogenesis and treatment of these conditions.
50.
Bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs given together are?
Correct Answer
A. Antagonistic
Explanation
When bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs are given together, they have opposite effects on the growth and survival of bacteria. Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic drugs inhibit their growth. When used together, the bacteriostatic drug may interfere with the bactericidal drug's ability to kill bacteria, reducing its effectiveness. This results in an antagonistic effect, where the drugs work against each other and diminish the overall antimicrobial activity.