1.
What two factors determine the phenotypic variation we see in populations? (mark both)
Correct Answer(s)
C. Genetic (allelic) variation
E. Environmental variation
Explanation
The phenotypic variation we see in populations is determined by genetic (allelic) variation and environmental variation. Genetic variation refers to the differences in alleles, or alternative forms of a gene, within a population. These variations can lead to different traits and characteristics in individuals. Environmental variation, on the other hand, refers to the differences in the environment that individuals are exposed to. This can include factors such as climate, food availability, and habitat. Both genetic and environmental factors contribute to the overall phenotypic variation observed in populations.
2.
Which of the following species definitions would make use of a phenotype space to draw the boundaries between species?
Correct Answer
A. MorpHological species concept
Explanation
The morphological species concept defines species based on their physical characteristics and appearance. It focuses on the observable traits of organisms, such as their morphology, anatomy, and phenotype. This concept uses a phenotype space to draw the boundaries between species, as it emphasizes the visible differences and similarities among individuals. By examining the physical features of organisms, scientists can classify them into different species based on their morphological characteristics. This concept is particularly useful when studying organisms that do not reproduce sexually or when genetic information is not available.
3.
Which of the following events might help a population that was stuck on a suboptimal adaptive peak move to another peak in a very rugged adaptive landscape?
Correct Answer
C. A dramatic reduction in population size (bottleneck event).
Explanation
A dramatic reduction in population size (bottleneck event) can help a population that was stuck on a suboptimal adaptive peak move to another peak in a very rugged adaptive landscape. This is because a bottleneck event reduces the genetic diversity within the population, which can increase the chances of new beneficial mutations arising and spreading through the population. With limited genetic variation, there is a higher likelihood of individuals possessing traits that are better suited to the new adaptive peak, allowing the population to shift to a more optimal peak.
4.
The following species have not yet had their genome size estimated. Based on your understanding of the C-value paradox, which would be the most likely to have the largest genome?
Correct Answer
E. None of the above, the c-value paradox means you cannot predict genome size of eukaryotes
Explanation
The C-value paradox refers to the lack of correlation between an organism's genome size and its complexity. It suggests that genome size is not necessarily related to the complexity of an organism. Therefore, it is not possible to predict the genome size of eukaryotes based on their characteristics or taxonomic classification. In this case, since none of the species listed have had their genome size estimated, it is not possible to determine which one would have the largest genome.
5.
Recombination of eukaryotic genomes is very common and happens equally across all regions of the genome.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement that recombination of eukaryotic genomes is very common and happens equally across all regions of the genome is false. Recombination, which involves the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes, does not occur equally across all regions of the genome. Some regions of the genome are more prone to recombination, while others have lower rates. Additionally, the frequency of recombination can vary between different species and even between individuals within a species.
6.
What do viral genomes look like compared to those of living organisms?
Correct Answer
D. They are typically smaller than the genomes of living organisms, although there is some overlap in genome size with the bacteria and archaea.
Explanation
Viral genomes are typically smaller than the genomes of living organisms, although there is some overlap in genome size with the bacteria and archaea. This means that viral genomes contain fewer genes and less genetic material compared to living organisms. While living organisms have larger and more complex genomes, viral genomes are compact and efficient, containing only the necessary genetic information for their replication and survival.
7.
The history of which group of organisms has been most impacted by horizontal gene transfer via plasmids?
Correct Answer
A. Bacteria
Explanation
Bacteria have been most impacted by horizontal gene transfer via plasmids. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can be transferred between bacteria, allowing them to share genetic material. This process of horizontal gene transfer plays a crucial role in bacterial evolution and adaptation. It enables bacteria to acquire new genes, such as antibiotic resistance genes, from other bacteria in their environment. This transfer of genetic material has greatly impacted the evolution and diversity of bacterial species, making bacteria the group of organisms most affected by horizontal gene transfer via plasmids.
8.
I examine all of the DNA sequence that translate into the amino acid proline and notice the following distribution: 10% CCA15% CCC12% CCT63% CCG This is a clear example of ____________________.
Correct Answer
E. Codon usage bias
Explanation
The given distribution of DNA sequences that translate into the amino acid proline indicates a preference for certain codons over others. This preference is known as codon usage bias. It suggests that certain codons encoding proline are more frequently used than others, which could be influenced by factors such as selection pressure, mutation bias, or translational efficiency.
9.
What is the most likely cause of the pattern seen in the problem above?
Correct Answer
A. Selection for increased translational efficiency
Explanation
The pattern seen in the problem is most likely caused by selection for increased translational efficiency. This means that there is a selective advantage for organisms that can translate genetic information into proteins more efficiently. This could lead to an increase in the frequency of alleles that enhance translational efficiency over time.
10.
Which of the following might help us to identify a recent horizontal gene transfer?
Correct Answer
C. A bacterial genome with a small region that has a GC content bias different than the rest of the genome
Explanation
A bacterial genome with a small region that has a GC content bias different than the rest of the genome might help us identify a recent horizontal gene transfer. This is because horizontal gene transfer is the transfer of genetic material between different organisms, and it can result in the introduction of DNA sequences with different GC content into the recipient genome. Therefore, if a bacterial genome has a small region with a GC content bias different from the rest of the genome, it suggests that this region may have been acquired through horizontal gene transfer.
11.
Why is there such a strong correlation between genome size and gene number among the prokaryotes?
Correct Answer
C. Because there is little non-coding DNA in prokaryotes genomes.
Explanation
The strong correlation between genome size and gene number among prokaryotes is due to the fact that prokaryotes have little non-coding DNA in their genomes. Non-coding DNA refers to the portions of DNA that do not code for proteins or functional RNA molecules. In prokaryotes, the genomes are compact and efficient, with a higher proportion of the DNA being coding sequences. This is in contrast to eukaryotes, which have larger genomes containing more non-coding DNA. Therefore, the minimal presence of non-coding DNA in prokaryotes contributes to the strong correlation between genome size and gene number.
12.
In natural populations the census population (N) size is always larger than the effective population size (Ne).
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because the census population size (N) refers to the total number of individuals in a population, including both breeding and non-breeding individuals. On the other hand, the effective population size (Ne) is a measure of the breeding potential of a population and represents the number of individuals that contribute offspring to the next generation. Due to factors such as variations in reproductive success and genetic drift, the effective population size is often smaller than the census population size.
13.
I estimate the effective population size for a group of badgers, but when I measure there Heterozygosity levels I notice they are much lower than they should be. Assuming my estimates of effective population size and measurements of Heterozygosity are accurate what is the most likely explanation for this discrepancy?
Correct Answer
A. The population must have gone through a recent bottleneck event.
Explanation
The most likely explanation for the lower than expected heterozygosity levels in the badger population is that they have experienced a recent bottleneck event. A bottleneck event is a sudden reduction in population size, which can lead to a loss of genetic diversity. In this case, the effective population size estimate and the measurements of heterozygosity suggest that the badger population has gone through a recent reduction in numbers, resulting in the observed lower levels of heterozygosity. This is a common scenario in populations that have experienced a severe reduction in size, such as through habitat loss or disease outbreaks.
14.
Why is the mitochondrial gene diversity of the most northerly population of black spruces so much lower than the nuclear gene diversity of the same populations
Correct Answer
B. The mitochondrial genome is only inherited from the maternal lineage and since seeds don’t travel very far in this species these populations only represent the diversity of a small number of individuals that were at the glacial margin when the last ice age ended.
Explanation
The mitochondrial genome is only inherited from the maternal lineage and since seeds don’t travel very far in this species these populations only represent the diversity of a small number of individuals that were at the glacial margin when the last ice age ended. This means that there has been limited gene flow and genetic diversity in the mitochondrial genome of the most northerly population of black spruces.
15.
In very large populations genetic drift has only a small effect on evolution.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In very large populations, genetic drift has only a small effect on evolution because the larger the population size, the less likely random fluctuations in allele frequencies will have a significant impact. Genetic drift is a random process that can lead to the loss or fixation of alleles in a population over time. In small populations, genetic drift can have a more pronounced effect as chance events can have a greater influence on allele frequencies. However, in large populations, the effects of genetic drift are diluted, making it less significant in driving evolutionary change.
16.
Which of the following is not a reason why we would expect most evolution to be effectively neutral?
Correct Answer
A. Chromosome rearrangement is frequent for all taxonomic groups
Explanation
Chromosome rearrangement being frequent for all taxonomic groups does not necessarily imply that most evolution is effectively neutral. The frequency of chromosome rearrangement may vary between different taxonomic groups, and even if it is frequent, it does not directly indicate the neutrality of evolution. The other options listed provide more plausible reasons for why most evolution is expected to be effectively neutral, such as the presence of non-coding DNA, the degeneracy of the DNA code, and the fact that many mutations have little or no phenotypic impact.
17.
Which value predicts the rate of fixation for neutral mutations in populations?
Correct Answer
B. µ, the mutation rate
Explanation
The rate of fixation for neutral mutations in populations is predicted by the mutation rate (µ). This is because neutral mutations do not have any effect on an organism's fitness, so they are not subject to natural selection. Therefore, the rate at which these neutral mutations occur (mutation rate) determines how frequently they become fixed in a population over time. The effective population size (Ne), interspecies immigration rate (Γ), and average selection coefficient (s) do not directly affect the rate of fixation for neutral mutations.
18.
What are two issues that can complicate molecular clock estimations?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Variation in mutation rates between different lineages
D. If the genetic data is approaching saturation
Explanation
Variation in mutation rates between different lineages can complicate molecular clock estimations because different species or lineages may have different rates of genetic mutations, which can affect the accuracy of estimating the time of divergence. If the mutation rates are not consistent, it becomes challenging to accurately measure the amount of time that has passed since two species diverged from a common ancestor. Additionally, if the genetic data is approaching saturation, it means that there have been too many mutations accumulated over time, making it difficult to distinguish between recent and ancient mutations. This can lead to inaccuracies in estimating divergence times.
19.
Homeotic transformations require the coordinated action of multiple changes in both the regulation and coding sequence of different toolkit genes.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Homeotic transformations do not require the coordinated action of multiple changes in both the regulation and coding sequence of different toolkit genes. Instead, homeotic transformations are caused by mutations in a single toolkit gene, which leads to the development of one body part in the place of another. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
20.
Vertebrate embryos from distantly related lineages show a marked similarity to one another at the early stages of embryogenesis and often exhibit ancestral features that are absent, or highly modified in the adult form. This statement best describes which of the following phrases?
Correct Answer
C. Ontogeny recapitulates pHylogeny
Explanation
The statement "Vertebrate embryos from distantly related lineages show a marked similarity to one another at the early stages of embryogenesis and often exhibit ancestral features that are absent, or highly modified in the adult form" best describes the concept of ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. This concept suggests that the development of an organism (ontogeny) mirrors the evolutionary history of its species (phylogeny), with early embryonic stages resembling ancestral forms.
21.
An early embryonic cell that has the potential to differentiate into any cell in the developing embryo is referred to as ___________________.
Correct Answer
B. Pluripotent
Explanation
Pluripotent refers to an early embryonic cell that has the ability to differentiate into any cell type in the developing embryo. This means that pluripotent cells have the potential to become any cell in the body, such as skin cells, muscle cells, or nerve cells. They are not limited to a specific lineage or fate, making them highly versatile and important for embryonic development.
22.
Which of the following is a pronounced example of the power of heterochrony to effect drastic morphological change of the adult form?
Correct Answer
B. PaedomorpHism via neoteny in the axolotl (Mexican salamander).
Explanation
Paedomorphism via neoteny in the axolotl (Mexican salamander) is a pronounced example of the power of heterochrony to effect drastic morphological change of the adult form. Neoteny is a type of heterochrony where an organism retains juvenile characteristics into adulthood. In the case of the axolotl, it retains its gilled larval form even as it reaches sexual maturity, instead of undergoing metamorphosis like other amphibians. This unique trait allows the axolotl to remain aquatic and retain its regenerative abilities throughout its lifespan. This example demonstrates how heterochrony can lead to significant morphological changes in adult organisms.
23.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hox genes?
Correct Answer
D. They code for an ancillary form of ribosomes that are only active during embryogenesis.
Explanation
Hox genes are a group of genes that play a crucial role in the development of body structures in animals. They are present in all metazoans and are found in a colinear arrangement in the genome, meaning their order on the chromosome corresponds to the order of body parts they control. Hox genes act as transcription factors, regulating the expression of other genes and controlling the patterning of different body regions. However, they do not code for an ancillary form of ribosomes that are only active during embryogenesis. This statement is not a characteristic of Hox genes.
24.
Species boundaries cannot always be objectively drawn, even when the populations in question are sexually reproducing.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Species boundaries can be difficult to determine because there is often variation within populations and individuals can interbreed with closely related species. Additionally, there are cases of hybridization and introgression, where genetic material is exchanged between species. Therefore, species boundaries are not always clear-cut and can be subjective, even in sexually reproducing populations.
25.
Grouping populations into species based on their ability to share genetic material between populations. This is an example of application of the _______________ species concept.
Correct Answer
B. Biological
Explanation
This question is asking for the name of the species concept that involves grouping populations based on their ability to share genetic material. The biological species concept defines a species as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. This concept emphasizes reproductive isolation and genetic compatibility as the key factors in defining species boundaries. Therefore, the correct answer is biological.
26.
Match the geographic distribution diagrams with the geographic type of speciation: Allopatric
Correct Answer
A. A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The diagram A represents allopatric speciation, which occurs when a population is geographically separated and evolves independently in different locations. This can happen due to physical barriers such as mountains or bodies of water, preventing gene flow between the populations. Over time, genetic differences accumulate, leading to the formation of new species.
27.
Match the geographic distribution diagrams with the geographic type of speciation: Sympatric
Correct Answer
C. C
28.
Match the geographic distribution diagrams with the geographic type of speciation: Parapatric
Correct Answer
B. B
29.
Fossil dates are accurate, but often not very precise.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Fossil dates are accurate because they provide important information about the age of fossils and the geological time scale. However, they are often not very precise because the dating methods used to determine their age have limitations and uncertainties. This means that the dates obtained may have a range of possible values rather than being exact. Therefore, while fossil dates can provide valuable insights into the past, they should be interpreted with caution and considered within the context of other geological and paleontological evidence.
30.
In which type of speciation would the force of genetic drift have the most effect?
Correct Answer
A. PeripHeral speciation
Explanation
Peripheral speciation refers to the formation of new species due to the isolation of a small population at the periphery of the original population's range. In this type of speciation, the isolated population is subjected to genetic drift, which is the random change in allele frequencies due to chance events. Since the isolated population is small, genetic drift can have a significant effect on the genetic makeup of the population, leading to the accumulation of different genetic traits and eventually the formation of a new species. Therefore, the force of genetic drift would have the most effect in peripheral speciation.
31.
Which type of speciation has the potential to be the fastest?
Correct Answer
B. Polyploid speciation
Explanation
Polyploid speciation has the potential to be the fastest type of speciation. Polyploidy occurs when an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes, which can lead to reproductive isolation and the formation of a new species. Polyploid speciation can occur in a single generation through a process called autopolyploidy, where an individual has multiple sets of chromosomes from the same species. This rapid increase in genetic diversity can result in the formation of a new species in a short period of time, making polyploid speciation the fastest type of speciation.
32.
What geographic model of speciation best explains the pattern of punctuated equilibrium observed for many fossil groups?
Correct Answer
C. PeripHeral Allopatric speciation
Explanation
Peripheral allopatric speciation is the best geographic model of speciation to explain the pattern of punctuated equilibrium observed for many fossil groups. This model suggests that speciation occurs when a small population becomes geographically isolated from the main population and undergoes genetic divergence due to different selective pressures or genetic drift. Over time, this isolated population may experience rapid evolutionary change, leading to the punctuated equilibrium pattern seen in the fossil record. This model is supported by evidence from various fossil groups and is consistent with the observations of sudden bursts of speciation followed by long periods of stasis.
33.
Extinction is a normal, healthy part of ecosystems and good for their long term persistence and stability
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Extinction is a normal, healthy part of ecosystems and good for their long term persistence and stability. This is because it allows for the natural process of evolution to occur. Through extinction, weaker species are eliminated, making way for new species to evolve and adapt to changing environmental conditions. It also helps maintain a balance in the ecosystem by preventing overpopulation of certain species. Overall, extinction plays a crucial role in shaping and maintaining the diversity and resilience of ecosystems.
34.
Which of the following events is most likely increase the carrying capacity of a desert terrestrial ecosystem? (Hint: in our analogy this would be like making the petri dish larger)
Correct Answer
C. Increase the amount of annual precipitation
Explanation
Increasing the amount of annual precipitation in a desert terrestrial ecosystem would most likely increase the carrying capacity. This is because deserts are characterized by low precipitation, and increasing it would provide more water for plants and animals to survive and thrive. With more water available, plants can grow and provide food and shelter for other organisms, leading to an increase in the overall population size that the ecosystem can support.
35.
What is the ultimate cause of all extinction?
Correct Answer
A. Failure to adapt to a changing environment
Explanation
The ultimate cause of all extinction is the failure to adapt to a changing environment. This means that when a species is unable to adjust to the new conditions in its habitat, it becomes unable to survive and reproduce, leading to its extinction. This can happen due to various factors such as changes in climate, loss of habitat, or the introduction of new predators or competitors. Ultimately, the inability to adapt to these changes is what leads to the extinction of a species.
36.
How many mass extinction events are recorded in the fossil record?
Correct Answer
B. 5
Explanation
There are five mass extinction events recorded in the fossil record. These events are marked by a significant loss of biodiversity and the extinction of numerous species on a global scale. The most well-known mass extinction event is the one that wiped out the dinosaurs around 66 million years ago. Other mass extinction events include the Permian-Triassic extinction event, which is the most severe in Earth's history, and the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event, which led to the extinction of the dinosaurs.
37.
Cladogenesis events correspond to which part of a phylogeny?
Correct Answer
D. Nodes
Explanation
Cladogenesis events correspond to nodes in a phylogeny. Nodes represent the points where a common ancestor splits into two or more descendant lineages, leading to the formation of new species. These nodes are important in understanding the evolutionary relationships and branching patterns within a phylogenetic tree.
38.
What was the proximate cause of the last cataclysmic extinction event (K-T extinction) that is recorded in the fossil record?
Correct Answer
C. Meteorite impact
Explanation
The last cataclysmic extinction event, known as the K-T extinction, was caused by a meteorite impact. This impact resulted in widespread devastation, including massive fires, tsunamis, and a significant release of dust and debris into the atmosphere. The resulting environmental changes, such as the blocking of sunlight and the disruption of ecosystems, led to the extinction of many species, including the dinosaurs. This event is supported by geological evidence, such as the discovery of a large impact crater in Chicxulub, Mexico, which is believed to be the result of the meteorite impact.
39.
There are several active trends such as an increase in complexity, increase in efficiency and an increase in biodiversity that can be seen across all taxonomic groups.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement in the question is false. While there are indeed several active trends across taxonomic groups, the statement incorrectly claims that these trends include an increase in complexity, efficiency, and biodiversity. It is important to note that trends can vary across different taxonomic groups and may not necessarily include these specific increases.
40.
Which of the following is a passive trend that can be applied to the evolution of the crustaceans?
Correct Answer
D. An increase in the diversity of the legs
Explanation
An increase in the diversity of the legs is a passive trend that can be applied to the evolution of crustaceans. This means that over time, crustaceans have developed a wider variety of leg structures, potentially for different functions or adaptations to their environment. This increase in leg diversity could be a result of natural selection acting on variations within the crustacean population, favoring individuals with different leg structures that provide advantages in survival or reproduction.