Pa ALS Protocol Review I
Original 20 question quiz reviewing 2011 PA ALS protocols.
- 1.
For which of the following protocols is a fluid bolus of normal saline solution NOT indicated?
- A.
Allergic reaction
- B.
Burns
- C.
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
- D.
Narrow complex tachycardia
Correct Answer
D. Narrow complex tachycardiaExplanation
A fluid bolus of normal saline solution is not indicated for narrow complex tachycardia because it is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate that originates from the normal electrical conduction system of the heart. It is generally not caused by a fluid imbalance or hypovolemia, which is why administering a fluid bolus would not be effective in treating this condition.Rate this question:
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- 2.
For which of the following cardiac drugs should the paramedic first ask the patient whether he or she is taking drugs for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
- A.
Amiodarone
- B.
Nitroglycerine
- C.
Diltiazem
- D.
Adenosine
Correct Answer
B. NitroglycerineExplanation
The paramedic should first ask the patient whether he or she is taking drugs for the treatment of erectile dysfunction before administering Nitroglycerine. This is because Nitroglycerine can interact with erectile dysfunction drugs, such as Viagra, causing a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is important to assess the patient's medication history and potential drug interactions before administering Nitroglycerine.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following statements is false?
- A.
Ondansetron and Lorazepam is one combination of drugs that could be given to a patient complaining of both severe nausea and severe vertigo.
- B.
You can administer as much as 2 mg naloxone to a hypoglycemic patient whose altered mental status is refractory to 25 g of 50% dextrose.
- C.
Standing orders permit administering narcotic analgesics to patients complaining of left lower flank pain associated with extensive renal calculus.
- D.
You may proceed directly to administering a benzodiazepine drug to an actively seizing patient if that patient is known to have a history of seizures.
Correct Answer
C. Standing orders permit administering narcotic analgesics to patients complaining of left lower flank pain associated with extensive renal calculus.Explanation
The statement "Standing orders permit administering narcotic analgesics to patients complaining of left lower flank pain associated with extensive renal calculus" is false. Standing orders typically do not permit the administration of narcotic analgesics for this specific condition, as the use of narcotics may worsen the symptoms or have other adverse effects. Instead, other non-narcotic pain management options are usually recommended for patients with renal calculus.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Nitroglycerin may be administered to a patient prior to establishing IV access for patients experience an acute coronary syndrome.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Nitroglycerin should not be administered to a patient prior to establishing IV access for patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. IV access is essential in order to administer medications rapidly and effectively during an acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin is commonly used to relieve chest pain in patients with acute coronary syndrome, but it is typically administered after IV access has been established.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Aspirin may be administered to a patient prior to obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram for patients experience an acute coronary syndrome.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Aspirin may be administered to a patient prior to obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram for patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. This is because aspirin is known to have antiplatelet properties and can help prevent the formation of blood clots in the arteries. In cases of acute coronary syndrome, where there is a risk of a blood clot causing a heart attack, administering aspirin can be beneficial in reducing the severity of the condition. Therefore, it is true that aspirin may be given to a patient before obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the value of the first digit for numbered protocols associated with respiratory conditions?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
- E.
8
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The value of the first digit for numbered protocols associated with respiratory conditions is 4.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is not one of the criteria that must be met to administer acetaminophen to a patient without online medical command?
- A.
Patient must be at least 3 months of age.
- B.
The patient’s temperature must exceed 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit.
- C.
The patient has not had a dose of acetaminophen within the last 4 hours.
- D.
Acetaminophen cannot be taken in conjunction with aspirin or other NSAIDs.
Correct Answer
D. AcetaminopHen cannot be taken in conjunction with aspirin or other NSAIDs.Explanation
The given answer explains that one of the criteria that must be met to administer acetaminophen to a patient without online medical command is that it cannot be taken in conjunction with aspirin or other NSAIDs. This means that if a patient is already taking aspirin or other NSAIDs, they should not be given acetaminophen without consulting online medical command. The other criteria mentioned in the options, such as the patient's age, temperature, and recent dose of acetaminophen, are not mentioned as factors that would prevent the administration of acetaminophen without online medical command.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Suppose your 7 year-old ill-looking patient is tachypnic with hyperpyrexia. Your patient’s mass is 20 kg. Which of the following interventions is not permitted per standing order?
- A.
4 mg ondansetron
- B.
400 mg acetaminophen
- C.
400 mL bolus of normal saline solution
- D.
40% oxygen delivered via simple face mask in blow-by configuration
Correct Answer
A. 4 mg ondansetronExplanation
The correct answer is 4 mg ondansetron. Ondansetron is a medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting. However, in this case, the patient is presenting with tachypnea (rapid breathing) and hyperpyrexia (high fever), which may indicate a serious underlying condition. Ondansetron is not indicated for these symptoms and would not address the primary issue at hand. Therefore, it is not permitted per standing order.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following drugs is administered slowly?
- A.
Atropine for bradycardia
- B.
Epinephrine in cardiac arrest
- C.
Ondansetron for nausea
- D.
Adenosine for symptomatic atrial flutter
Correct Answer
C. Ondansetron for nauseaExplanation
Ondansetron is administered slowly because it is a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Administering it slowly allows for better absorption and reduces the risk of adverse effects. In contrast, drugs like Atropine, Epinephrine, and Adenosine are typically administered quickly due to their specific indications and the need for immediate effects.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following ALS drugs may have an ototoxic effect on the patient if delivered too quickly?
- A.
Morphine Sulfate
- B.
Midazolam
- C.
Furosemide
- D.
Ondansetron
Correct Answer
C. FurosemideExplanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is commonly used to treat edema and fluid retention. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. However, furosemide can also have ototoxic effects, meaning it can cause damage to the inner ear and result in hearing loss or tinnitus. This side effect is more likely to occur if furosemide is administered too quickly or in high doses. Therefore, it is important to monitor the administration of furosemide carefully to minimize the risk of ototoxicity.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following drugs would not be administered via small volume nebulizer?
- A.
Epinephrine, 5 mL, 1:1000
- B.
Albuterol, 2.5 mg
- C.
Terbutaline, 0.25 mg
- D.
Ipratropium Bromide, 500 mcg
Correct Answer
C. Terbutaline, 0.25 mgExplanation
Terbutaline, 0.25 mg, would not be administered via small volume nebulizer because it is typically given as a subcutaneous or intravenous injection. Small volume nebulizers are used to administer medication in the form of a mist that is inhaled into the lungs. Terbutaline, on the other hand, is a beta-agonist bronchodilator that is commonly given as an injection to treat conditions such as asthma and preterm labor. Therefore, it would not be appropriate to administer terbutaline via small volume nebulizer.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following combinations of D50 and fluid results in the correct weight-based dose of 10% dextrose to a 10 kg pediatric patient?
- A.
10 mL of D50 mixed with 40 mL normal saline solution
- B.
10 mL of D50 mixed with 40 mL D5W
- C.
20 mL of D50 mixed with 80 mL normal saline solution
- D.
10 mL of D50 mixed with 90 mL normal saline solution
Correct Answer
A. 10 mL of D50 mixed with 40 mL normal saline solution -
- 13.
Under which of the following circumstances is a dose of 2 mg of Lorazepam not consistent with off-line orders for a 100 kg patient?
- A.
Patient with a heart rate of 45, altered mental status attributable to cardiac output, blood pressure of 102/40, prior to pacing.
- B.
Patient in an active, focal seizure in her legs who is conscious, alert, and oriented.
- C.
Patient complaining of severe vertigo.
- D.
Unrestrained agitated behavioral patient with no underlying medical conditions who continues to struggle despite attempts to use verbal techniques.
Correct Answer
C. Patient complaining of severe vertigo.Explanation
A dose of 2 mg of Lorazepam is not consistent with off-line orders for a 100 kg patient when the patient is complaining of severe vertigo. Lorazepam is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety, seizures, and insomnia. It is not typically indicated for the treatment of vertigo. Therefore, prescribing a high dose of Lorazepam for a patient complaining of severe vertigo would not be consistent with off-line orders.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following medications cannot be delivered intranasally per PA State protocol?
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Glucagon
- C.
Lorazepam
- D.
Fentanyl Citrate
Correct Answer
A. EpinepHrineExplanation
Epinephrine cannot be delivered intranasally per PA State protocol. This means that according to the protocol set by the state of Pennsylvania, it is not recommended or allowed to administer epinephrine through the nasal route. The other medications listed, such as Glucagon, Lorazepam, and Fentanyl Citrate, may be administered intranasally according to the protocol.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the appropriate protocol dose for an epinephrine drip in a 75 kg unstable bradycardic patient in which both atropine and pacing is ineffective?
- A.
7 mcg/min
- B.
7.5 mcg/min titrated upward until a systolic blood pressure of at least 100 mmHg is achieved
- C.
0.1 – 0.5 mcg/kg/min titrated until SBP > 90 mmHg
- D.
Begin at 7.5 mcg/min and increase slowly until either SBP > 90 mmHg or until a maximum dose of 10 mcg/min
Correct Answer
D. Begin at 7.5 mcg/min and increase slowly until either SBP > 90 mmHg or until a maximum dose of 10 mcg/minExplanation
The appropriate protocol dose for an epinephrine drip in a 75 kg unstable bradycardic patient, in which both atropine and pacing is ineffective, is to begin at 7.5 mcg/min and increase slowly until either systolic blood pressure (SBP) is greater than 90 mmHg or until a maximum dose of 10 mcg/min is reached. This dosing strategy aims to achieve a SBP of at least 90 mmHg to improve the patient's hemodynamic stability. By starting at 7.5 mcg/min and titrating upward, the dose can be adjusted based on the patient's response to reach the desired SBP range.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is not a maximum protocol dose prior to contacting medical command?
- A.
20 mcg/kg/min of dobutamine for treatment of cardiogenic shock secondary to CHF
- B.
0.1 mg/kg of midazolam for treatment of seizures
- C.
35 mcg/min of epinephrine for treatment of bradycardia
- D.
5 mL/kg of D10 to a pediatric patient with glucose of 42 mg/dL
Correct Answer
C. 35 mcg/min of epinepHrine for treatment of bradycardiaExplanation
The correct answer is 35 mcg/min of epinephrine for treatment of bradycardia. This is because epinephrine is typically administered in doses of 1-10 mcg/min for bradycardia. The given dose of 35 mcg/min exceeds the usual maximum protocol dose and may lead to adverse effects such as increased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, it is not a recommended maximum protocol dose prior to contacting medical command.Rate this question:
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- 17.
For which of the following rhythms is atropine expected to have the least effect on heart rate, for good or bad?
- A.
Sinus bradycardia with a first degree heart block
- B.
Junctional rhythm
- C.
Sinus tachycardia with occasional ectopy
- D.
Third degree AV block
Correct Answer
D. Third degree AV blockExplanation
Atropine is a medication that increases heart rate by blocking the action of the vagus nerve, which normally slows down heart rate. In a third degree AV block, there is a complete blockage of the electrical signals between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a slow heart rate. Since atropine works by increasing heart rate, it would have the least effect on heart rate in this condition, as there is already a block in the conduction system.Rate this question:
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- 18.
You must attempt to contact medical command prior to administering oxytocin to a patient with post-partum hemorrhage refractory to fundal massage.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
It is important to contact medical command before administering oxytocin to a patient with post-partum hemorrhage refractory to fundal massage because oxytocin can have side effects and may not be appropriate for every patient. By contacting medical command, healthcare providers can ensure that they are following the appropriate protocols and guidelines for administering oxytocin in this specific situation. This step helps to ensure patient safety and optimize the effectiveness of the treatment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Under which of the following circumstances would you contact medical command prior to administration of the associated drug?
- A.
Diltiazem, 0.25 mg/kg, for treatment of an regular narrow complex tachycardia in an adult patient
- B.
Adenosine, 0.1 mg/kg, for treatment of stable SVT in a pediatric patient
- C.
Lidocaine, 1.5 mg/kg, for treatment of a regular wide QRS rhythm in an adult patient
- D.
Amiodorone, 150 mg, for treatment of an irregular wide complex tachycardia in an adult patient
Correct Answer
D. Amiodorone, 150 mg, for treatment of an irregular wide complex tachycardia in an adult patientExplanation
You would contact medical command prior to administration of Amiodarone, 150 mg, for treatment of an irregular wide complex tachycardia in an adult patient because Amiodarone is a potent antiarrhythmic medication with potential serious side effects. It can cause hypotension, bradycardia, and can prolong the QT interval, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is important to consult with medical command to ensure that the benefits of administering Amiodarone outweigh the potential risks in this specific patient.Rate this question:
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- 20.
For which of the following rhythms is the initial energy dose for cardioversion 50 joules?
- A.
Unstable atrial flutter
- B.
Unstable atrial fibrillation
- C.
Unstable ventricular tachycardia
- D.
Unstable pulsed ventricular fibrillation
Correct Answer
A. Unstable atrial flutterExplanation
The initial energy dose for cardioversion in unstable atrial flutter is 50 joules. Atrial flutter is a rapid and irregular rhythm in the atria of the heart. Unstable atrial flutter refers to a condition where the rhythm is causing hemodynamic instability or symptoms that are not tolerable by the patient. In such cases, cardioversion is required to restore normal sinus rhythm. The recommended initial energy dose for cardioversion in unstable atrial flutter is 50 joules.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 17, 2012Quiz Created by
Medicmcgill
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