Paramedic Procedures Trivia: Quiz!
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Paramedics provide emergency medical care and are well versed in anatomy, medications, and medical procedures. EMT(Emergency Medical Technician) enhances and learns their skills to conduct remedies, providing support to patients with grave issues. This quiz has been designed to test your knowledge about medical procedures and functions.
- 1.
A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable vital signs is suffering from:
- A.
Insulin shock
- B.
Acute AMI
- C.
Diabetic coma
- D.
CVA
Correct Answer
A. Insulin shockExplanation
The given scenario describes a known diabetic individual who is unconscious, pale, and has clammy skin. These symptoms indicate a condition known as insulin shock, which occurs when there is an excessive amount of insulin in the body. Insulin shock can cause low blood sugar levels, leading to unconsciousness and other symptoms. The stable vital signs suggest that the individual's condition is not life-threatening at the moment. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin shock.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Uncompensated shock produces which of the following:
- A.
Pre-capillary and post-capillary sphincter dilation
- B.
Pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter contraction
- C.
Pre-capillary sphincter contraction and post-capillary sphincter
- D.
A pre-capillary and post-capillary sphincter contraction
Correct Answer
B. Pre-capillary spHincter relaxation and post-capillary spHincter contractionExplanation
Uncompensated shock refers to a condition where the body is unable to effectively compensate for a decrease in blood volume or pressure. In this state, the body tries to maintain blood flow to vital organs by constricting the post-capillary sphincters, which are located after the capillaries. This helps to redirect blood flow away from non-essential areas. At the same time, the body relaxes the pre-capillary sphincters, which are located before the capillaries. This allows more blood to flow into the capillaries and reach the vital organs. Therefore, the correct answer is pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter contraction.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What does the T wave represent on the ECG?
- A.
Ventricular depolarization
- B.
Atrial depolarization
- C.
Atrial repolarization
- D.
Ventricular repolarization
Correct Answer
D. Ventricular repolarizationExplanation
The T wave on an ECG represents ventricular repolarization. This is the phase of the cardiac cycle where the ventricles relax and prepare for the next contraction. During ventricular repolarization, the electrical activity in the ventricles returns to its resting state, allowing them to refill with blood before the next heartbeat. This is an important phase as it ensures proper coordination and functioning of the heart.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Kinematics of trauma; How many collisions occur?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The question is asking about the number of collisions that occur in the kinematics of trauma. The correct answer is three, indicating that there are three separate collisions involved in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A young woman is complaining of sudden onset of right-sided abdominal pain. She admits to being sexually active and states she missed her last period. What do you suspect is the patient's likely diagnosis?
- A.
PID
- B.
Ectopic pregnancy
- C.
Endometriosis
- D.
Mittleschmertz
Correct Answer
B. Ectopic pregnancyExplanation
Given the patient's symptoms of sudden onset right-sided abdominal pain and missed period, along with the fact that she is sexually active, the likely diagnosis is ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. This can cause abdominal pain and missed periods. It is important to consider this diagnosis as ectopic pregnancy can be a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Dopamine has what effects when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min?
- A.
Increased blood pressure
- B.
Decreased blood pressure
- C.
Renal and mesenteric dilation
- D.
Decreased urine output
Correct Answer
C. Renal and mesenteric dilationExplanation
Dopamine, when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min, has the effect of causing renal and mesenteric dilation. This means that it causes the blood vessels in the kidneys and intestines to widen, which can improve blood flow to these organs. This dilation can help increase renal perfusion and enhance urine output.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 90-year-old is at home, conscious, alert, and well oriented. His family thinks he should be seen at the hospital for a liver problem. The man refuses to be transported. Who has the right to make the patient go to the hospital?
- A.
A judge
- B.
The EMS crew
- C.
The patient's doctor
- D.
The patient's family
Correct Answer
A. A judgeExplanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is a judge. While the patient's family may be concerned about his health and want him to go to the hospital, ultimately, the decision to transport the patient against his will requires legal authorization. A judge would have the authority to issue an order for the patient to be transported to the hospital if it is deemed necessary for his well-being. The EMS crew and the patient's doctor do not have the authority to override the patient's refusal to be transported.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is an indication of:
- A.
Diffuse cranial injury
- B.
Cerebral focal cortex lesions
- C.
Spine injury
- D.
Seizure
Correct Answer
B. Cerebral focal cortex lesionsExplanation
Decerebrate and decorticate posturing refers to abnormal body movements that occur as a result of damage to specific areas of the brain. Decerebrate posturing involves rigid extension of the arms and legs, while decorticate posturing involves flexion of the arms and extension of the legs. These posturing patterns are typically seen in individuals with cerebral focal cortex lesions, which are localized areas of damage in the outer layer of the brain. This indicates that the correct answer is cerebral focal cortex lesions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What response is seen with Cushing's syndrome?
- A.
Decreased production of cortizone
- B.
Excess production of ACTH
- C.
Excess production of oxytocin
- D.
Decreased production of ACTH
Correct Answer
B. Excess production of ACTHExplanation
Cushing's syndrome is a condition caused by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is responsible for stimulating the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Therefore, excess production of ACTH would lead to increased levels of cortisol, which is characteristic of Cushing's syndrome. This excess cortisol can cause a variety of symptoms such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and muscle weakness.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The best possible score for a Glasgow coma scale is:
- A.
Eye opening 6; verbal response 5; motor response 4
- B.
Eye opening 5; verbal response 5; motor response 5
- C.
Eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6
- D.
Eye opening 3; verbal response 3; motor response 5
Correct Answer
C. Eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6Explanation
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess the level of consciousness in a patient. It consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is assigned a score ranging from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness. The best possible score for the GCS is 15, which is achieved by adding the maximum score for each component. In this case, the answer "eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6" adds up to a total score of 15, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
- A.
Thyroxin hormone
- B.
ACTH
- C.
Anti-diuretic hormone
- D.
Insulin hormone
Correct Answer
D. Insulin hormoneExplanation
The beta cells of the pancreas produce insulin hormone. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels by allowing glucose to enter cells and be used for energy. It is essential for maintaining normal blood sugar levels and preventing high blood sugar (hyperglycemia). Insufficient insulin production or impaired insulin function can lead to diabetes, a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the production of insulin by beta cells is crucial for proper glucose metabolism in the body.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which is the best way to lower a patient?
- A.
Horizontal
- B.
It doesn't matter
- C.
Inverted
- D.
Vertical
Correct Answer
A. HorizontalExplanation
The best way to lower a patient is horizontally. This position ensures that the patient's body is in a flat and level position, which helps to distribute their weight evenly and reduces the risk of injury or discomfort. It also allows for easier monitoring and access to the patient's vital signs and airways. Lowering a patient vertically or inverted can cause unnecessary strain on their body and may lead to complications. Therefore, lowering a patient horizontally is the safest and most effective approach.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The most significant sign of abdominal injury is:
- A.
Tenderness
- B.
Rigidity and guarding
- C.
Pain
- D.
Hematuria
Correct Answer
C. PainExplanation
The most significant sign of abdominal injury is pain. Pain is a common symptom of abdominal injury and can indicate internal damage or trauma. It can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, organ damage, or internal bleeding. The presence of pain suggests that there may be an underlying issue in the abdominal area that needs to be evaluated and treated by a medical professional.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A woman is found lying in the street. When you ask her name, she moans incoherently. You report her level of consciousness as:
- A.
Stuporous
- B.
Conscious and disoriented
- C.
Unconscious
- D.
Semi-conscious
Correct Answer
B. Conscious and disorientedExplanation
The woman is conscious because she is able to respond to the question by moaning. However, her response is incoherent, indicating that she is disoriented. Therefore, the correct answer is "conscious and disoriented."Rate this question:
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- 15.
Lidocaine is usually given for:
- A.
Asystole
- B.
Supreaventricular tachycardia
- C.
Atrial fibrillation
- D.
Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer
D. Ventricular tachycardiaExplanation
Lidocaine is commonly administered to treat ventricular tachycardia, a condition characterized by a rapid heart rate originating in the ventricles. This medication helps to stabilize the heart rhythm by blocking abnormal electrical signals in the ventricles. Lidocaine is not typically used for asystole (absence of heart activity), supraventricular tachycardia (rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles), or atrial fibrillation (irregular and often rapid heart rate originating in the atria).Rate this question:
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- 16.
Chronotropic means:
- A.
Time related
- B.
Nothing
- C.
Electrolytic
- D.
Force related
Correct Answer
A. Time relatedExplanation
The term "chronotropic" refers to something that is related to time. This could mean that it is related to the timing or duration of an event or process. In the context of medical terminology, "chronotropic" is often used to describe the effects of a substance or medication on the heart rate, specifically in terms of its ability to increase or decrease the rate at which the heart beats over a certain period of time. Therefore, "time related" is the most appropriate explanation for the term "chronotropic".Rate this question:
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- 17.
Before applying a PASG you must:
- A.
Start an IV
- B.
Assess lung sounds
- C.
Insert an oral airway
- D.
Measure the legs of the patient
Correct Answer
B. Assess lung soundsExplanation
Before applying a PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment), it is necessary to assess lung sounds. This is important because the PASG is a device used to control bleeding and stabilize fractures in the lower extremities. However, it can also cause complications such as impairing ventilation if there is an underlying lung injury or pneumothorax. Therefore, assessing lung sounds helps to identify any pre-existing lung conditions that may be contraindications for applying the PASG, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the intervention.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What drug is an antianginal, calcium blocker, antiarrhythmic, and vasodilator?
- A.
Atropine
- B.
Nitroglycerin
- C.
Verapamil
- D.
Nipride
Correct Answer
C. VerapamilExplanation
Verapamil is a drug that is classified as an antianginal, calcium blocker, antiarrhythmic, and vasodilator. As an antianginal, it helps to relieve chest pain by improving blood flow to the heart. It works as a calcium blocker, preventing calcium from entering certain cells in the heart and blood vessels, which helps to relax and widen the blood vessels. Verapamil also has antiarrhythmic properties, meaning it can help to regulate abnormal heart rhythms. Additionally, it acts as a vasodilator, meaning it relaxes and widens the blood vessels, which can help to lower blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Patient has high blood pressure in pregnancy:
- A.
Uterine inversion
- B.
Toxemia
- C.
Preeclampsia
- D.
Eclampsia
Correct Answer
B. ToxemiaExplanation
Toxemia, also known as preeclampsia, is a condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. It is caused by a problem with the placenta, which leads to reduced blood flow to the fetus and an increase in blood pressure in the mother. If left untreated, toxemia can progress to eclampsia, which is characterized by seizures. Uterine inversion, on the other hand, refers to the turning inside out of the uterus and is not related to high blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
- A.
Verapmil
- B.
Isoptin
- C.
Calan
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the options listed (verapamil, isoptin, calan) are calcium channel blockers. Calcium channel blockers are medications that block the entry of calcium into the cells of the heart and blood vessels, resulting in relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. Verapamil, isoptin, and calan are all brand names for the same medication, which is verapamil hydrochloride. Hence, all of the above options are correct as they are different names for the same calcium channel blocker.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Anaphylaxis following an insect sting is treated with:
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Aminophylline
- C.
Morphine sulfate
- D.
Benadryl
Correct Answer
A. EpinepHrineExplanation
Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis following an insect sting. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and other life-threatening symptoms. Epinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, opening airways, and reducing the release of inflammatory substances, providing immediate relief and preventing further complications. Aminophylline is a bronchodilator used for asthma and not specifically indicated for anaphylaxis. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic and can potentially worsen anaphylactic symptoms. Benadryl, while an antihistamine, is not as effective as epinephrine in treating anaphylaxis.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The following are all potential hazards to endotracheal intubation EXCEPT:
- A.
Damage to the teeth
- B.
Regurgitation
- C.
Intubation of the right mainstem bronchus
- D.
heart damage from rapidly increased oxygen
Correct Answer
D. heart damage from rapidly increased oxygenExplanation
Endotracheal intubation is a procedure used to maintain an open airway and facilitate mechanical ventilation. Potential hazards of this procedure include damage to the teeth, regurgitation, and intubation of the right mainstem bronchus. However, heart damage from rapidly increased oxygen is not a potential hazard of endotracheal intubation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.
- A.
Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
- B.
The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
- C.
The inverse of the blood pressure
- D.
Half of the systolic pressure
Correct Answer
A. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressureExplanation
Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. This is because pulse pressure represents the force exerted by the heart during each heartbeat and is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure (pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest) from the systolic pressure (pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts). It is an important measure of arterial health and can provide information about the elasticity and compliance of blood vessels.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____.
- A.
HR and Disastolic pressure
- B.
HR and Stroke Volume
- C.
HR and EF
- D.
Diastolic and Systolic pressure
Correct Answer
B. HR and Stroke VolumeExplanation
Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. It is determined by the heart rate (HR), which is the number of times the heart beats per minute, and the stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat. Therefore, the correct answer is HR and Stroke Volume.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 28, 2008Quiz Created by
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