Paramedic Quiz 8 - 45 Mins - EMT-p

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| By Medic2690
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Medic2690
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Paramedic Quiz 8 - 45 Mins - EMT-p - Quiz


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Depolarization is the :

    • A.

      Recovery of the cell

    • B.

      Electrical stimulus results in defibrillation

    • C.

      Electrical stimulus moves throughout the cell and results in cardiac muscle work

    • D.

      The cell will not respond to strong stimulus

    Correct Answer
    C. Electrical stimulus moves throughout the cell and results in cardiac muscle work
    Explanation
    Depolarization refers to the process in which an electrical stimulus spreads throughout a cell, specifically in the context of cardiac muscle cells. This electrical stimulus causes the cardiac muscle to contract and perform its work of pumping blood. Therefore, the correct answer states that depolarization results in the movement of the electrical stimulus throughout the cell, ultimately leading to cardiac muscle work.

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  • 2. 

    Principles of restraining patients include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Free the restraints after the patient displays rational behavior

    • B.

      Restrain all extremities

    • C.

      Have adequate numbers of people

    • D.

      Restrain as a last resort

    Correct Answer
    A. Free the restraints after the patient displays rational behavior
    Explanation
    The principles of restraining patients include restraining as a last resort, having adequate numbers of people, and restraining all extremities. However, it is not recommended to free the restraints after the patient displays rational behavior. This is because the patient may still pose a risk to themselves or others even if they are currently behaving rationally. It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of the patient and those around them, and to follow proper protocols for restraining patients when necessary.

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  • 3. 

    You started an IV in the external jugular. As you attach the tubing you note blood pulse back up into the tubing. You will:

    • A.

      Attach a blood filter

    • B.

      Tape the IV in place, clamp the tubing and start another

    • C.

      D/C the IV, withdraw the catheter and apply pressure for 5 minutes

    • D.

      Slow the IV to KVO rate

    Correct Answer
    C. D/C the IV, withdraw the catheter and apply pressure for 5 minutes
    Explanation
    When blood pulses back up into the tubing after attaching it to the IV in the external jugular, it indicates that the catheter is not properly placed within the vein. This could be due to accidental puncture of the artery instead of the vein. To prevent any further complications, the IV should be discontinued (D/C), the catheter should be withdrawn, and pressure should be applied for 5 minutes to control any bleeding. This will allow for proper evaluation and reinsertion of the IV if necessary.

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  • 4. 

    In lead II what are you reading?

    • A.

      -RA to +LL

    • B.

      -LA to +LL

    • C.

      +RA to -LL

    • D.

      -RA to +LA

    Correct Answer
    A. -RA to +LL
    Explanation
    In lead II, you are reading the electrical activity from the right arm (-RA) to the left leg (+LL). This is because lead II is formed by placing the positive electrode on the left leg and the negative electrode on the right arm. By measuring the electrical activity between these two points, lead II provides a specific view of the heart's electrical activity and can help diagnose various cardiac conditions.

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  • 5. 

    Ischemia is defined as:

    • A.

      Is a restriction in blood supply with resultant damage or dysfunction of tissue.

    • B.

      Lack of CO2 to the cells

    • C.

      Deficient iron supply

    • D.

      Deficient blood supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a restriction in blood supply with resultant damage or dysfunction of tissue.
    Explanation
    Ischemia is a condition characterized by a restriction in blood supply to a particular tissue or organ, which leads to damage or dysfunction of that tissue. This restriction in blood flow can occur due to various reasons such as blockage of blood vessels, reduced blood flow, or inadequate oxygen supply. The lack of sufficient blood supply deprives the tissue of essential nutrients and oxygen, causing tissue damage or dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is "is a restriction in blood supply with resultant damage or dysfunction of tissue."

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  • 6. 

    Defibrillation of an infant requires:

    • A.

      5 joules/kg

    • B.

      1 joule/kg

    • C.

      200 joules

    • D.

      2-4 joules/kg

    Correct Answer
    D. 2-4 joules/kg
    Explanation
    Defibrillation of an infant requires 2-4 joules/kg because this range of energy is considered appropriate for delivering an electric shock to restore normal heart rhythm in infants. The specific amount within this range may vary depending on the size and weight of the infant. It is crucial to use the correct amount of energy to avoid causing harm to the infant while effectively treating any cardiac arrhythmias.

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  • 7. 

    In tension pneumothorax the patient has:

    • A.

      Tracheal deviation toward affected side

    • B.

      Tracheal deviation away from affected side

    • C.

      Over inflation of the lung

    • D.

      Ruptured spleen

    Correct Answer
    B. Tracheal deviation away from affected side
    Explanation
    In tension pneumothorax, there is an accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse. This leads to a shift in the position of the trachea away from the affected side due to the increased pressure in the affected pleural space. This deviation occurs because the accumulated air pushes the mediastinum, including the trachea, away from the affected lung. This can be a life-threatening condition and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 8. 

    R on T phenomenon may result in:

    • A.

      Supraventricular tachycardia

    • B.

      Premature atrial contractions

    • C.

      Atrial fibrillation

    • D.

      Ventricular fibrillation

    Correct Answer
    D. Ventricular fibrillation
    Explanation
    R on T phenomenon refers to the occurrence of a premature ventricular contraction (PVC) during the vulnerable period of the T wave of the preceding beat. This can lead to ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic and uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles. During ventricular fibrillation, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to a loss of consciousness and, if not promptly treated, death. Therefore, the R on T phenomenon can be a potential trigger for ventricular fibrillation.

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  • 9. 

    Tension pneumothorax causes:

    • A.

      Lack of blood return to the atria

    • B.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • C.

      Thrombosis

    • D.

      Cardiac tamponade effect

    Correct Answer
    D. Cardiac tamponade effect
    Explanation
    Tension pneumothorax causes a cardiac tamponade effect. This occurs when air accumulates in the pleural space, causing pressure on the heart and preventing it from filling properly. This can lead to decreased cardiac output and potentially life-threatening consequences.

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  • 10. 

    A 60 year old patient with a-fib develops signs of CVA. This is probably due to:

    • A.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B.

      Cerebral embolism

    • C.

      Cerebral hemorrhage

    • D.

      Cerebral thrombosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Cerebral embolism
    Explanation
    A 60-year-old patient with a-fib developing signs of CVA (cerebrovascular accident) is most likely due to a cerebral embolism. A-fib (atrial fibrillation) is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats, which can lead to the formation of blood clots in the heart. These clots can then travel through the bloodstream and block blood vessels in the brain, causing a cerebral embolism. This interruption of blood flow to the brain can result in a stroke or CVA.

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  • 11. 

    A 27 year old male involved in a MVA is complaining of chest pain. You would treat this patient as having a(n):

    • A.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B.

      Thrombosis

    • C.

      MI

    • D.

      Angina attack

    Correct Answer
    C. MI
    Explanation
    Based on the given scenario, a 27-year-old male involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) complaining of chest pain, the correct answer is MI (Myocardial Infarction). This is because chest pain following an MVA is often indicative of a heart-related issue, and MI refers to the death of heart muscle due to the blockage of blood flow to the heart. It is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. Pulmonary embolism and thrombosis are less likely in this case as they typically present with symptoms such as shortness of breath and leg pain. Angina attack is also less likely in a young patient without a history of heart disease.

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  • 12. 

    For how long may you interrupt CPR to intubate?

    • A.

      45 seconds

    • B.

      5 seconds

    • C.

      10 seconds

    • D.

      30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    During CPR, it is crucial to maintain uninterrupted chest compressions to maximize blood flow to the vital organs. However, intubation is also necessary to secure the airway and provide ventilation. The correct answer of 30 seconds suggests that this is the maximum amount of time that CPR can be interrupted to perform intubation. This duration allows for the necessary procedure while minimizing the interruption of chest compressions, ensuring that the patient's blood circulation is not compromised for an extended period.

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  • 13. 

    You suspect a patient is having an MI. You base this on:

    • A.

      Opinion of base hospital physician

    • B.

      Hx of the acute illness

    • C.

      Appearance of patient

    • D.

      Vital signs

    Correct Answer
    B. Hx of the acute illness
    Explanation
    The history of the acute illness is a significant factor in suspecting a patient is having a myocardial infarction (MI). The patient's description of symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and radiating pain to the arm or jaw can indicate a potential MI. Additionally, information about the duration and severity of the symptoms can further support the suspicion. Therefore, the presence of a relevant history of the acute illness is a crucial aspect in considering the possibility of an MI.

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  • 14. 

    Which statement is true of suicides?

    • A.

      Most give no prior notice of what they will do

    • B.

      Many have a history of psychiatric illness

    • C.

      Women are more successful than men

    • D.

      Many suicides isolate themselves

    Correct Answer
    D. Many suicides isolate themselves
    Explanation
    Many suicides isolate themselves because they may feel disconnected from others and believe that they are a burden or that nobody understands their pain. Isolation can exacerbate feelings of hopelessness and despair, making it harder for individuals to seek help or find support.

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  • 15. 

    A woman watches her husband and son die in a domestic disturbance. She appears paralyzed, but no injury is found. What is she likely suffering from?

    • A.

      Conversion hysteria

    • B.

      Psychogenic shock

    • C.

      Nerogenic shock

    • D.

      Post-traumatic shock

    Correct Answer
    A. Conversion hysteria
    Explanation
    The woman's lack of physical injury despite witnessing the traumatic event suggests that her symptoms may be psychological rather than physiological. Conversion hysteria, also known as conversion disorder, is a condition in which psychological stress manifests as physical symptoms without an underlying medical cause. This condition can cause paralysis or other physical impairments without any apparent physical injury. Therefore, conversion hysteria is the likely explanation for the woman's symptoms in this scenario.

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  • 16. 

    A 20 year old male fractured his leg one week ago. He has taken aspirin for pain. He gets up and becomes short of breath. He probably suffered a(n)

    • A.

      Acute MI

    • B.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • C.

      Thrombosis

    • D.

      Angina attack

    Correct Answer
    B. Pulmonary embolism
    Explanation
    The patient's recent history of leg fracture and use of aspirin suggest that he may have developed a blood clot in his leg, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This blood clot could have dislodged and traveled to his lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary arteries, which is known as a pulmonary embolism. This can lead to shortness of breath and is a potentially life-threatening condition. Therefore, the correct answer is pulmonary embolism.

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  • 17. 

    A patient who is pacing, anxious, and blaming himself may be suffering from:

    • A.

      Schizophrenia

    • B.

      Conversion hysteria

    • C.

      Depression

    • D.

      Subdued mania

    Correct Answer
    C. Depression
    Explanation
    A patient who is pacing, anxious, and blaming himself may be suffering from depression. Depression is a mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Pacing and restlessness can be physical manifestations of anxiety, which often co-occurs with depression. Blaming oneself is a common symptom of depression, as individuals may feel guilt or worthlessness. While other disorders like schizophrenia, conversion hysteria, and subdued mania can also cause similar symptoms, the combination of pacing, anxiety, and self-blame is more indicative of depression.

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  • 18. 

    What is usually true in GI bleeding?

    • A.

      Duodenal ulcer is most common cause

    • B.

      Never dark red in color

    • C.

      Peptic ulcer is most common cause

    • D.

      Never bright red in color

    Correct Answer
    C. Peptic ulcer is most common cause
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of GI bleeding. This is because peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine, and they can easily bleed when irritated or eroded. While duodenal ulcers can also cause GI bleeding, peptic ulcers are more prevalent. The statement about the color of the bleeding is not relevant to the question and does not provide any information about the cause of GI bleeding.

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  • 19. 

    What is described as the movement of a substance across the cell membrane against the osmotic gradient using energy?

    • A.

      Osmosis

    • B.

      Active transport

    • C.

      Diffusion

    • D.

      Facilitated transport

    Correct Answer
    B. Active transport
    Explanation
    Active transport is the movement of a substance across the cell membrane against the osmotic gradient using energy. This process requires the use of cellular energy, usually in the form of ATP, to move molecules or ions across the membrane against their concentration gradient. Unlike diffusion or osmosis, which occur passively and do not require energy, active transport is a highly regulated and energy-dependent process that allows cells to maintain proper concentrations of substances inside and outside the cell.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is an emetic?

    • A.

      Ipecac liquid

    • B.

      Ipecac syrup

    • C.

      Activated charcoal

    • D.

      Atropine

    Correct Answer
    B. Ipecac syrup
    Explanation
    Ipecac syrup is an emetic, which means it is a substance that induces vomiting. It is commonly used in cases of poisoning or overdose to help remove toxins from the body. Ipecac liquid is also an emetic, but the correct answer specifically states ipecac syrup. Activated charcoal is not an emetic, but rather a substance used to absorb toxins in the digestive system. Atropine is a medication used for various purposes, such as treating certain heart conditions, but it is not an emetic.

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  • 21. 

    100 mls of 2% lidocaine contains how much lidocaine?

    • A.

      2000 mg

    • B.

      200 mg

    • C.

      2000 mcg

    • D.

      20 gm

    Correct Answer
    A. 2000 mg
    Explanation
    The given question asks how much lidocaine is present in 100 mls of 2% lidocaine solution. The percentage indicates that there are 2 grams of lidocaine in 100 mls of solution. Since 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams, the correct answer is 2000 mg.

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  • 22. 

    To secure the airway in a trauma patient, you should:

    • A.

      Use only an oropharyngeal airway

    • B.

      Place an EOA and hyperextend the neck

    • C.

      Place an ET tube putting the head in a sniffing position

    • D.

      Place an ET tube while your partner maintains in-line immobilization

    Correct Answer
    D. Place an ET tube while your partner maintains in-line immobilization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to place an ET tube while your partner maintains in-line immobilization. In trauma patients, securing the airway is crucial to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation. The ET tube provides a secure airway by directly delivering oxygen and allowing for mechanical ventilation if needed. Placing the ET tube while a partner maintains in-line immobilization helps to minimize movement of the cervical spine, reducing the risk of further injury.

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  • 23. 

    An infant with one leg burned on both sides has what percent of body burned?

    • A.

      9%

    • B.

      18%

    • C.

      13.5%

    • D.

      12%

    Correct Answer
    C. 13.5%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 13.5%. To calculate the percentage of the body burned, we need to consider the total surface area of the body. Since the infant has only one leg burned on both sides, we can assume that both the front and back sides of the leg are affected. The leg represents a relatively small portion of the total body surface area. Therefore, the percentage of the body burned would be less than 18% but more than 9%. The closest option is 13.5%, which is the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    A 30 year old female has just taken 100 tablets of Tylenol. What should you administer?

    • A.

      60 mls ipecac syrup

    • B.

      30 mls ipecac water

    • C.

      30 mls ipecac syrup

    • D.

      50 gms activated charcoal

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 mls ipecac syrup
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is to administer 60 mls of ipecac syrup. Ipecac syrup is commonly used to induce vomiting in cases of accidental ingestion of toxic substances. The 30-year-old female has just taken 100 tablets of Tylenol, which can be toxic in high doses. By administering ipecac syrup, it can help to expel the Tylenol from her system and prevent further absorption.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 02, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Medic2690
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