1.
The main goal of any continuous quality improvement is to
Correct Answer
D. Asses for ongoing improvement before a problem arises
Explanation
Continuous quality improvement aims to assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises. This means that instead of waiting for problems to occur, the focus is on proactively identifying areas for improvement and making necessary changes to prevent issues from arising in the first place. By regularly assessing and evaluating processes, protocols, and performance, organizations can identify potential problems and implement measures to enhance quality and efficiency. This proactive approach helps to prevent errors, improve patient outcomes, and ensure that the organization is consistently delivering high-quality care.
2.
all of the following are examples of injury prevention EXCEPT
Correct Answer
D. Teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens
Explanation
Teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens is not an example of injury prevention because it is a response to an injury or emergency situation rather than a proactive measure to prevent injuries from occurring in the first place. The other options mentioned in the question - demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet, instructing a person on how to wear a seatbelt properly, and informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs - all involve taking preventive measures to reduce the risk of injury.
3.
a major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT-Basic is that the paramedic
Correct Answer
D. Performs a variety of invasive procedures
Explanation
The correct answer is that a major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT-Basic is that the paramedic performs a variety of invasive procedures. This means that paramedics are trained and authorized to perform procedures such as intubation, administering medications intravenously, and inserting chest tubes, among others. In contrast, EMT-Basics have a more limited scope of practice and are not trained to perform invasive procedures.
4.
while you and your partner are en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you should expect the emergency medical dispatcher EMD to
Correct Answer
B. Instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene
Explanation
While en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, it is expected that the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) will instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until the responders arrive at the scene. This is because performing CPR immediately can greatly increase the chances of survival for the patient. The EMD will guide the caller through the necessary steps of CPR, such as chest compressions and rescue breaths, until professional help arrives.
5.
if a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT
Correct Answer
B. Require maximum supervision at work
Explanation
A self-motivated paramedic would not require maximum supervision at work because they would be able to take initiative and work independently. Being self-motivated means that they are driven and have a strong internal desire to excel in their work. This implies that they would continuously educate themselves and strive for excellence. Additionally, being able to accept constructive feedback is a characteristic of someone who is self-motivated as they are open to learning and improving their skills. Therefore, the answer is that a self-motivated paramedic should not require maximum supervision at work.
6.
as an advocate for your patient you must
Correct Answer
A. Act in the patients best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs
Explanation
As an advocate for your patient, it is important to act in their best interest and respect their wishes and beliefs. This means considering their preferences and values when making decisions about their care. It also involves ensuring that their rights and autonomy are upheld. By doing so, you are promoting patient-centered care and demonstrating respect for their individuality.
7.
being sympathetic towards a patient means that you
Correct Answer
C. Acknowledge the patients feelings
Explanation
Being sympathetic towards a patient means acknowledging their feelings. This involves understanding and validating their emotions, showing empathy, and providing support. It is about recognizing and respecting their experiences and demonstrating a willingness to listen and understand their perspective. By acknowledging the patient's feelings, healthcare professionals can create a compassionate and caring environment, which can positively impact the patient's well-being and overall healthcare experience.
8.
The main benefit to online medical control is that it
Correct Answer
B. Provides an immediate and specific patient care resource
Explanation
Online medical control provides an immediate and specific patient care resource. This means that paramedics can quickly access medical expertise and guidance from physicians through online platforms. This resource allows paramedics to receive real-time advice on how to best care for the patient, ensuring that they can provide appropriate and timely treatment. This immediate access to medical knowledge can greatly improve patient outcomes and help paramedics make informed decisions in emergency situations.
9.
The primary focus of a CQI program should be on
Correct Answer
B. Improving patient care delivery
Explanation
A CQI program, or Continuous Quality Improvement program, aims to improve the quality of patient care. This involves identifying areas for improvement and implementing strategies to enhance patient care delivery. By focusing on improving patient care delivery, the CQI program ensures that healthcare providers are consistently providing high-quality care to patients. This can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and overall improvement in the healthcare system.
10.
when the paramedic is caring for a patient, it is MOST important to
Correct Answer
C. Remembering to to use basic life support interventions
Explanation
In the given scenario, the most important action for the paramedic to take when caring for a patient is to remember to use basic life support interventions. This means that the paramedic should prioritize providing essential life-saving measures such as maintaining an open airway, ensuring adequate breathing, and initiating chest compressions if needed. These interventions are crucial in stabilizing the patient's condition and increasing their chances of survival before reaching a medical facility. While transporting to the closest medical facility is important, it is secondary to providing immediate basic life support interventions. Starting an IV line and formulating a field impression may be necessary but are not the most important actions in this situation.
11.
which of the following dimensions of wellbeing is LEAST essential to a healthy life.
Correct Answer
C. Financial
Explanation
Financial wellbeing is considered the least essential dimension to a healthy life because although it can contribute to a person's overall quality of life and provide access to resources and opportunities, it is not directly linked to physical and mental health. While financial stability can alleviate stress and provide security, it does not guarantee happiness or fulfillment. Mental, physical, and emotional wellbeing, on the other hand, are closely interconnected and crucial for maintaining a healthy and balanced life.
12.
immediately following exposure to a patients blood or body fluids the paramedic should
Correct Answer
D. Wash the affected area with soap and water
Explanation
After being exposed to a patient's blood or body fluids, it is important for the paramedic to wash the affected area with soap and water. This is because washing the area immediately helps to reduce the risk of infection or transmission of any potential pathogens that may be present in the blood or body fluids. It is a crucial step in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining personal hygiene.
13.
Ignoring ones circadian rhythms may result in all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer
B. Enhanced social functioning
Explanation
Ignoring one's circadian rhythms can have several negative effects on physical and mental well-being. It can lead to decreased physical coordination, as the body may not be functioning optimally during times when it should be resting or sleeping. It can also result in persistent difficulty with sleep, as the body's natural sleep-wake cycle is disrupted. Additionally, ignoring circadian rhythms can impair higher thought function, as sleep deprivation can negatively impact cognitive abilities such as memory, attention, and decision-making. However, it is unlikely to enhance social functioning, as disrupted sleep patterns can lead to irritability, mood swings, and decreased social interaction.
14.
the BEST way for a paramedic to sustain energy is to
Correct Answer
C. Carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly
Explanation
Carrying numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly is the best way for a paramedic to sustain energy. This allows for a steady intake of nutrients and calories throughout the shift, preventing energy crashes. Limiting water intake to less than 16 ounces per day can lead to dehydration and fatigue. Eating a large meal at the beginning of the shift can cause drowsiness and discomfort. Drinking fewer than 4 caffeinated beverages before work can lead to caffeine crashes and dehydration.
15.
The key to remaining happy in your career as a paramedic is to
Correct Answer
C. Make a deliberate effort to create a healthy balance between your life and work and your life away from work
Explanation
To remain happy in a paramedic career, it is important to create a healthy balance between work and personal life. By making a deliberate effort to prioritize self-care and maintain a healthy work-life balance, paramedics can prevent burnout and maintain overall well-being. This involves setting boundaries, managing stress, and engaging in activities outside of work that bring joy and fulfillment. By doing so, paramedics can sustain their passion for their job while also taking care of their own physical and mental health.
16.
A return to an earlier age level of behavior or emotional adjustment during a crisis situation is called
Correct Answer
B. Regression
Explanation
Regression refers to a psychological defense mechanism where an individual reverts to an earlier stage of development or behavior in order to cope with a crisis or stressful situation. This can involve adopting behaviors or emotional responses that were characteristic of an earlier age or stage of development. It is a way for individuals to temporarily escape the demands and stressors of their current situation by retreating to a more familiar and comfortable state.
17.
A formal critical incident stress debriefing:
Correct Answer
B. Is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process and to help EMS personnel realize that their reaction to a stressful even are normal.
Explanation
A formal critical incident stress debriefing is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process and help EMS personnel understand that their reaction to a stressful event is normal. This type of debriefing typically takes about 1 hour and is conducted in the workplace with the presence of the EMS provider's supervisor and medical director. It aims to provide support and guidance to the individuals involved in order to facilitate their recovery from the incident.
18.
The statement " if i can just live long enough to see my sons wedding, i can die in peace" is indicative of the __________ stage of the grieving process.
Correct Answer
D. Bargaining
Explanation
The statement suggests that the person is trying to negotiate or make a deal with fate or a higher power. They are hoping that if they can live long enough to witness their son's wedding, it will bring them a sense of peace before they pass away. This aligns with the bargaining stage of the grieving process, where individuals attempt to find ways to make the situation more manageable or acceptable.
19.
Regardless of a paramedics circadian rhythms, he or she should
Correct Answer
A. Not overlook the need for rest
Explanation
Paramedics work in high-stress and demanding environments, often dealing with life-threatening situations. Rest is crucial for their physical and mental well-being, as it helps them maintain alertness, focus, and decision-making abilities. Regardless of their circadian rhythms, which may be disrupted due to irregular work schedules, it is important for paramedics to prioritize rest to prevent fatigue and burnout. By not overlooking the need for rest, paramedics can ensure that they are in the best condition to provide effective and safe care to their patients.
20.
To protect your back when lifting, you should
Correct Answer
D. Keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twisting
Explanation
To protect your back when lifting, it is important to keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twisting. This helps to maintain proper alignment of the spine and reduces the risk of straining or injuring the back muscles. Twisting while lifting can put excessive strain on the spine and increase the chances of a back injury. By keeping the back straight and upright, the load is evenly distributed and the powerful muscles of the lower back can effectively support the weight. This technique helps to minimize the risk of back pain or injury while lifting.
21.
When focusing on childhood injury prevention, the highest priorities are assigned to those injuries that are
Correct Answer
B. Common, severe, and readily preventable
Explanation
The highest priorities in childhood injury prevention are assigned to injuries that are common, severe, and readily preventable. This means that the focus is on preventing injuries that occur frequently, have serious consequences, and can be easily prevented. By targeting these types of injuries, efforts can be more effective in reducing the overall burden of childhood injuries.
22.
An effective injury prevention program should focus on all of the following data except
Correct Answer
B. Current EMS call volumes
Explanation
An effective injury prevention program should focus on common injury locations, typical injury mechanisms, and the mean age of the patient. However, it should not necessarily focus on current EMS call volumes. While call volumes can provide some insight into the frequency of injuries, they do not necessarily provide information on the specific locations, mechanisms, or demographics that are important for designing a targeted prevention program. Therefore, current EMS call volumes may not be as relevant or informative for developing an effective injury prevention strategy.
23.
The leading cause of death in the united states is
Correct Answer
C. Heart disease
Explanation
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States because it encompasses a variety of conditions that affect the heart, such as coronary artery disease, heart attacks, and heart failure. These conditions can be caused by factors like high blood pressure, high cholesterol, smoking, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. Heart disease is a major public health concern and accounts for a significant number of deaths each year. It is important to raise awareness about prevention measures and early detection to reduce the impact of heart disease on individuals and society.
24.
All of the following are economic incentives used to help prevent injury,EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. Increasing taxes to install guardrails
Explanation
Increasing taxes to install guardrails is not an economic incentive used to help prevent injury. Economic incentives typically involve offering rewards or benefits to encourage certain behaviors. In this case, increasing taxes would be a form of punishment or deterrent rather than an incentive. The other options listed, such as decreased insurance rates, offering free bike helmets, and lawsuit threats, all provide incentives or rewards to promote safety and prevent injury.
25.
Airbags installed in an automobiles are more likely to reduce injuries than educating people to wear their seatbelts because.
Correct Answer
C. Airbags do not require conscious effort on a persons part
Explanation
Airbags do not require conscious effort on a person's part, unlike wearing seatbelts which rely on individuals actively remembering and choosing to buckle up. This means that even if someone forgets or neglects to wear their seatbelt, they can still benefit from the protection provided by airbags in the event of a crash. This makes airbags more likely to reduce injuries compared to relying solely on educating people to wear their seatbelts.
26.
Proximate cause is MOST likely defined as
Correct Answer
A. A link between the paramedics improper action and the patients injury
Explanation
Proximate cause is most likely defined as a link between the paramedic's improper action and the patient's injury. This means that there is a direct connection or relationship between the action taken by the paramedic and the harm or injury suffered by the patient. It suggests that the paramedic's improper action was a significant factor in causing the patient's injury.
27.
In a medical liability suit involving a paramedic, the plantiff
Correct Answer
C. Usually seeks compensation for the jury he or she sustained
Explanation
In a medical liability suit involving a paramedic, the plaintiff usually seeks compensation for the injury he or she sustained. This is because in a medical liability suit, the plaintiff is typically the injured party who is seeking financial compensation for the harm they suffered as a result of the paramedic's actions or negligence. The plaintiff's main goal is to convince a jury of 6 or 12 individuals to agree with their position and award them the compensation they are seeking.
28.
You respond to a skilled nursing facility for a patient who is not breathing. When you arrive, you assess the patient, A 78 y/o male, and confirm apnea. However, the patient has a rapid carotid pulse. The charge nurse advises you that, according to the patients family, the patient is not to be resuscitated. You should
Correct Answer
D. Maintain the patients airway, begin artificial ventilations, and transport the patient to the closet appropriate medical facility.
Explanation
The correct answer is to maintain the patient's airway, begin artificial ventilations, and transport the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility. Despite the patient having a valid DNR order, the charge nurse has not presented the order, so it cannot be assumed that resuscitation is prohibited. It is important to provide initial life-saving measures, such as maintaining the airway and providing ventilations, until further clarification is obtained. Transporting the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility ensures that the patient receives the necessary care and evaluation by healthcare professionals.
29.
Generally, the paramedic is not at liberty to disregard a physicians order unless
Correct Answer
D. Carrying out the order will cause harm to the patient
Explanation
The paramedic is not at liberty to disregard a physician's order unless carrying out the order will cause harm to the patient. This means that even if the physician is not the paramedic's medical director or a licensed emergency physician, the paramedic still has to follow their orders unless it will negatively impact the patient's well-being. The safety and well-being of the patient are the top priorities for the paramedic, and they must make decisions based on what is best for the patient's health.
30.
A patient who rolls up his or her sleeve so that you can take his or her blood pressure has given you ______ consent.
Correct Answer
D. Expressed
Explanation
When a patient rolls up their sleeve to allow their blood pressure to be taken, they are actively participating and demonstrating their willingness for the procedure. This action can be interpreted as expressed consent, as they are explicitly showing their agreement and giving permission for the healthcare provider to proceed with the blood pressure measurement. Implied consent would be if the patient did not object or resist the procedure, but did not actively indicate their agreement. Informed consent would involve the patient being provided with detailed information about the procedure and potential risks before giving their consent. Rational consent refers to the patient making an informed decision based on their understanding of the situation and their best interests.
31.
Ethics is MOST accurately defined as
Correct Answer
A. The pHilosopHy of right and wrong, or moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
Explanation
Ethics is the study of what is morally right and wrong, as well as the principles and values that guide ideal professional behavior. It goes beyond simply following the law or meeting societal expectations. Ethics involves considering moral duties and making decisions based on principles that promote fairness, honesty, and integrity. It is a philosophical inquiry into the nature of morality and how it applies to various aspects of life, including professional conduct.
32.
A do not resuscitate (DNR) order is MOST accurately defined as a:
Correct Answer
A. Written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.
Explanation
A do not resuscitate (DNR) order is a written order that provides instructions to healthcare providers regarding whether or not resuscitation efforts should be performed on a patient. It is a directive that informs healthcare providers about the patient's wishes regarding resuscitation in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. This order is designed to ensure that the patient's preferences are respected and followed by healthcare providers.
33.
Resuscitation efforts would most likely NOT be initiated on a patient with;
Correct Answer
A. Blunt trauma arrest
Explanation
Resuscitation efforts would most likely NOT be initiated on a patient with blunt trauma arrest because in this case, the patient's cardiac arrest is a result of severe trauma to the body, such as a car accident or a fall. The primary focus would be on addressing the underlying trauma and stabilizing the patient's condition before attempting resuscitation. In some cases, resuscitation efforts may be futile due to the extent of the trauma and the poor prognosis.
34.
The first rule of medical practice is to
Correct Answer
A. Do no harm
Explanation
The first rule of medical practice is to "do no harm" because it emphasizes the importance of prioritizing the well-being and safety of patients. This principle guides healthcare professionals to avoid actions or interventions that may cause harm or worsen the patient's condition. It highlights the ethical responsibility of healthcare providers to prioritize patient safety and ensure that their actions and decisions are in the best interest of the patient's health and well-being.
35.
A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is
Correct Answer
D. Also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution
Explanation
A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is commonly known as normal saline and is considered an isotonic solution. This means that it has the same concentration of dissolved particles as the body's cells and fluids, making it compatible with the body's tissues. Normal saline is often used in medical settings for various purposes, such as rehydrating patients, flushing wounds, or administering medications. It is not hypnotic, does not carry oxygen, and has value in expanding the vascular space.
36.
The most important point to remember about IV therapy is to
Correct Answer
C. Keep the IV equipment sterile
Explanation
The most important point to remember about IV therapy is to keep the IV equipment sterile. This is crucial to prevent infections and complications that can arise from contaminated equipment. Sterility ensures that no harmful bacteria or microorganisms are introduced into the patient's bloodstream, reducing the risk of infection. By maintaining a sterile environment, healthcare professionals can provide safe and effective IV therapy to patients.
37.
Which of the following questions does the paramedic generally NOT ask himself or herself when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use on a patient?
Correct Answer
C. Has the patient had IV therapy before?
Explanation
The paramedic generally does not ask himself or herself if the patient has had IV therapy before when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use on a patient. This is because the patient's previous experience with IV therapy does not affect the decision-making process for choosing the appropriate IV solution. The paramedic needs to consider the patient's condition, whether the patient will need medications, and if the patient will need fluid replacement in order to determine the most appropriate IV solution.
38.
A microdrip administration set
Correct Answer
B. Delivers 1 mililiter for every 60 drops.
Explanation
The correct answer is "delivers 1 milliliter for every 60 drops." This means that for every 60 drops that fall from the microdrip administration set, 1 milliliter of fluid is delivered. This information is important for healthcare professionals who need to accurately measure and administer fluids to patients.
39.
When preparing an IV administration set, you should perform all of the following EXCEPT.
Correct Answer
D. Cleanse the piercing spike before inserting it into the IV bag
Explanation
When preparing an IV administration set, it is important to perform all of the mentioned steps except for cleansing the piercing spike before inserting it into the IV bag. Cleansing the piercing spike is not necessary as it is already sterile and does not need to be cleaned. The other steps mentioned are important for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the IV administration set. Inverting the bag if the drip chamber contains too much fluid helps to remove any excess air. Running IV fluid through the administration set helps to flush out any air bubbles. Filling the drip chamber halfway with IV fluid ensures that there is enough fluid for proper flow.
40.
When selecting a vein for cannulation, you should avoid areas of the vein that;
Correct Answer
B. Pass over joints
Explanation
When selecting a vein for cannulation, it is important to avoid areas of the vein that pass over joints. This is because the movement of the joint can cause the vein to be compressed or occluded, making it difficult to insert the cannula and potentially causing discomfort or complications for the patient. Therefore, it is best to choose a vein that does not pass over a joint to ensure successful cannulation and minimize the risk of complications.
41.
When initiating an IV line in the upper extremity of a stable patient, you should
Correct Answer
D. Start distally and work proximally
Explanation
When initiating an IV line in the upper extremity of a stable patient, it is recommended to start distally and work proximally. This means that the healthcare provider should begin by looking for suitable veins in the hand or wrist area and then gradually move towards the upper arm if necessary. Starting distally allows for easier access to veins and reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or nerve injury. Additionally, it allows for better control and visualization of the needle insertion site.
42.
Through which of the following over-the-needle catheters can you infuse the greatest amount of fluid over the shortest period of time
Correct Answer
B. 14 gauge, 1 1/4
Explanation
The 14 gauge, 1 1/4 over-the-needle catheter can infuse the greatest amount of fluid over the shortest period of time. This is because the gauge size refers to the diameter of the catheter, and a larger gauge size allows for a greater flow rate of fluid. Additionally, the length of the catheter does not affect the flow rate, so the 1 1/4 length is sufficient for the desired infusion.
43.
If an adult patient is in hypovolemic shock, you should attempt to insert a/an ___gauge over-the-needle catheter into the____ vein.
Correct Answer
A. 14, antecubital vein
Explanation
In hypovolemic shock, the patient has lost a significant amount of blood or fluids, resulting in decreased blood volume. To help restore the blood volume, a larger gauge catheter is needed to ensure rapid fluid administration. The antecubital vein, located in the bend of the elbow, is a commonly used site for venous access in adults. It is a large and easily accessible vein, making it suitable for inserting a 14-gauge over-the-needle catheter. This allows for efficient fluid resuscitation to stabilize the patient's condition.
44.
Regardless of the technique you use to start an IV, you should always
Correct Answer
D. Keep the beveled side of the catheter up during insertion and maintain adequate traction on the vein during cannulation
Explanation
When starting an IV, it is important to keep the beveled side of the catheter up during insertion. This allows for easier entry into the vein and reduces the risk of damaging the vein or causing discomfort to the patient. Additionally, maintaining adequate traction on the vein during cannulation helps to stabilize the vein and prevent it from rolling or moving during the procedure. This ensures a successful insertion and reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or extravasation.
45.
After observing a flash of blood in the IV catheter's flash chamber, you should
Correct Answer
D. Immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15 degrees and advance the catheter a few more centimeters
46.
After attaching the prepared IV line to the hub of the IV catheter and removing the constricting band, you should
Correct Answer
B. Open the IV line and observe for swelling or infiltration
Explanation
After attaching the prepared IV line to the hub of the IV catheter and removing the constricting band, opening the IV line and observing for swelling or infiltration is the correct next step. This is important to ensure that the IV fluid is flowing properly and there are no complications such as swelling or infiltration of the medication into the surrounding tissues. By observing for these signs, any issues can be identified and addressed promptly to prevent further complications.
47.
When changing an IV bag, it is important to;
Correct Answer
A. Ensure that fluid remains in the drip chamber
Explanation
When changing an IV bag, it is important to ensure that fluid remains in the drip chamber because the drip chamber acts as a visual indicator of the flow rate of the fluid. If the drip chamber becomes empty, it may indicate that the flow rate is too fast or that the fluid is not flowing properly. By ensuring that fluid remains in the drip chamber, healthcare professionals can monitor the flow rate and ensure that the patient is receiving the correct amount of fluid.
48.
If you discover that an IV is not flowing sufficiently, you should
Correct Answer
A. Check the height of the IV bag
Explanation
To ensure that an IV is flowing sufficiently, it is important to check the height of the IV bag. The height of the IV bag affects the rate of flow, as gravity plays a role in the infusion process. If the bag is too low, the flow may be too slow, while if it is too high, the flow may be too fast. By checking the height of the IV bag, healthcare professionals can adjust it accordingly to ensure the proper flow rate for the patient.
49.
Edema at the IV catheter site and continued IV flow after occlusion of the vein above the insertion site are signs of
Correct Answer
C. Infiltration
Explanation
Infiltration refers to the leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissue instead of flowing into the vein. Edema at the IV catheter site and continued IV flow after occlusion of the vein above the insertion site are both signs of infiltration. This occurs when the IV catheter punctures the vein wall or is dislodged, allowing the fluid to escape into the tissue. Infiltration can cause pain, swelling, and coolness at the site, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage.
50.
If an adult patient does NOT require fluid replacement, a/an ___or___ gauge over-the-needle catheter is usually an appropriate size to use.
Correct Answer
C. 18,20
Explanation
If an adult patient does not require fluid replacement, a 18 or 20 gauge over-the-needle catheter is usually an appropriate size to use. This means that the diameter of the catheter should be either 18 or 20 gauge. These sizes are commonly used for adult patients who do not need fluid replacement.