Pathologic Consequences Of Infection

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| By Aliciaperkins
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Aliciaperkins
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 11 | Total Attempts: 28,420
Questions: 16 | Attempts: 67

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Pathologic Consequences Of Infection - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Streptococcus mutans is a bacteria that acts through what mechanism to destroy teeth?

    • A.

      Damage to erythrocytes inducing apoptosis

    • B.

      Increased acid production

    • C.

      Damage to macrophages causing cytokine storm

    • D.

      Mechanical disruption causing inflammation

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased acid production
    Explanation
    Streptococcus mutans is a bacteria that destroys teeth through increased acid production. This acid production leads to the demineralization of tooth enamel, which is the outer protective layer of the tooth. Over time, the acid breaks down the enamel, resulting in tooth decay and cavities.

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  • 2. 

    Toxins that may damage or destroy cells are known as

    Correct Answer
    hemolysins
    hemolysin
    Explanation
    Hemolysins are toxins that have the ability to damage or destroy cells. They can target various types of cells, including red blood cells. These toxins work by disrupting the cell membrane, leading to the release of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. The term "hemolysin" refers to a single toxin, while "hemolysins" is the plural form, indicating multiple toxins with similar properties.

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  • 3. 

    Which subunit of the toxin molecule is usually the binding component?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      A2

    • D.

      C

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. In toxin molecules, the subunit that usually acts as the binding component is B. This subunit is responsible for attaching the toxin to specific receptors on the surface of target cells. Once bound, the toxin can enter the cell and exert its toxic effects. Subunit B often has a high affinity for certain molecules or receptors, allowing the toxin to selectively target specific cell types.

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  • 4. 

    Diarrhea is one of the major causes of death in children worldwide, mainly due to ____________.

    • A.

      C.diff

    • B.

      Campylobacter

    • C.

      Salmonella

    • D.

      Rotavirus

    Correct Answer
    D. Rotavirus
    Explanation
    Rotavirus is the correct answer because it is a highly contagious virus that commonly affects infants and young children, causing severe diarrhea. It is responsible for a significant number of deaths in children worldwide, particularly in developing countries with limited access to healthcare and sanitation facilities. Rotavirus infection can lead to dehydration, malnutrition, and other complications, making it a major cause of death in children globally.

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  • 5. 

    Food poisoning refers to cases where toxins are already present in the food. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Food poisoning refers to cases where toxins are already present in the food. This means that when someone gets food poisoning, it is because they have consumed food that contains harmful toxins. These toxins can cause various symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Therefore, the statement "Food poisoning refers to cases where toxins are already present in the food" is true.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements correctly describes endotoxins (LPS)

    • A.

      Characteristic of gram-postive bacteria

    • B.

      Released only when the cell dies

    • C.

      Has a highly variable K antigen

    • D.

      Released only when the cell is still alive

    Correct Answer
    B. Released only when the cell dies
    Explanation
    Endotoxins, also known as lipopolysaccharides (LPS), are a component of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. They are released only when the cell dies. Endotoxins can cause a variety of harmful effects on the host, including inflammation, fever, and organ damage. The release of endotoxins during cell death contributes to the immune response and can lead to sepsis if not properly controlled.

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  • 7. 

    _____________ is the portion of LPS responsible for serologic diversity.

    • A.

      Lipid A

    • B.

      Core polysaccharide

    • C.

      O Antigen

    • D.

      Toll-like receptor

    Correct Answer
    C. O Antigen
    Explanation
    The O antigen is the portion of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) responsible for serologic diversity. LPS is a component of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria and consists of three parts: lipid A, core polysaccharide, and O antigen. The O antigen is a variable region that can vary between different strains of bacteria, allowing for serologic diversity and the ability to distinguish between different bacterial types.

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  • 8. 

    Fevers are associated with the action of what two cytokines on the hypothalamus?

    • A.

      IL-6 and TGF

    • B.

      IL-1 and TNF

    • C.

      INF alpha and INF beta

    • D.

      INF gamma and TNF

    Correct Answer
    B. IL-1 and TNF
    Explanation
    IL-1 and TNF are two cytokines that are associated with fevers and their action on the hypothalamus. These cytokines are released by immune cells in response to infection or inflammation. IL-1 and TNF act on the hypothalamus, which is the part of the brain responsible for regulating body temperature, causing it to increase. This increase in body temperature is known as a fever and is a protective response of the body to fight off infections.

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  • 9. 

    __________ is the cytokine most closely linked to septic shock.

    • A.

      INF gamma

    • B.

      IL-1

    • C.

      TNF

    • D.

      IL-12

    Correct Answer
    C. TNF
    Explanation
    TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor) is the cytokine most closely linked to septic shock. TNF is released by immune cells in response to infection, and it plays a crucial role in the inflammatory response. In septic shock, there is an excessive release of TNF, leading to systemic inflammation, organ dysfunction, and potentially life-threatening complications. TNF is known to induce vasodilation, increase vascular permeability, and promote the production of other pro-inflammatory cytokines, contributing to the pathophysiology of septic shock.

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  • 10. 

    A patient with meningitis, who is in septic shock, would likely have TNF located in their ________.

    • A.

      Blood

    • B.

      CSF

    • C.

      Sputum

    • D.

      Urine

    Correct Answer
    B. CSF
    Explanation
    In patients with meningitis and septic shock, TNF (tumor necrosis factor) is likely to be located in their cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Meningitis is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and septic shock is a severe infection that can lead to organ failure. TNF is a cytokine that is released in response to infection and inflammation, and it plays a role in the body's immune response. Therefore, it is expected to be present in the CSF of a patient with meningitis and septic shock.

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  • 11. 

    Toxins that act as superantigens are polyclonal activators for  ___________ B and/or T cells. 

    • A.

      Specific

    • B.

      Nonspecific

    Correct Answer
    B. Nonspecific
    Explanation
    Toxins that act as superantigens are nonspecific polyclonal activators for B and/or T cells. This means that they can activate a large number of B and/or T cells without being specific to a particular antigen. These toxins stimulate a strong and exaggerated immune response by bypassing the normal antigen recognition process. As a result, they can lead to excessive inflammation and tissue damage.

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  • 12. 

    Complement  plays an important role in acute inflammatory response by generating chemo-tactic factors such as ___________.

    • A.

      C3a and C5a

    • B.

      C3b

    • C.

      C3d

    • D.

      C3b and C5a

    Correct Answer
    A. C3a and C5a
    Explanation
    Complement plays an important role in the acute inflammatory response by generating chemo-tactic factors. These chemo-tactic factors attract immune cells to the site of inflammation. C3a and C5a are both chemo-tactic factors generated by complement. Therefore, the correct answer is C3a and C5a.

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  • 13. 

    Uncontrolled thrombin generation leading to diffuse bleeding best describes the pathology of 

    • A.

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)

    • B.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

    • C.

      Upshaw Schulman syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
    Explanation
    Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by the uncontrolled activation of the clotting cascade, resulting in widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body's blood vessels. This excessive clotting consumes the body's clotting factors and platelets, leading to a depletion of these components and causing diffuse bleeding. TTP, on the other hand, is caused by a deficiency of a specific enzyme that leads to platelet aggregation and clot formation in small blood vessels, while Upshaw Schulman syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of a protein that regulates blood clotting.

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  • 14. 

    The characteristic skin rash associated with measles is absent in children with T-cell deficiency, such as 

    • A.

      X-linked Agammaglobulinemia

    • B.

      SCID

    • C.

      DiGeorge syndrome

    Correct Answer
    C. DiGeorge syndrome
    Explanation
    Children with DiGeorge syndrome have a deficiency in T-cells, which are crucial for immune function. The characteristic skin rash associated with measles is a result of the immune response to the virus. Since children with DiGeorge syndrome have compromised immune systems due to T-cell deficiency, they are unable to mount a proper immune response and therefore do not develop the characteristic skin rash seen in measles.

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  • 15. 

    ______ and ______  are high risk genotypes of HPV.

    • A.

      6 and 11

    • B.

      6 and 16

    • C.

      16 and 18

    • D.

      11 and 18

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 and 18
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause various health issues, including cervical cancer. Among the given options, genotypes 16 and 18 are considered high risk for HPV infection. These two strains are known to be responsible for the majority of cervical cancer cases worldwide. Therefore, individuals infected with HPV genotypes 16 and 18 have a higher risk of developing cervical cancer compared to those infected with other HPV strains.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Aliciaperkins
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