Patient care And Ethical Principles ( Legal And Ethical Principles)

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| By Dnelson6
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Dnelson6
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Patient care And Ethical Principles ( Legal And Ethical Principles) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    TECHNOLOGISTS ARE _______ RESPONSIBLE FOR VERIFYING PATIENTS PRIOR TO PERFORMING ANY EXAMS.

    Explanation
    Technologists are legally responsible for verifying patients prior to performing any exams. This means that they have a legal obligation to ensure the identity and medical history of patients before conducting any medical procedures or examinations. This responsibility helps to ensure patient safety and prevent any potential harm or errors during the examination process. By verifying patients' information, technologists can accurately assess their medical needs and provide appropriate care.

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  • 2. 

    TECHNOLOGISTS SHOULD ALWAS

    • A.

      COMPARE EXAM ORDERS WITH PATIENTS CLINICAL INDICATIONS

    • B.

      ASK THE PATIENTS FAMILY FOR EXAM ADVICE

    • C.

      TELL THE FAMILY ABOUT THE PRICE OF THE MRI

    • D.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    A. COMPARE EXAM ORDERS WITH PATIENTS CLINICAL INDICATIONS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "COMPARE EXAM ORDERS WITH PATIENTS CLINICAL INDICATIONS". This is because it is important for technologists to review the clinical indications provided by the referring physician or healthcare provider before performing any diagnostic imaging exams. The clinical indications provide important information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and the specific reason for ordering the exam. By comparing the exam orders with the patient's clinical indications, technologists can ensure that the correct exam is being performed and that it is appropriate for the patient's condition. This helps to avoid unnecessary exams and ensures that the imaging study will provide valuable diagnostic information.

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  • 3. 

    NEGLIGENCE IS DEFINED AS..........

    • A.

      A FAILURE TO EXERCISE A DEGREE OF CARE THAT IS EXPECTED TO PROTECT OTHERS.

    • B.

      FAILURE OF A PROFESSIONAL PERSON.

    • C.

      DAMAGE OR INJURY CAUSED BY NEGLIGENCE.

    • D.

      A CIVIL SUIT.

    Correct Answer
    A. A FAILURE TO EXERCISE A DEGREE OF CARE THAT IS EXPECTED TO PROTECT OTHERS.
    Explanation
    Negligence is defined as a failure to exercise a degree of care that is expected to protect others. This means that when someone fails to take reasonable precautions or act in a responsible manner, and as a result, causes harm or damage to others, it can be considered negligence. This definition highlights the importance of individuals being cautious and considerate in their actions to prevent harm to others.

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  • 4. 

    MALPRACTICE IS DEFINED AS.......

    • A.

      LAWS CREATED AND PASSED BY LEGISLATIVE BODIES.

    • B.

      FAILURE OF A PROFFESIONAL PERSON SUCH AS A TECHNOLOGIST OR PHYSICIAN TO RENDER PROPER SERVICES THROUGH NEGLIGENCE, ESPECIALLY IF INJURY OR HARM RESULTS.

    • C.

      DAMAGE OR INJURY CAUSED BY NEGLIGENCE.

    Correct Answer
    B. FAILURE OF A PROFFESIONAL PERSON SUCH AS A TECHNOLOGIST OR pHYSICIAN TO RENDER PROPER SERVICES THROUGH NEGLIGENCE, ESPECIALLY IF INJURY OR HARM RESULTS.
    Explanation
    Malpractice is defined as the failure of a professional person, such as a technologist or physician, to render proper services through negligence, especially if injury or harm results. This definition highlights the concept of professional negligence and the potential consequences that can occur when a professional fails to meet the expected standard of care in their field. It emphasizes the importance of providing proper services and the potential harm that can be caused when this duty is not fulfilled.

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  • 5. 

    TORT IS DEFINED AS.......

    • A.

      DAMAGE OR INJURY CAUSED BY NEGLIGENCE.

    • B.

      INTENTIONALLY OR UNINTENTIONALLY FOR A CIVIL SUIT CAN BE BROUGHT.

    • C.

      LAWS CREATED AND PASSED BY LEGISLATIVE BODIES.

    • D.

      BOTH A AND B

    Correct Answer
    D. BOTH A AND B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "BOTH A AND B". This is because a tort can be defined as damage or injury caused by negligence, where a civil suit can be brought either intentionally or unintentionally. Additionally, torts can also be based on laws created and passed by legislative bodies. Therefore, both options A and B accurately describe the definition of a tort.

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  • 6. 

    STATUTORY LAW IS DEFINED AS.....

    • A.

      LAWS CREATED AND PASSED BY LEGISLATIVE BODIES.

    • B.

      LAWS PERTAINING TO PRIVATE LEGAL RIGHTS AND MATTERS.

    • C.

      LAWS THAT DEAL WITH CRIMES AND THEIR PUNISHMENT.

    • D.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    A. LAWS CREATED AND PASSED BY LEGISLATIVE BODIES.
    Explanation
    Statutory law refers to laws that are created and passed by legislative bodies. These laws are formally enacted and codified, and they are applicable to the general public. Statutory laws are distinct from other types of laws, such as common law or case law, which are based on judicial decisions. This answer accurately describes the definition of statutory law, as it encompasses all laws created by legislative bodies, regardless of whether they pertain to private legal rights, criminal matters, or any other subject.

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  • 7. 

    CIVIL LAW IS DEFINED AS......

    • A.

      LAWS THAT DEAL WITH CRIMES AND THEIR PUNISHMEN.T

    • B.

      LAWS PERTAINING TO PRIVATE LEGAL RIGHTS AND MATTERS.

    • C.

      A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND/OR UP TO ONE YEAR IN JAIL.

    Correct Answer
    B. LAWS PERTAINING TO PRIVATE LEGAL RIGHTS AND MATTERS.
  • 8. 

    CRIMINAL LAW IS DEFINED AS..........

    • A.

      LAWS PERTAINING TO PRIVATE LEGAL RIGHTS AND MATTERS

    • B.

      LAWS THAT DEAL WITH CRIMES AND THEIR PUNISHMENT.

    Correct Answer
    B. LAWS THAT DEAL WITH CRIMES AND THEIR PUNISHMENT.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "LAWS THAT DEAL WITH CRIMES AND THEIR PUNISHMENT." This answer accurately defines criminal law as the body of laws that governs crimes and their consequences. It encompasses the rules and regulations that determine what constitutes a crime, the procedures for investigation and prosecution, and the penalties or punishments for individuals found guilty of committing crimes. Criminal law is distinct from civil law, which focuses on disputes between individuals or entities regarding private legal rights and matters.

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  • 9. 

    MISDEMEANOR IS DEFINED AS.......

    • A.

      A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND/OR UP TO ONE YEAR IN JAIL

    • B.

      A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND PRISON TIME THAT CAN EXCEED ONE YEAR

    Correct Answer
    A. A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND/OR UP TO ONE YEAR IN JAIL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND/OR UP TO ONE YEAR IN JAIL". This definition accurately describes a misdemeanor, which is a less serious crime compared to a felony. Misdemeanors typically result in penalties such as fines and/or a maximum jail sentence of one year.

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  • 10. 

    FELONY IS DEFINED AS.......

    • A.

      A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND/OR UP TO ONE YEAR IN JAIL.

    • B.

      A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND PRISON TIME THAT CAN EXCEED ONE YEAR.

    Correct Answer
    B. A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND PRISON TIME THAT CAN EXCEED ONE YEAR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A CRIME THAT IS PUNISHABLE BY A FINE AND PRISON TIME THAT CAN EXCEED ONE YEAR." This answer accurately defines a felony as a crime that can result in both a fine and imprisonment for a period longer than one year. This distinguishes it from a misdemeanor, which typically carries a lesser punishment.

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  • 11. 

    RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR IS DEFINED AS......

    • A.

      A DOCTRINE OR RULE OF EVIDENCE IN TORT LAW.

    • B.

      A TORT DOCTRINE THAT STATES THAT EMPLOYERS ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE ACTIONS OF THEIR EMPLOYEES.

    • C.

      LAWS CREATED AND PASSED BY LEGISLATIVE BODIES.

    • D.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    B. A TORT DOCTRINE THAT STATES THAT EMPLOYERS ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE ACTIONS OF THEIR EMPLOYEES.
    Explanation
    Respondent superior is a tort doctrine that states that employers are responsible for the actions of their employees. This means that if an employee commits a tort (a wrongful act) while acting within the scope of their employment, the employer can be held liable for the employee's actions. This doctrine is based on the principle that employers have control and authority over their employees and should therefore be responsible for any harm caused by their actions. This doctrine helps ensure that victims of torts have a means of seeking compensation from the employer, who often has more resources to pay damages.

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  • 12. 

    RES IPSA LOQUITUR IS DEFINED AS...........

    • A.

      THE THING SPEAKS FOR ITSELF.

    • B.

      DOCTRINE OR RULE OF EVIDENCE IN TORT LAW.

    • C.

      PERMITS THAT A DEFENDANT WAS NEGLIGENT IN AN ACCIDENT ON THE BASIS OF CIRUMSTANIAL EVIDENCE.

    • D.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL OF THE ABOVE" because Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine or rule of evidence in tort law that allows a defendant to be considered negligent in an accident based on circumstantial evidence. It is also defined as "the thing speaks for itself," indicating that the circumstances surrounding an accident are so obvious that negligence can be inferred without further evidence. Therefore, all the given options accurately describe Res Ipsa Loquitur.

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  • 13. 

    IN THE MRI SETTING, WRITTEN INFORMED CONSENT SHOULD BE OBTAINED BEFORE......

    • A.

      GIVING AN MRI

    • B.

      I.V. CONTRAST

    • C.

      BEFORE IMAGING A PREGNANT PERSON

    • D.

      BOTH B AND C

    Correct Answer
    D. BOTH B AND C
    Explanation
    In the MRI setting, obtaining written informed consent is necessary before both giving an MRI with IV contrast and imaging a pregnant person. This is because both situations involve potential risks and considerations that need to be communicated to the patient. Giving an MRI with IV contrast may have side effects or allergic reactions, which the patient should be informed about before consenting. Similarly, imaging a pregnant person carries potential risks to the fetus, and it is important to inform the patient about these risks and obtain their consent before proceeding.

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  • 14. 

    INFORMED CONSENT INCLUDES MAKING SURE THE PATIENT UNDERSTANDS THE _____ _____ ______.

    Correct Answer
    RELEVANT RISKS INVOLVED
    Explanation
    Informed consent is a process in which a patient is provided with all the necessary information regarding a medical procedure or treatment, including its potential risks and benefits. It is important to ensure that the patient fully understands the relevant risks involved in order to make an informed decision about their healthcare. By including this information, healthcare providers can ensure that patients are aware of the potential consequences and can give their consent based on a comprehensive understanding of the situation.

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  • 15. 

    HIPPA STANDS FOR.......

    • A.

      THE HEALTH INSURANCE POTABILITY AND ACOUNTING ACT

    • B.

      THE HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABLILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT

    • C.

      THE HOPE INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCIDENT AREA

    • D.

      THE HEART INACT PORTABLILITY AND AREA ACCIDENT

    Correct Answer
    B. THE HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABLILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "THE HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT". HIPAA is a federal law in the United States that was enacted in 1996. It aims to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information by setting standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information. It also establishes rules and regulations for healthcare providers, health plans, and other entities that handle health information to ensure compliance with the law.

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  • 16. 

    FOLLOWING THE HIPPA GUIDELINES, YOU MAY GIVE A PATIENT'S MEDICAL INFORMATION TO ANOTHER EMPLOYEE....

    • A.

      IF IT IS IN PLAIN SIGHT ON THE MR CONSOLE AND THE EMPLOYEE HAS ALREADY READ IT.

    • B.

      ONLY IF IT IS NEEDED TO DO THEIR JOB.

    • C.

      TO JOKE ABOUT THE PATIENTS EXCESSIVE WEIGHT.

    • D.

      IF THE EMPLOYEE IS ELATED TO THE PATIENT.

    Correct Answer
    B. ONLY IF IT IS NEEDED TO DO THEIR JOB.
    Explanation
    According to HIPAA guidelines, a patient's medical information can only be shared with another employee if it is necessary for them to perform their job duties. This means that the employee should have a legitimate reason to access the information and should not share it for any other purposes, such as joking about the patient's weight or if they are simply excited about the patient. The key principle is that the information should be used responsibly and solely for the purpose of providing appropriate care or support to the patient.

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  • 17. 

    THE PATIENTS HAS THE RIGHT TO.....

    • A.

      CONSIDERATE AND RESPECTFUL CARE.

    • B.

      THE RIGHT TO OBTAIN FROM HIS PHYSICIAN COMPLETE CURRENT INFO REGARDING HIS DIAGNOSIS, TREATMENT, AND PROGNOSIS.

    • C.

      THE RIGHT TO HAVE ALL EXAMS DONE DISCREETLY.

    • D.

      ALL RECORDS OF HIS CARE TO BE TREATED AS CONFIDENTIAL

    • E.

      THE RIGHT TO BE INFORMED IF THE TREATMENT CENTER PROPOSES TO ENGAGE IN OR PERFORM HUMAN EXPERIMENTATION.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. CONSIDERATE AND RESPECTFUL CARE.
    B. THE RIGHT TO OBTAIN FROM HIS pHYSICIAN COMPLETE CURRENT INFO REGARDING HIS DIAGNOSIS, TREATMENT, AND PROGNOSIS.
    C. THE RIGHT TO HAVE ALL EXAMS DONE DISCREETLY.
    D. ALL RECORDS OF HIS CARE TO BE TREATED AS CONFIDENTIAL
    E. THE RIGHT TO BE INFORMED IF THE TREATMENT CENTER PROPOSES TO ENGAGE IN OR PERFORM HUMAN EXPERIMENTATION.
    Explanation
    The answer includes a comprehensive list of the rights that a patient has. These rights include receiving considerate and respectful care, obtaining complete and current information about their diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis from their physician, having all exams done discreetly, ensuring that all records of their care are treated as confidential, and being informed if the treatment center proposes to engage in or perform human experimentation. These rights are essential for ensuring that patients receive appropriate and ethical care, and that their autonomy and dignity are respected throughout the healthcare process.

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  • 18. 

    THE CODE OF ETHICS WAS CREATED TO.....

    • A.

      PROMOTE SAFETY

    • B.

      COMFORT

    • C.

      AND CARE FOR ALL PATIENTS

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PROMOTE SAFETY
    B. COMFORT
    C. AND CARE FOR ALL PATIENTS
    Explanation
    The code of ethics was created to promote safety, comfort, and care for all patients. This means that healthcare professionals are expected to prioritize the well-being and welfare of their patients, ensuring that they receive the necessary care and treatment in a safe and comfortable environment. The code of ethics serves as a guideline for healthcare professionals to uphold ethical standards and provide the highest quality of care to patients, emphasizing their safety, comfort, and overall well-being.

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  • 19. 

    SOME VIOLATIONS THAT A TECHNOLOGIST MAY BE SUBJECT TO INCLUDE......

    • A.

      COMMITING FRAUD

    • B.

      COMMITING A FELONY OR ANY MISDEMEANOR

    • C.

      CREATING ANY UNNECESSARY DANGER TO A PATIENT'S HEALTH, LIFE, OR SAFETY.

    • D.

      ENGAGING IN ANY UNETHICAL CONDUCT IN AN ATTEMPT TO DEFRAUD, DECEIVE, OR HARM THE PUBLIC.

    • E.

      ENGAGING IN CONDUCT WITH A PATIENT THAT IS SEXUAL OR MAY REASONABLLY BE INTERPRETED BY THE PATIENT AS SEXUAL.

    • F.

      KNOWINGLY PROVIDING FALSE OR MISLEADING INFORMATION THAT IS DIRECTLY RELATED TO THE CARE OF A FORMER OR CURRENT PATIENT.

    • G.

      PRACTICING OUTSIDE THE SCOPE OF PRACTICE.

    • H.

      MAKING A FALSE STATEMENT OR KNOWINGLY PROVIDING FALSE INFORMATION TO ARRT.

    • I.

      FAILING TO REPORT TO THE ARRT IN WRITING ANY VIOLATION OR PROBABLE VIOLATION OF ANOTHER REGISTERED TECHNOLOGIST

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. COMMITING FRAUD
    B. COMMITING A FELONY OR ANY MISDEMEANOR
    C. CREATING ANY UNNECESSARY DANGER TO A PATIENT'S HEALTH, LIFE, OR SAFETY.
    D. ENGAGING IN ANY UNETHICAL CONDUCT IN AN ATTEMPT TO DEFRAUD, DECEIVE, OR HARM THE PUBLIC.
    E. ENGAGING IN CONDUCT WITH A PATIENT THAT IS SEXUAL OR MAY REASONABLLY BE INTERPRETED BY THE PATIENT AS SEXUAL.
    F. KNOWINGLY PROVIDING FALSE OR MISLEADING INFORMATION THAT IS DIRECTLY RELATED TO THE CARE OF A FORMER OR CURRENT PATIENT.
    G. PRACTICING OUTSIDE THE SCOPE OF PRACTICE.
    H. MAKING A FALSE STATEMENT OR KNOWINGLY PROVIDING FALSE INFORMATION TO ARRT.
    I. FAILING TO REPORT TO THE ARRT IN WRITING ANY VIOLATION OR PROBABLE VIOLATION OF ANOTHER REGISTERED TECHNOLOGIST
    Explanation
    The given answer includes a list of violations that a technologist may be subject to. These violations range from committing fraud and engaging in unethical conduct to practicing outside the scope of practice and failing to report violations of another registered technologist. These actions are considered violations because they involve actions that are illegal, unethical, or pose a risk to patient safety. Violating any of these standards can result in disciplinary action and potential loss of licensure or certification.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Dnelson6
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