Pedigrees Sem 1 Genetics
- 1.
II3 in the pedigree below has two brothers with hemophilia A, a bleeding disorder that is inherited as an X‑linked recessive trait. What is the risk of hemophilia for her children?
- A.
1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- B.
1 in 2 both for sons and daughters
- C.
1 in 2 for a son and 1 in 4 for a daughter
- D.
1 in 2 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- E.
1 in 4 both for sons and daughters
Correct Answer
A. 1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughterExplanation
The risk of hemophilia for II3's children is 1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughter. This is because hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive trait, meaning it is carried on the X chromosome. Since II3 is a carrier of the hemophilia gene, she has a 50% chance of passing it on to her children. If she has a son, he has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene and having hemophilia. However, if she has a daughter, she would need to pass on the gene to both of her X chromosomes, which is highly unlikely. Therefore, the risk for a daughter to have hemophilia is close to zero.Rate this question:
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- 2.
II-3 in the below family has two brothers and three sons with classical hemophilia (factor vIII deficiency). Now she is pregnant again. How likely is it that this child will also have hemophilia?
- A.
100% for a son and 50% for a daughter
- B.
100% for a son, zero for a daughter
- C.
50% for a son, zero for a daughter
- D.
50% for both sons and daughters
- E.
25% for a son and zero for a daughter
Correct Answer
C. 50% for a son, zero for a daughterExplanation
Based on the information given, II-3 is a carrier of the hemophilia gene since she has two brothers and three sons with hemophilia. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning it is carried on the X chromosome. Since II-3 is a carrier, there is a 50% chance that she will pass on the hemophilia gene to her son (who would then have hemophilia), and a 0% chance that she will pass it on to her daughter (who would be a carrier like her). Therefore, the likelihood of the child having hemophilia depends on their gender, with a 50% chance for a son and zero chance for a daughter.Rate this question:
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- 3.
II-3 in the below family has two brothers with hemophilia and three healthy sons. How likely is it that she is a carrier of the hemophilia gene?
- A.
1 in 4
- B.
1 in 2
- C.
1 in 16
- D.
1 in 3
- E.
1 in 9 (Bayes’ Formula)
Correct Answer
E. 1 in 9 (Bayes’ Formula)Explanation
The likelihood of II-3 being a carrier of the hemophilia gene is 1 in 9, according to Bayes' Formula. This formula takes into account the information provided in the question, which states that II-3 has two brothers with hemophilia and three healthy sons. By considering this information, along with the prevalence of the hemophilia gene in the general population, the probability of II-3 being a carrier can be calculated as 1 in 9.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In the below family, a child has been born with acheiropodia (congenital absence of hands and feet). Assuming that this is a genetic problem, what is the MOST LIKELY inheritance pattern and how LIKELY is it that a next child of III3 and III4 will be affected?
- A.
X linked recessive; 1 in 2 for a son and 1 in 4 for a daughter
- B.
Autosomal recessive; 1 in 2
- C.
Autosomal dominant; 1 in 2
- D.
Autosomal recessive; 1 in 4
- E.
Mitochondrial; 1 in 2
Correct Answer
D. Autosomal recessive; 1 in 4Explanation
The correct answer is Autosomal recessive; 1 in 4. This means that the condition is caused by a recessive gene on an autosome (non-sex chromosome). Both parents must be carriers of the gene in order for their child to be affected. In this case, III3 and III4 are both carriers, so there is a 1 in 4 chance that their next child will be affected by the condition.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the likely mode of inheritance for the pedigree shown below?
- A.
Autosomal recessive
- B.
Autosomal dominant
- C.
X linked recessive
- D.
X linked dominant
- E.
Y linked
Correct Answer
B. Autosomal dominantExplanation
The likely mode of inheritance for the pedigree shown below is autosomal dominant. This can be inferred because the trait is present in every generation, affecting both males and females. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the trait onto their offspring.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Given that the onset of the disease (shown in the pedigree above Ques. #5) is by 40 years of age and given that all of the individuals shown are at least 45 years old except III‑2 who is only 30 years old, what is the probability that the fetus (IV-1) will be affected?
- A.
75%
- B.
50%
- C.
25%
- D.
100%
- E.
Virtually zero
Correct Answer
C. 25%Explanation
Based on the information provided, the onset of the disease is by 40 years of age. All individuals shown in the pedigree are at least 45 years old except for III-2 who is 30 years old. This suggests that III-2 has not yet reached the age of onset for the disease. Therefore, III-2 is not affected by the disease. The fetus (IV-1) has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease-causing allele from III-2, who is a carrier. Since III-2 is not affected, the probability of the fetus being affected is 50% multiplied by the probability of being a carrier (50%), resulting in a 25% probability.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The pedigree below is best explained by which of the following inheritance patterns?
- A.
Autosomal recessive
- B.
Autosomal dominant
- C.
X linked recessive
- D.
X linked dominant
- E.
Y linked
Correct Answer
A. Autosomal recessiveExplanation
The pedigree below is best explained by the autosomal recessive inheritance pattern because the trait is present in both males and females, skipping generations, and both parents of an affected individual are unaffected carriers. This pattern indicates that the trait is caused by a recessive allele on an autosome, and individuals need to inherit two copies of the allele (one from each parent) to express the trait.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The pedigree below is BEST explained by which of the following inheritance patterns?
- A.
Autosomal recessive
- B.
Autosomal dominant
- C.
X linked recessive
- D.
X linked dominant
- E.
Y linked
Correct Answer
B. Autosomal dominantExplanation
The given pedigree is best explained by autosomal dominant inheritance pattern because the trait is present in every generation, affecting both males and females. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that an individual only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from either parent to express the trait. This is supported by the presence of affected individuals in every generation, as well as the lack of skipping generations. The trait does not follow an X-linked or Y-linked pattern, as it affects both males and females equally.Rate this question:
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- 9.
[QUESTION NOS. 9 – 11] In the family below, two brothers have classical hemophilia. Now I-4 asks you about the risk that her children will have hemophilia. You can tell her that the risk is
- A.
Close to zero for both sons and daughters
- B.
1 in 2 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- C.
1 in 4 for both sons and daughters
- D.
1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- E.
1 in 8 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
Correct Answer
D. 1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughterExplanation
The correct answer is 1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughter. This is because hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning that the gene for hemophilia is located on the X chromosome. Since males have one X and one Y chromosome, if the mother is a carrier of the hemophilia gene (heterozygous), there is a 50% chance that she will pass on the affected X chromosome to her son, resulting in a 1 in 2 chance that he will have hemophilia. However, daughters have two X chromosomes, so even if the mother is a carrier, the daughter would need to inherit the affected X chromosome from both parents in order to have hemophilia, making the risk close to zero.Rate this question:
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- 10.
[REFER TO QUES. NO. 9] It turns out that after two healthy sons, the third son of I-4 in the family above has hemophilia. After this sad event, what is the chance that a next child will be affected?
- A.
1 in 4 for both sons and daughters
- B.
1 in 4 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- C.
1 in 2 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- D.
1 in 8 for a son, close to zero for a daughter
- E.
1 in 2 for both sons and daughters
Correct Answer
C. 1 in 2 for a son, close to zero for a daughterExplanation
The given answer states that after having two healthy sons, the chance of the next child being affected with hemophilia is 1 in 2 for a son and close to zero for a daughter. This is because hemophilia is a sex-linked genetic disorder that is carried on the X chromosome. Since males have one X chromosome and females have two, the chances of a son inheriting the disorder are 50%, while the chances of a daughter inheriting it are much lower.Rate this question:
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- 11.
[REFER TO QUES. NO. 9] Now assume that I-4 (above) has two healthy sons. In that case you can use Bayes' theorem to figure out that her chance of being a carrier is
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
50%
- D.
12.5%
- E.
33%
Correct Answer
B. 20% -
- 12.
Albinism is a harmless autosomal recessive trait. If we assume that 2% of the general population are carriers of the albinism gene, how likely is it that the child of an albino with a healthy unrelated partner is an albino?
- A.
1 in 4
- B.
1 in 200
- C.
1 in 50
- D.
1 in 100
- E.
1 in 25
Correct Answer
D. 1 in 100Explanation
If 2% of the general population are carriers of the albinism gene, then the probability of the albino parent passing on the gene to their child is 2%. Since albinism is an autosomal recessive trait, the child can only be albino if they receive the albinism gene from both parents. Therefore, the probability of the child being albino is 2% multiplied by 2%, which is 0.04% or 1 in 100.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Now assume that the unaffected sister of an albino asks you how likely it is that her child with a healthy unrelated man will be an albino. Her parents are both unaffected. Assume again a carrier frequency of 2% in the general population.
- A.
1 in 800
- B.
1 in 75
- C.
1 in 300
- D.
1 in 50
- E.
1 in 150
Correct Answer
C. 1 in 300Explanation
The answer of 1 in 300 suggests that there is a 1 in 300 chance that the child of the unaffected sister and the healthy man will be an albino. This is based on the assumption that the carrier frequency of the albino gene in the general population is 2%. Since both of the unaffected sister's parents are also unaffected, it is less likely for her to carry the albino gene. Therefore, the likelihood of her child being an albino is lower compared to other possibilities given in the options.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The pedigree below represents a family with cystic fibrosis (autosomal recessive). What is the risk that individual II‑2 will have an affected child if the prevalence of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 2500 individuals?
- A.
1/50
- B.
1/100
- C.
1/200
- D.
1/300
- E.
1/400
Correct Answer
C. 1/200Explanation
Individual II-2 is a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene, as both of her parents are affected by the disease. Since cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, in order for II-2 to have an affected child, she would need to have a child with a partner who is either affected or a carrier. The probability of her partner being affected is 1 in 2500 (prevalence of cystic fibrosis), and the probability of her partner being a carrier is also 1 in 2500. Therefore, the combined probability of II-2 having a child with cystic fibrosis is 1 in 5000, which simplifies to 1/200.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A woman (I‑1) is deaf from an autosomal recessive disease. She marries a hearing man and has four children, two of the four children are deaf at an early age. Genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes from all family members and subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the offspring in generation II?
- A.
II 1 will be a carrier and II 3 will be normal
- B.
II 1 will be normal and II 3 will be a carrier
- C.
Both II 1 and II 3 will be carriers
- D.
Both II 1 and II 3 will be normal
- E.
II 1 will be affected and II 3 will be normal
Correct Answer
C. Both II 1 and II 3 will be carriersExplanation
The Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe revealed that both II 1 and II 3 are carriers of the autosomal recessive disease gene. This means that they have one copy of the disease gene but do not exhibit any symptoms. The fact that II 1 and II 3 are carriers suggests that they inherited the disease gene from their mother, who is deaf due to the autosomal recessive disease. It is possible that they inherited the normal gene from their father, who is hearing. Therefore, both II 1 and II 3 will be carriers of the disease gene.Rate this question:
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- 16.
- A 4‑year‑old boy was brought to the emergency room by his mother after falling down three steps. The boy had skinned his knee and forearm on the cement and showed unusual and extensive bruising. To determine the genotype of the family members, genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes and subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. The boy is indicated by the arrow. Which of the following statements is TRUE about his siblings in generation III?
- A.
III 1 will be a carrier and III 2 will be normal
- B.
Both III 1 and III 2 will be affected
- C.
Both III 1 and III 2 will be normal
- D.
III 1 will be affected and III 2 will be a carrier
- E.
Both III 1 and III 2 will be carriers
Correct Answer
A. III 1 will be a carrier and III 2 will be normalExplanation
Based on the information provided, the boy in generation III (indicated by the arrow) has unusual and extensive bruising, which suggests a genetic disorder. The Southern blot analysis using a DNA probe closely linked to the disease gene can determine the genotype of family members. Since the boy is affected, it can be inferred that he has inherited the disease gene from one of his parents. Therefore, his siblings in generation III will have a 50% chance of being carriers of the disease gene, and a 50% chance of being normal. Therefore, III 1 will be a carrier and III 2 will be normal.Rate this question:
- 17.
Genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes from the indicated family members subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. The clinical manifestations of the autosomal dominant form of Martan's syndrome have been identified in this family as indicated by the filled symbols. Given that the population frequency of Marfan's syndrome is 1 in 10,000, which of the following statements is TRUE about the siblings in generation III?
- A.
III I will not be affected and III 3 will be affected
- B.
Both III I and III 3 will be affected
- C.
III 1 and III 3 will NOT be affected
- D.
III 1 will be affected and III 3 will not be affected
- E.
It can not be determined whether III 1 and III 3 will be affected based on the data presented
Correct Answer
D. III 1 will be affected and III 3 will not be affectedExplanation
Based on the information provided, the correct answer is III 1 will be affected and III 3 will not be affected. This can be inferred from the Southern blot analysis using a DNA probe closely linked to the disease gene, which showed that III 1 has the disease gene and III 3 does not have the disease gene. Therefore, III 1 will be affected by the autosomal dominant form of Martan's syndrome, while III 3 will not be affected.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The figure below shows the pedigree of a family with Huntington disease. Which of the following statements best describes the linkage analysis for the person indicated by the arrow (III‑2)?
- A.
This is an x linked recessive disease, the mutant allele was received from the mother (II 2), and she will be a carrier
- B.
This is an x linked recessive disease, the mutant allele was received from the father (II 1), and she will she a carrier
- C.
This is an autosomal dominant disease, the mutant allele was received from the mother (II 2), and she will be affected
- D.
This is an autosomal dominant disease, the mutant allele was received from the father (II 1), and she will be affected
- E.
This is an autosomal dominant disease, the mutant allele was not inherited from either the mother or father, and she will not be affected
Correct Answer
E. This is an autosomal dominant disease, the mutant allele was not inherited from either the mother or father, and she will not be affectedExplanation
Based on the pedigree, the person indicated by the arrow (III-2) does not have any affected parents (II-1 and II-2). Since Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant disease, it means that if one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of passing on the mutant allele to their offspring. However, in this case, neither the mother nor the father of III-2 is affected, indicating that the mutant allele was not inherited from either parent. Therefore, III-2 will not be affected by the disease.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Your father has a dominantly‑inherited form of retinitis pigmentosa, an eye disease that leads to blindness in middle‑aged people. Now you are 25 years old, and you took a vision test to check whether you are developing this disease. In two thirds of all people your age who carry the gene, the vision test is abnormal while in one third it is still normal. Your test was normal. How LIKELY is it that you carry the gene?
- A.
1 in 2
- B.
2 in 3
- C.
1 in 16
- D.
1 in 4
- E.
1 in 6
Correct Answer
D. 1 in 4Explanation
Given that two thirds of people your age who carry the gene have an abnormal vision test, and one third have a normal test, and your test was normal, it is likely that you do not carry the gene. However, since the question asks for the likelihood that you carry the gene, the answer would be the inverse of the likelihood that you do not carry the gene. Therefore, the likelihood that you carry the gene is 1 in 4.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Your patient's father died of Huntington's disease. Now the patient is 45 years old and asks you whether he can still get the disease. Two thirds of all patients who carry the Huntington's gene already show signs of the disease by age 45, but your patient is still healthy. Based on this information, how likely is it that he will get the disease?
- A.
1 in 2
- B.
1 in 3
- C.
1 in 9
- D.
1 in 4
- E.
1 in 6
Correct Answer
D. 1 in 4Explanation
Based on the information provided, two-thirds of all patients who carry the Huntington's gene show signs of the disease by age 45. Since the patient is 45 years old and still healthy, it indicates that he is in the one-third of patients who do not show signs of the disease by this age. Therefore, the likelihood of him getting the disease is 1 in 4.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A normal male mates with a female who is homozygous for an x‑linked recessive disorder. Of the offspring that they may have, it is probable that
- A.
No sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriers
- B.
All sons will be affected, and all daughters will be affected
- C.
All sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriers
- D.
No sons will be affected, and all daughters will be affected
- E.
All sons will be affected, and 1/2 the daughters will be carriers
Correct Answer
C. All sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriersExplanation
If a normal male mates with a female who is homozygous for an x-linked recessive disorder, the male offspring will inherit one X chromosome from the mother and one Y chromosome from the father. Since the disorder is recessive and located on the X chromosome, the male offspring will be affected because they do not have another X chromosome to mask the disorder. On the other hand, the female offspring will inherit one X chromosome from the mother and one X chromosome from the father. They will be carriers of the disorder because they have one normal X chromosome to mask the effects of the disorder. Therefore, all sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriers.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the probability of having an affected child if one parent is affected with an autosomal recessive disease and the other parent is unaffected?
- A.
1/4
- B.
1/4 X 1/4 X 1/4
- C.
Probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier X 1/2
- D.
Pretty close to 100% because new mutations are frequent
- E.
50% if the other parent is normal
Correct Answer
C. Probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier X 1/2Explanation
If one parent is affected with an autosomal recessive disease and the other parent is unaffected, the unaffected parent can still be a carrier of the disease. The probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier is represented by the term "Probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier". Since it is an autosomal recessive disease, both parents need to be carriers in order for the child to have a chance of being affected. Therefore, the probability of having an affected child is the probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier multiplied by 1/2, as stated in the answer.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Parents of a child with an autosomal recessive disease are
- A.
Likely to have mutations in different genes, locus heterogeneity
- B.
Likely to have more affected sons than daughters
- C.
Obligatory carriers
- D.
Most likely homozygous normal and the disease was caused by a new mutation
- E.
Not at risk of having another child with the disease
Correct Answer
C. Obligatory carriersExplanation
Parents of a child with an autosomal recessive disease are likely to be obligatory carriers. This means that both parents are carriers of a single copy of the mutated gene responsible for the disease, but they do not show any symptoms themselves. When both parents are carriers, there is a 25% chance with each pregnancy that their child will inherit two copies of the mutated gene and develop the disease. Therefore, the parents are obligated to carry the gene and pass it on to their children.Rate this question:
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- 24.
If one parent has an autosomal dominant disorder and is a heterozygote, what are the chances that they will have an affected offspring?
- A.
1/4 X 1/4 X 1/4
- B.
Pretty close to 100% because new mutations are frequent
- C.
1/4
- D.
50% if the other parent is normal
- E.
Probability of the unaffected parent being a carrier X 1/4
Correct Answer
D. 50% if the other parent is normalExplanation
If one parent has an autosomal dominant disorder and is a heterozygote, there is a 50% chance that they will pass on the affected allele to their offspring. This is because autosomal dominant disorders only require one copy of the affected allele to be present for the disorder to be expressed. Therefore, if the other parent is normal and does not carry the affected allele, there is a 50% chance that the offspring will inherit the affected allele and be affected by the disorder.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the probability that an offspring of an affected person and an unaffected person with an autosomal dominant disorder will be affected?
- A.
1/3
- B.
1/4
- C.
2/3
- D.
1/2
- E.
Virtually 0
Correct Answer
D. 1/2Explanation
The probability that an offspring of an affected person and an unaffected person with an autosomal dominant disorder will be affected is 1/2. This is because in an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to inherit the disorder. The affected person has one copy of the mutated gene, while the unaffected person does not have any copies. Therefore, when they have an offspring, there is a 50% chance that the offspring will inherit the mutated gene and be affected by the disorder.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What proportion of all offspring are affected females if the father is affected with an X‑linked recessive disease and the mother is a carrier of the same disease?
- A.
25%
- B.
100%
- C.
75%
- D.
50%
- E.
Virtually zero
Correct Answer
A. 25%Explanation
If the father is affected with an X-linked recessive disease and the mother is a carrier, there is a 25% chance that their offspring will be affected females. This is because the father can only pass on his affected X chromosome to his daughters, while the mother can pass on either her normal X chromosome or the affected X chromosome to her children. Therefore, there is a 50% chance that a daughter will inherit the affected X chromosome from the father, and since it is a recessive disease, she will be affected. So, 50% of the daughters will be affected, resulting in a 25% proportion of all offspring being affected females.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If an affected male mates with a normal female and has four offspring: one normal male, one affected male, and two affected female, the disease is MOST LIKELY inherited as
- A.
X linked dominant
- B.
X linked recessive
- C.
Autosomal dominant
- D.
Autosomal recessive
- E.
Y linked
Correct Answer
C. Autosomal dominantExplanation
In this scenario, the disease is most likely inherited as autosomal dominant because both males and females are affected, and the affected male can pass on the disease to both male and female offspring. X-linked dominant inheritance would only occur if the affected male passes the disease to all of his daughters but none of his sons, which is not the case here. X-linked recessive inheritance would result in only males being affected, and Y-linked inheritance would only affect males and be passed exclusively from father to son, which is also not the case here.Rate this question:
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- 28.
If your mother was known to be a carrier of alpha‑antitrypsin deficiency, an autosomal recessive disorder, what is the probability that your child is also a carrier of this disease gene?
- A.
1/4
- B.
100%
- C.
2/3
- D.
1/2
- E.
Virtually 0
Correct Answer
A. 1/4Explanation
If your mother is a carrier of alpha-antitrypsin deficiency, an autosomal recessive disorder, it means that she has one normal copy of the gene and one mutated copy. In order for your child to be a carrier, they would need to inherit the mutated copy from both you and your partner. Since you are not known to be a carrier, the probability of you passing on the mutated copy is 1/2. Therefore, the probability that your child is also a carrier is 1/2 multiplied by 1/2, which equals 1/4.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A normal male mates with a female who is carrier for an x‑linked recessive disorder. Of the offspring that they may have, it is probable that
- A.
All sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriers
- B.
No sons will be affected, and all daughters will be affected
- C.
1/2 the sons will be affected, and all daughters will be carriers
- D.
All sons will be affected, and all daughters will be affected
- E.
1/2 the sons will be affected, and 1/2 the daughters will be carriers
Correct Answer
E. 1/2 the sons will be affected, and 1/2 the daughters will be carriersExplanation
When a normal male mates with a female who is a carrier for an X-linked recessive disorder, there is a 50% chance that a son will inherit the disorder. This is because the son has a 50% chance of receiving the affected X chromosome from the carrier mother. Similarly, there is also a 50% chance that a daughter will be a carrier for the disorder. This is because the daughter has a 50% chance of receiving the affected X chromosome from the carrier mother. Therefore, 1/2 the sons will be affected, and 1/2 the daughters will be carriers.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the probability of having an affected child if one parent is affected with an autosomal recessive disease and the other parent is a carrier?
- A.
1/2
- B.
2/3
- C.
Pretty close to 100% because new mutations are frequent
- D.
1/4
- E.
Virtually zero
Correct Answer
A. 1/2Explanation
When one parent is affected with an autosomal recessive disease and the other parent is a carrier, there is a 50% chance that their child will inherit the affected gene from the affected parent. This is because the affected parent must have two copies of the affected gene, one of which they will pass on to their child. The carrier parent has one copy of the affected gene, which they can also pass on. Therefore, there is a 1 in 2 chance that the child will inherit the affected gene from either parent, resulting in a probability of 1/2 for having an affected child.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If an affected male mates with a phenotypically normal female and has both an affected male and an affected female offspring, the disease is MOST LIKELY inherited as
- A.
Autosomal dominant
- B.
X linked recessive
- C.
X linked dominant
- D.
Y linked
- E.
Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer
A. Autosomal dominantExplanation
If an affected male mates with a phenotypically normal female and has both an affected male and an affected female offspring, the disease is most likely inherited as autosomal dominant. This is because autosomal dominant inheritance requires only one copy of the mutated gene to be present for the disease to be expressed. Since both the affected male and the affected female offspring have the disease, it suggests that the mutated gene is present in one of the autosomal chromosomes, which can be inherited from either parent.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In the following pedigree, you see a family with two people affected by an X-linked recessive disease characteristized by immunodysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy. What is the best estimate of the risk that the unborn child III-2 will also have this disease?
- A.
1/2
- B.
2/3
- C.
1/8
- D.
1/3
- E.
1/4
Correct Answer
E. 1/4Explanation
Based on the given information that the disease is X-linked recessive, the best estimate of the risk that the unborn child III-2 will have this disease is 1/4. This is because the mother (II-2) is a carrier of the disease, indicated by her being unaffected but having an affected son (III-1). The father (II-1) is unaffected, therefore he does not carry the disease-causing gene. The chance of the unborn child (III-2) inheriting the disease-causing gene from the mother is 1/2, and the chance of the child being male is also 1/2. Therefore, the overall risk is 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In the following pedigree, which is the MOST LIKELY inheritance pattern of the disease?
- A.
X-linked dominant inheritance
- B.
Autosomal dominant inheritance
- C.
X-linked recessive inheritance
- D.
Autosomal recessive inheritance
- E.
Multifactorial inheritance
Correct Answer
D. Autosomal recessive inheritanceExplanation
The most likely inheritance pattern of the disease in the given pedigree is autosomal recessive inheritance. This is because the disease appears to be present in multiple generations, which suggests that it is not X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive, as these patterns would typically skip generations. Additionally, the disease does not appear to affect every individual in each generation, which rules out autosomal dominant inheritance. Lastly, there is no evidence to suggest that the disease is multifactorial, which is typically influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(USE DIAGRAM FROM 33.) No matter which answer you gave to the question above, now assume that the disease is the recessive disease "ataxic cerebral palsy" with a population incidence of 1/10000 (carrier frequency of 2 %). If person II-4 marries an unrelated man, what is her risk of having a baby with ataxic cerebral palsy?
- A.
1 in 400
- B.
1 in 4
- C.
1 in 300
- D.
1 in 150
- E.
1 in 200
Correct Answer
C. 1 in 300Explanation
Based on the information given, person II-4 is a carrier of the recessive disease "ataxic cerebral palsy" with a carrier frequency of 2%. This means that there is a 2% chance that person II-4 will pass on the disease-causing gene to her baby. The population incidence of the disease is 1/10000, which means that there is a 1/10000 chance that any individual in the population will have ataxic cerebral palsy. To calculate the risk of person II-4 having a baby with ataxic cerebral palsy, we multiply the carrier frequency (2%) by the population incidence (1/10000) and simplify the fraction to get 1 in 500. However, since person II-4 is marrying an unrelated man, the risk is halved, resulting in a final risk of 1 in 300.Rate this question:
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- 35.
No matter which answers you gave for Q's 33 and 34, now assume that this pedigree is for nephrolithiasis, X-linked recessive, with renal failure. Person II-4 marries an unrelated man; what is her risk of having an affected baby?
- A.
1 in 6
- B.
1 in 2
- C.
1 in 16
- D.
1 in 8
- E.
1 in 4
Correct Answer
E. 1 in 4Explanation
Person II-4 is a carrier for the X-linked recessive nephrolithiasis gene. Since she is a carrier, there is a 50% chance that she will pass the affected gene to her child. Therefore, her risk of having an affected baby is 1 in 2, or 50%.Rate this question:
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.JPG "II-3 in the below family has two brothers and three sons with classical hemophilia (factor vIII deficiency). Now she is pregnant again. How likely is it that this child will also have hemophilia?")
.JPG "II-3 in the below family has two brothers with hemophilia and three healthy sons. How likely is it that she is a carrier of the hemophilia gene?")
.JPG "In the below family, a child has been born with acheiropodia (congenital absence of hands and feet). Assuming that this is a genetic problem, what is the MOST LIKELY inheritance pattern and how LIKELY is it that a next child of III3 and III4 will be affected?")
.JPG "What is the likely mode of inheritance for the pedigree shown below?")
.JPG "The pedigree below is best explained by which of the following inheritance patterns?")
.JPG "The pedigree below is BEST explained by which of the following inheritance patterns?")
.JPG "The pedigree below represents a family with cystic fibrosis (autosomal recessive). What is the risk that individual II‑2 will have an affected child if the prevalence of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 2500 individuals?")
.JPG "A woman (I‑1) is deaf from an autosomal recessive disease. She marries a hearing man and has four children, two of the four children are deaf at an early age. Genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes from all family members and subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the offspring in generation II?")
.JPG "A 4‑year‑old boy was brought to the emergency room by his mother after falling down three steps. The boy had skinned his knee and forearm on the cement and showed unusual and extensive bruising. To determine the genotype of the family members, genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes and subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. The boy is indicated by the arrow. Which of the following statements is TRUE about his siblings in generation III?")
.JPG "Genomic DNA was isolated from peripheral blood lymphocytes from the indicated family members subjected to Southern blot analysis using a radiolabeled DNA probe known to be closely linked to the disease gene. The clinical manifestations of the autosomal dominant form of Martan's syndrome have been identified in this family as
indicated by the filled symbols. Given that the population frequency of Marfan's
syndrome is 1 in 10,000, which of the following statements is TRUE about the siblings
in generation III?")
.JPG "The figure below shows the pedigree of a family with Huntington disease. Which of the following statements best describes the linkage analysis for the person indicated by the arrow (III‑2)?")
.JPG "In the following pedigree, you see a family with two people affected by an X-linked recessive disease characteristized by immunodysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy. What is the best estimate of the risk that the unborn child III-2 will also have this disease?")
.JPG "In the following pedigree, which is the MOST LIKELY inheritance pattern of the disease?")
.JPG "No matter which answers you gave for Q's 33 and 34, now assume that this pedigree is for nephrolithiasis, X-linked recessive, with renal failure. Person II-4 marries an unrelated man; what is her risk of having an affected baby?")
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 08, 2011Quiz Created by
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