Perception And Coordination

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| By Kenzoemir
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  • 1/20 Questions

    A patient has been recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. When teaching the family about the prognosis, the nurse must explain that:

    • It progresses gradually with deterioration of functions
    • Many individuals can be cured if diagnosis is made early
    • Diet and exercise can slow the process considerably
    • Few patients live for more than 3 years after diagnosis
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About This Quiz

The quiz below is on perception and coordination and it deeply evaluates the topic. Different people have different takes on the subject and the quiz will help you ascertain which side you fall on. All the best.

Perception And Coordination - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In teaching the family care of the Alzheimer's patient, the nurse emphasizes which of the following behaviors as a serious threat to safety:

    • Circumlocution

    • Perseveration

    • Emotional lability

    • Wandering around

    Correct Answer
    A. Wandering around
    Explanation
    The Alzheimer's patient tends to wander around and, unable to focus on cognitive problem solving abilities, usually get lost.

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  • 3. 

    The physician restricts IV fluids and orders diuretics for a neurologic client. The rationale for this is:

    • To increase cardiac output

    • To minimize incontinence

    • To reduce cerebral edema

    • To reduce threat of embolism

    Correct Answer
    A. To reduce cerebral edema
    Explanation
    The physician is attempting to decrease circulating volume and thereby decreases cerebral edema.

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  • 4. 

    The medication prescribed for Parkinson's disease acts as a precursor to restore dopamine deficiency. What medication should the nurse give?

    • Dilantin

    • Ibuprofen

    • Tegretol

    • Levodopa

    Correct Answer
    A. Levodopa
    Explanation
    Levodopa is a synthetic precursor of dopamine and replaces the dopamine deficiency in Parkinson's. Dopamine cannot be given because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier.

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  • 5. 

    The nurse asks a patient the time, his name, and date. She is assessing:

    • Level of consciousness

    • Cognitive ability

    • Intellectual ability

    • Past and present memory

    Correct Answer
    A. Level of consciousness
    Explanation
    the nurse is assessing orientation, a key component of the LOC assessment. If the patient responds positively to all three, then the nurse documents, oriented x 3.

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  • 6. 

    During a neurological assessment, the nurse asks the patient to repeat a series of numbers. she is assessing:

    • Communication

    • Memory

    • Attention span

    • Thought process

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory
    Explanation
    Short-term memory can be easily assessed by asking the patient to repeat numbers or words.

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  • 7. 

    The finding of unequal pupillary response in an unconscious person should alert the nurse to:

    • Poisoning

    • Shock

    • Head Injury

    • Overdose

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Injury
    Explanation
    Unequal pupils in this patient may indicate that the oculomotor nerve is being compressed by IICP.

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  • 8. 

    A young man is in the emergency room with a closed head injury following a car accident. Baseline VS are BP 120/80, P 78, R 20. Which nursing assessment data would indicate a deterioration in his condition?

    • VS of 110/80, 72, 20.

    • VS of 100/60, 70, 30.

    • VS of 130/90, 88, 30.

    • VS of 160/90, 64, 12.

    Correct Answer
    A. VS of 160/90, 64, 12.
    Explanation
    Signs of IICP is hyper-brady-brady, and widened pulse pressure.

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  • 9. 

    Other early symptoms of myasthenia gravis that the nurse assesses are:

    • Urinary and fecal incontinence

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Diplopia and ptosis

    • Abdominal cramping and diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Diplopia and ptosis
    Explanation
    Because of the involvement of the ocular muscles this patient often exhibits a "mask" or sleepy expression.

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  • 10. 

    When the elderly Alzheimer's client becomes agitated and disoriented, which medication is most likely to be prescribed?

    • Thorazine

    • Haldol

    • Melleril

    • Elavil

    Correct Answer
    A. Haldol
    Explanation
    This antipsychotic medication has proven to be the most effective in decreasing the restlessness and agitation of AD patients.

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  • 11. 

    When increasing intracranial pressure is suspected, the nurse should be alert for what other signs and symptoms?

    • Confusions and paranoia

    • Blindness and tinnitus

    • Headaches and delusions

    • Projectile vomiting and headache

    Correct Answer
    A. Projectile vomiting and headache
    Explanation
    As IICP increases, swelling tissues exert pressure on cerebral blood vessels, the dura mater and other structures in the brain and back of the eye.

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  • 12. 

    A score of five on the Glasgow Coma Scale is assessed. This assesment indicates that the patient is:

    • Alert and oriented

    • In shock

    • Responding appropriately

    • Not responsive

    Correct Answer
    A. Not responsive
    Explanation
    When assessing a patient according to GCS, 15 is the highest score in which the patient is still alert and oriented. the lower the score, the less responsive the patient.

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  • 13. 

    The nurse assesses a patient experiencing global aphasia. She realizes that this patient:

    • Cannot recognize people

    • Cannot write

    • Cannot express feelings

    • Cannot talk

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannot talk
    Explanation
    Global aphasia is injury to the brain centers that results in the disturbance of both verbal and perceptive language functioning.

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  • 14. 

    A 28-year-old woman complains of extreme muscle weakness and states, "I have to rest even after talking for a little while." The nurse assesses her for other symptoms of:

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Myasthenia gravis

    • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

    • Parkinson's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Myasthenia gravis
    Explanation
    MG, a disease that causes weakness in voluntary muscles, is most common in women, age 20-30.

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  • 15. 

    What cranial nerve is affected in Bell's palsy?

    • Fifth cranial nerve

    • Sixth cranial nerve

    • Seventh cranial nerve

    • Eighth cranial nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Seventh cranial nerve
    Explanation
    CN VII, the Facial nerve

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  • 16. 

    Decorticate posturing is the result of:

    • Loss of consciousness

    • Injury to the brain stem

    • Loss of motor functioning

    • Loss of sensorimotor function

    Correct Answer
    A. Injury to the brain stem
    Explanation
    decorticate posturing is the abnormal manifestation of impingement on the motor pathways of the brainstem.

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  • 17. 

    The nurse is aware that the ultimate danger in this disease is progressive weakness and, eventually, the onset of myasthenic crisis. The complication is:

    • Neurological emergency

    • Cardiac emergency

    • Orthopedic emergency

    • Respiratory emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory emergency
    Explanation
    Once the diaphragm and intercostal muscles are affected by the progressive weakness of this disease, a respiratory emergency will ensue.

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  • 18. 

    The nurse prepares to administer a mild sedative to the restless Alzheimers's patient. Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed?

    • Benadryl

    • Secobarbital

    • Pentobarbital

    • Haloperidol

    Correct Answer
    A. Benadryl
    Explanation
    Barbiturates should be avoided because they depresses the CNS function and can cause confusion, especially in the patient with dementia.

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  • 19. 

    The nurse assessesa normal reflex when testing the plantar, or Babinski's in adult. what does she see?

    • Toes flaring upward

    • No obvious response

    • Toes bending downward

    • Sudden dorsal flexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Toes bending downward
    Explanation
    If the toes flare, and foot turns upward, then the sign is positive and considered an abnormal finding in an adult.

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  • 20. 

    The patient with tic douloureaux should be carefully assessed for undernourishment and dehydration because:

    • Chewing is exceedingly painful

    • Nutrients are easily depleted

    • Swallowing is very difficult

    • Vomiting is a frequent problem

    Correct Answer
    A. Chewing is exceedingly painful
    Explanation
    Trigeminal neuralgia, a painful condition of cranial nerve V causes dysfunction in chewing.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kenzoemir
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