Pg Blazer - Online Test Series - Weekly Test 4
PG entrance practice test. For more online practice tests, go to PG Blazer Online Test Series
- 1.
Cell which does not migrate from the base of the crypt to ends of villi is
- A.
Enterocyte
- B.
Endocrine cell
- C.
Paneth cell
- D.
Goblet cell
Correct Answer
C. Paneth cellExplanation
The Paneth cell is the correct answer because it is the only cell among the options that does not migrate from the base of the crypt to the ends of the villi. Paneth cells are located at the base of the intestinal crypts and secrete antimicrobial substances to protect the intestinal stem cells. They stay in this location and do not migrate along the villi like enterocytes, endocrine cells, and goblet cells.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Common carotid artery divides at the level of
- A.
Hyoid bone
- B.
Cricoid cartilage
- C.
Superior border of thyroid cartilage
- D.
Inferior border of thyroid cartilage
Correct Answer
C. Superior border of thyroid cartilageExplanation
The common carotid artery divides at the level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage. The superior border of the thyroid cartilage is located at the level of the C3 vertebrae. This is an important anatomical landmark for surgeons and healthcare professionals when locating and accessing the carotid artery for procedures or assessments.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Renal angle lies between
- A.
12th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis
- B.
11th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis
- C.
12th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum
- D.
11th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum
Correct Answer
A. 12th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalisExplanation
The renal angle is the angle between the 12th rib and the lateral border of the sacrospinalis muscle.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to
- A.
Proximal convoluted tubule
- B.
Descending loop of Henle
- C.
Ascending loop of Henle
- D.
Glomerulus
Correct Answer
D. GlomerulusExplanation
The juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to the glomerulus.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Renin is secreted by
- A.
PCT
- B.
DCT
- C.
Collecting duct
- D.
Juxatglomerular apparatus
Correct Answer
D. Juxatglomerular apparatusExplanation
Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is primarily secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, which is located in the kidney. The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of specialized cells in the walls of the afferent arterioles that supply blood to the glomerulus. When there is a decrease in blood pressure or a decrease in sodium levels, the juxtaglomerular cells release renin into the bloodstream. Renin then acts on angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, leading to increased blood pressure and fluid retention. Therefore, the juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for the secretion of renin.Rate this question:
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- 6.
ln isometric exercise all are increased except :
- A.
Heart rate
- B.
Cardiac output
- C.
Mean arterial pressure
- D.
Systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer
D. Systemic vascular resistanceExplanation
In isometric exercise, all variables except systemic vascular resistance are increased. Isometric exercise refers to a type of exercise where the muscle length remains constant while the muscle contracts. During isometric exercise, the heart rate, cardiac output, and mean arterial pressure all increase due to increased demand for oxygen and nutrients by the muscles. However, systemic vascular resistance, which is the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation, does not increase during isometric exercise. This is because the blood vessels do not constrict or narrow during this type of exercise, leading to a relatively constant resistance.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The amino acid producing ammonia in kidney is
- A.
Glutamine
- B.
Alanine
- C.
Methionine
- D.
Glycine
Correct Answer
A. GlutamineExplanation
Glutamine is the correct answer because it is an amino acid that is known to produce ammonia in the kidney. The kidney plays a crucial role in eliminating waste products from the body, including ammonia. Glutamine is converted into ammonia in the kidney through a process called deamination. This ammonia is then excreted in the urine. Therefore, glutamine is involved in the production of ammonia in the kidney.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Hemoglobin electrophoresis is based on
- A.
Molecular weight
- B.
Charge
- C.
Solubility
- D.
Calorirnetric properties
Correct Answer
B. ChargeExplanation
Hemoglobin electrophoresis is a technique used to separate and identify different types of hemoglobin based on their charge. Hemoglobin molecules have different charges due to variations in their amino acid composition. When an electric current is applied, the hemoglobin molecules move towards the oppositely charged electrode at different rates, allowing for their separation and identification. Therefore, the correct answer is charge.Rate this question:
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- 9.
In amyloidosis Beta pleated sheet will be seen in
- A.
X-ray crystallography
- B.
Electron microscope
- C.
Spiral electron microscope
- D.
Congo red stain
Correct Answer
A. X-ray crystallograpHyExplanation
X-ray crystallography is a technique used to determine the three-dimensional structure of molecules. It involves shining X-rays onto a crystal of the molecule and analyzing the resulting diffraction pattern. In the case of amyloidosis, X-ray crystallography can be used to visualize the arrangement of beta pleated sheets, which are characteristic of amyloid fibrils. This technique allows for the detailed examination of the molecular structure and can provide valuable insights into the formation and progression of amyloidosis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Natural killer cells attacks which of the following cells
- A.
Cells which express MHC 1
- B.
Cells which are not able to express MHC 1
- C.
MHC cells which express MHC 2
- D.
Cells which are not able to express MHC 2
Correct Answer
B. Cells which are not able to express MHC 1Explanation
Natural killer cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system's defense against cancer and viral infections. They are able to recognize and attack cells that are not able to express MHC 1 molecules. MHC 1 molecules are proteins found on the surface of most cells in the body, and they play a key role in presenting antigens to the immune system. Cells that are not able to express MHC 1 molecules may be infected with a virus or have undergone a transformation, making them targets for natural killer cell-mediated destruction.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A young male patient presented with urethral discharge. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be the best for culture.
- A.
Mc coy cell line
- B.
Thayer martin medium
- C.
L J medium
- D.
Levinthal medium
Correct Answer
A. Mc coy cell lineExplanation
Common causes of urethral discharge in a young male are gonococcus and chlamydia. But in this case, no organisms were found in the pus cells. This indicates that the cause is probably not gonococcus. So in order to check for presence of chlamydia, we have to use cell culture methods such as Mc coy cells.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which one of the following is true
- A.
Agar has nutrient properties
- B.
Chocolate medium is selective medium
- C.
Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
- D.
Nutrient broth is basal medium
Correct Answer
D. Nutrient broth is basal mediumExplanation
Agar has no nutrient properties. Chocolate medium is an enriched media. Addition of selective substances in a liquid medium is called enrichment media.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Filgrastim is used in treatment of:
- A.
Anemia
- B.
Neutropenia
- C.
Malaria
- D.
Filariasis
Correct Answer
B. NeutropeniaExplanation
Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) analog used to stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of granulocytes.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Gynaecomastia is caused by
- A.
Clomiphene citrate
- B.
Tamoxifen
- C.
Spironolactone
- D.
Testosterone
Correct Answer
C. SpironolactoneExplanation
Some drugs causing gynaecomastia:
Reserpine
Cemetidine
Spironolactone
Ketoconazole
Digitalis
INH
Methyldopa
Phenytoin
FlutamideRate this question:
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- 15.
Impotence is most commonly caused by which antihypertensive agent
- A.
Calcium channel blocker
- B.
ACE inhibitors
- C.
AT1 receptor antagonist
- D.
Beta blockers
Correct Answer
D. Beta blockersExplanation
Beta blockers inhibit the vasodilatation in the erectile tissue and arteries of the penis.Rate this question:
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- 16.
All are endogenous catecholamines except :
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Dopamine
- D.
Dobutamine
Correct Answer
D. DobutamineExplanation
Dobutamine is a synthetic / exogenous catecholamine.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Bone marrow aplasia is seen with all except
- A.
Methicillin
- B.
Chloramphenicol
- C.
Alpha methyl hydantoin
- D.
Phenylbutazone
Correct Answer
A. MethicillinExplanation
Bone marrow aplasia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells. Methicillin is a type of antibiotic and it does not cause bone marrow aplasia. Therefore, bone marrow aplasia is not seen with methicillin.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by poisoning due to:
- A.
Hydrocyanic acid
- B.
Hydrogen sulphide
- C.
Oleander
- D.
Sodium nitrite
Correct Answer
B. Hydrogen sulpHideExplanation
The presence of bluish green cadaveric lividity suggests hydrogen sulphide poisoning as the most likely cause of death. Hydrogen sulphide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the decomposition of organic matter, such as a dead body. Inhalation of this gas can lead to poisoning, causing symptoms such as respiratory distress and cardiac arrest. The bluish green color of the cadaveric lividity is consistent with the effects of hydrogen sulphide on the body.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is an example of disability limitation
- A.
Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
- B.
Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis)
- C.
Resting affected limbs in neutral position
- D.
Providing calipers for walking
Correct Answer
C. Resting affected limbs in neutral positionExplanation
Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization - Specific protection
Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis) - Rehabilitation
Resting affected limbs in neutral position - Disability limitation
Providing calipers for walking - RehabilitationRate this question:
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- 20.
When the confidence level of a test is increased which of the following will happen
- A.
No effect on significance
- B.
Previously insignificant value becomes significant
- C.
Previously significant value becomes insignificant
- D.
No change in hypothesis
Correct Answer
B. Previously insignificant value becomes significantExplanation
When the confidence level of a test is increased, it means that the threshold for determining significance is raised. This means that it becomes harder for a value to be considered significant. Therefore, a previously insignificant value may become significant when the confidence level is increased. This is because the higher threshold requires stronger evidence for a value to be considered significant.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which IUCD acts for 10 yrs
- A.
Cu-T 200 B
- B.
Nova—T
- C.
Cu-T 380A
- D.
Multi load-250
Correct Answer
C. Cu-T 380AExplanation
Cu-T 380A is the correct answer because it is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) that can act for 10 years. The "Cu" in the name stands for copper, which is the active ingredient in the device that prevents pregnancy. The number "380" indicates the amount of copper in the device (380 mm2), which is higher compared to other IUCDs. This increased copper content allows Cu-T 380A to provide long-term contraception for up to 10 years.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not include:
- A.
Manual removal of placenta
- B.
Hysterectomy
- C.
Blood transfusion
- D.
Ceasarean section
Correct Answer
B. HysterectomyExplanation
Basic emergency obstetric services
Parenteral oxytocics
Antibiotics and anticonvulsants
Assisted deliveries
Manual extraction of the placenta
Removal of retained products
Comprehensive emergency obstetric services
basic services plus
Caesarean sections
Blood transfusions
Ref: WHO Bulletin (http://www.who.int/bulletin/volumes/87/1/07-047076/en/index.html)Rate this question:
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- 23.
A man takes peanut and develop stridor, neck swelling, tongue swelling and hoarseness of voice. Most probable diagnosis is
- A.
Foreign body bronchus
- B.
Parapharyngeal abscess
- C.
Foreign body larynx
- D.
Angioneurotic edema
Correct Answer
D. Angioneurotic edemaExplanation
Angioneurotic edema is the most probable diagnosis for a man who takes peanuts and develops symptoms such as stridor, neck swelling, tongue swelling, and hoarseness of voice. Angioneurotic edema is a condition characterized by sudden swelling of the skin, mucosa, and submucosal tissues. In this case, the symptoms are likely due to an allergic reaction to peanuts, causing swelling in the airway and vocal cords, leading to the symptoms mentioned. Foreign body bronchus, parapharyngeal abscess, and foreign body larynx are less likely diagnoses in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Best method to monitor intracranial pressure is
- A.
Lntraventricular catheter
- B.
Subarachnoid bolt
- C.
Intraparenchymal catheter
- D.
Epidural catheter
Correct Answer
A. Lntraventricular catheterExplanation
The best method to monitor intracranial pressure is through an intraventricular catheter. This type of catheter is inserted into the ventricles of the brain, allowing for direct measurement of the pressure inside the skull. This method is considered more accurate and reliable compared to other options such as subarachnoid bolt, intraparenchymal catheter, or epidural catheter.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Most common site of histiocytosis is
- A.
Bone
- B.
Skin
- C.
Lung
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
A. BoneExplanation
The most common site of histiocytosis is the bone. Histiocytosis is a group of rare disorders characterized by the abnormal accumulation of immune cells called histiocytes. In histiocytosis, these histiocytes can accumulate in various organs and tissues, but the bone is the most commonly affected site. This can lead to symptoms such as bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Other organs, such as the skin, lung, and liver, can also be involved in histiocytosis, but bone involvement is the most frequent.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Atkin‘s diet is
- A.
Protein restricted low calorie diet
- B.
Carbohydrate restricted low calorie diet
- C.
Fat restricted low calorie diet
- D.
Mineral restricted low calorie diet
Correct Answer
B. Carbohydrate restricted low calorie dietExplanation
Atkin's diet is a carbohydrate restricted low calorie diet. This means that the diet focuses on reducing the intake of carbohydrates, such as bread, pasta, and sugar, while also limiting overall calorie consumption. The goal of this diet is to promote weight loss by forcing the body to burn fat for energy instead of carbohydrates. By restricting carbohydrates, the body enters a state of ketosis, where it starts breaking down fat for fuel. This can lead to rapid weight loss, but it is important to note that this diet may not be suitable for everyone and should be done under the guidance of a healthcare professional.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A two year old male child was given 8 days of cefaclor of a 10 days course. The child develops low grade fever, malaise lymphadenopathy, irritability, generalized erythematous rash which are mildly pruritic. Most probable diagnosis is
- A.
Kawasaki disease
- B.
Partially treated meningitis
- C.
Infectious mononucleosis
- D.
Type 3 hypersensitivity
Correct Answer
D. Type 3 hypersensitivityExplanation
Kawasaki disease - the child does not have the classical features like non purulent conjunctivitis and cervical adenopathy
Infectious mononucleosis - Usually occurs in adolescents and adults. EBV infection is usually asymptomatic in children.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Half and half nail sign, seen in uremia is
- A.
Due to melanin deposition
- B.
Increased capillary density at the distal half of nails
- C.
Hypoproteinemia
- D.
Circulating toxin
Correct Answer
B. Increased capillary density at the distal half of nailsExplanation
The half and half nail sign, seen in uremia, is characterized by a distinct color change in the nails. The proximal half of the nail appears pale or white, while the distal half appears pink or red. This is due to increased capillary density at the distal half of the nails, leading to increased blood flow and a reddish color. It is not caused by melanin deposition, hypoproteinemia, or circulating toxins.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Earliest phenotypic manifestation of Idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis is :
- A.
Post prandial increase in serum iron concentration
- B.
Elevated serum ferritin level
- C.
Slate grey pigmentation of skin
- D.
Increased transferrin saturation
Correct Answer
D. Increased transferrin saturationExplanation
Increased transferrin saturation is the earliest phenotypic manifestation of idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis. This condition is characterized by the body's inability to regulate iron absorption, leading to excessive iron accumulation in various organs. Transferrin saturation refers to the percentage of iron-binding sites on transferrin that are occupied by iron. In individuals with hereditary hemochromatosis, transferrin saturation is typically elevated before other symptoms or laboratory abnormalities, such as elevated serum ferritin levels or slate grey pigmentation of the skin, become apparent.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A patient was brought to the hospital with a history of RTA eight hours back. A few drops of blood is noted at the external urethral meatus. He has not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. The probable diagnosis is
- A.
Urethral injury
- B.
Rupture bladder
- C.
Urethral injury with extravasation of urine in the retroperitoneum
- D.
Anuria due to hypovolemia
Correct Answer
A. Urethral injuryExplanation
The patient's history of a road traffic accident (RTA) and the presence of blood at the external urethral meatus suggests a possible urethral injury. The fact that the patient has not passed urine and has a palpable bladder indicates urinary retention, which is commonly seen in cases of urethral injury. The other options, such as rupture bladder and urethral injury with extravasation of urine in the retroperitoneum, may also cause similar symptoms, but the presence of blood at the urethral meatus makes urethral injury the most likely diagnosis. Anuria due to hypovolemia is less likely as it does not explain the presence of blood at the urethral meatus.Rate this question:
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- 31.
External hemorrhoids below the dentate line are -
- A.
Painful
- B.
Ligation is done as management
- C.
Skin tag is not seen in these cases
- D.
May turn malignant
Correct Answer
A. PainfulExplanation
External hemorrhoids below the dentate line are painful because they are located in an area where there are more pain receptors. Ligation is done as management to cut off the blood supply to the hemorrhoid and cause it to shrink. Skin tag is not seen in these cases because the hemorrhoid is located below the dentate line. These hemorrhoids may turn malignant, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancerous cells.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Following genetic counselling in a family for Familial polyposis coli (FPC) next screening test is
- A.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy
- B.
Colonoscopy
- C.
Occult blood in stools
- D.
APC gene
Correct Answer
D. APC geneExplanation
The correct answer is APC gene. Familial polyposis coli (FPC) is a genetic condition characterized by the development of multiple polyps in the colon. The APC (adenomatous polyposis coli) gene is associated with FPC and is responsible for regulating cell growth and division. Screening for FPC involves genetic testing to identify mutations in the APC gene. This can help determine the risk of developing FPC and guide further management and surveillance strategies for affected individuals and their family members.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Least risk of CA breast is seen in
- A.
BRCA1
- B.
BRCA2
- C.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
- D.
Ataxia telangiectasia
Correct Answer
D. Ataxia telangiectasiaExplanation
Ataxia telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that affects the immune system and causes progressive damage to various organs, including the breasts. This condition increases the risk of developing certain types of cancer, including breast cancer. Therefore, individuals with ataxia telangiectasia have a higher risk of developing breast cancer compared to the general population. Therefore, the least risk of CA breast is seen in Ataxia telangiectasia.Rate this question:
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- 34.
After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
- A.
3-5 days
- B.
7-9 days
- C.
10-12 days
- D.
13-15 days
Correct Answer
B. 7-9 daysExplanation
Embryo implantation typically occurs around 7-9 days after ovulation. During this time, the fertilized egg travels through the fallopian tubes and into the uterus where it attaches to the uterine lining. This process is essential for pregnancy to occur as it allows the embryo to receive nutrients and oxygen from the mother's body. Implantation can sometimes cause mild cramping or spotting, and it marks the beginning of the pregnancy journey.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The cysts in Polycystic Ovarian syndrome are formed by:
- A.
Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosis
- B.
Oocyte proliferation
- C.
Multiple corpus lutea
- D.
Cystic degeneration of ovarian cortex
Correct Answer
A. Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosisExplanation
In PCOS, the androgen levels are very high. This prevents atresia of developing follicles. These form cysts of size 2-9mm size in the periphery of the ovary in a necklace pattern.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A 27-year old primigravida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg at 32 weeks of gestation with no other complications. Subsequently, her blood pressure is contolled on treatment. lf there are no complications, the pregnancy should be best terminated at:
- A.
40 completed weeks
- B.
37 completed weeks
- C.
35 completed weeks
- D.
34 completed weeks
Correct Answer
B. 37 completed weeksExplanation
The pregnancy should be best terminated at 37 completed weeks because this is considered full term and reduces the risk of complications associated with preterm birth. Additionally, the patient has pregnancy-induced hypertension, which increases the risk of complications such as preeclampsia. Terminating the pregnancy at 37 weeks allows for adequate fetal development while minimizing the risk to both the mother and baby.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A 13-year old young girl presents in the casualty with actue pain in the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen was seen. The most probable diagnosis is:
- A.
Rockytansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
- B.
Testicular feminization sydrome
- C.
Imperforate hymen
- D.
Asherman’s sydrome
Correct Answer
C. Imperforate hymenExplanation
Imperforate hymen prevents drainage of menstrual blood which accumulates in the vagina producing hematocolpos. This is seen as the tense bulge.Rate this question:
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- 38.
All of the following may occur in Down’s syndrome except:
- A.
Hypothyroidism
- B.
Undescended testis
- C.
Ventricular septal defect
- D.
Brushfield`s spots
Correct Answer
B. Undescended testisExplanation
Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is associated with various physical and intellectual disabilities. While hypothyroidism, ventricular septal defect, and Brushfield's spots are commonly seen in individuals with Down's syndrome, undescended testis is not typically associated with this condition. Undescended testis refers to the condition where one or both testicles do not descend into the scrotum. This condition is not directly related to Down's syndrome and is more commonly seen in premature babies or those with certain hormonal imbalances.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
- A.
Transposition of great arteries
- B.
Caudal regression
- C.
Holoprosencephaly
- D.
Meningmyelocele
Correct Answer
B. Caudal regressionExplanation
Caudal regression is the most specific anomaly in a child born to a diabetic mother.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The requirement of potassium is a child is:
- A.
1-2 mEq/kg
- B.
4-7 mEq/kg
- C.
10-12 mEq/kg
- D.
13-14 mEq/kg
Correct Answer
A. 1-2 mEq/kgExplanation
Daily recommended intake of potassium is 1-2mEq/kg.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourished children) is:
- A.
90 mmol/L
- B.
60 mmol/L
- C.
45 mmol/L
- D.
30 mmol/L
Correct Answer
C. 45 mmol/LExplanation
Components of of ReSoMal:
Glucose 125 mmol/l
Sodium 45 mmol/l
Potassium 40 mmol/l
Chloride 70 mmol/l
Magnesium 3 mmol/l
Zinc 0.3 mmol/l
Copper 0.045 mmol/l
Citrate 7 mmol/lRate this question:
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- 42.
Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
- A.
Kidney
- B.
Breast
- C.
Bronclius
- D.
Prostate
Correct Answer
A. KidneyExplanation
Primary tumours producing osteolytic metastasis:
Kidney
Lung
Thyroid
GIT
BreastRate this question:
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- 43.
A 30 year old man had a road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Congestive heart failure
- C.
Bronchial asthma
- D.
Fat Embolism
Correct Answer
D. Fat EmbolismExplanation
The fat globules released from the bone marrow (due to trauma / orthopedic procedures) are deposited in the pulmonary capillary bed. This causes ischemia and inflammation. The symptoms appear 12-72 hours after the trauma. Initial symptoms are tachycardia and tachypnoea. There may be high spiking fever and non palpable petichae, especially over upper body. Neurological symptoms like agitation, delirium, stupor and coma can occur. (The fat globules may cross the pulmonary circulation via arteriovenous connections).Rate this question:
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- 44.
A 45 year old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?
- A.
Primary Osteoarthritis
- B.
Avascular necrosis
- C.
Tuberculosis
- D.
Aluminum toxicity
Correct Answer
B. Avascular necrosisExplanation
Mnemonic for causes of avascular necrosis other than fracture – SCLERA
S – Steroids
C – Caisson’s disease
LE – Lupus Erythematosus
R – Radiation
A – AlcoholRate this question:
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- 45.
Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes disease?
- A.
Plain X-ray
- B.
Ultrasonography (US)
- C.
Computed Tomography (CT)
- D.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Correct Answer
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)Explanation
MRI is the investigation of choice for Perthe’s diseaseRate this question:
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- 46.
Treatment of choice for glue ear is
- A.
Myringotomy with cold knife
- B.
Myringotomy with diode laser
- C.
Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion
- D.
Conservative treatment with analgesics & antibiotics
Correct Answer
C. Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertionExplanation
The treatment of choice for glue ear is myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is a condition where fluid accumulates in the middle ear. Myringotomy involves making a small incision in the eardrum to drain the fluid, and ventilation tube insertion involves placing a small tube in the incision to keep it open and allow for continued drainage. This procedure helps to relieve symptoms and restore normal hearing. Conservative treatment with analgesics and antibiotics may be used in some cases, but myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion is the preferred option for persistent or severe cases of glue ear.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodusum leprosum (ENL) reaction is:
- A.
Interleukin—2
- B.
Interferon-gamma
- C.
Tumor necrosis factor—alpha
- D.
Macrophage colony stimulating factor
Correct Answer
C. Tumor necrosis factor—alpHaExplanation
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) is the main cytokine involved in erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL) reaction. TNF-alpha is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune response. It is produced by various immune cells, including macrophages, and is involved in the recruitment and activation of other immune cells. In ENL, an immune-mediated complication of leprosy, TNF-alpha is thought to contribute to the inflammation and tissue damage observed in the skin and other organs. Therefore, TNF-alpha is considered the main cytokine involved in ENL.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Merits of nasotracheal intubation is
- A.
Good oral hygiene
- B.
Less infection
- C.
Less mucosal damage and bleeding
- D.
More movement or displacement of endotracheal tube
Correct Answer
A. Good oral hygieneExplanation
The correct answer is "Good oral hygiene." Nasotracheal intubation refers to the insertion of a breathing tube through the nose and into the trachea. One of the merits of this procedure is that it promotes good oral hygiene. Since the tube bypasses the mouth, there is less chance of contamination from oral bacteria, reducing the risk of infection. Additionally, maintaining good oral hygiene is important for overall health and can help prevent complications such as pneumonia.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma.
- A.
CT scan
- B.
MRI
- C.
FNAC
- D.
MIBG scan
Correct Answer
C. FNACExplanation
Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) is not performed as a diagnostic procedure for pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma is a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands and produces excessive amounts of adrenaline and noradrenaline. CT scan and MRI are imaging techniques used to visualize the tumor and assess its size and location. MIBG scan is a nuclear medicine test that helps in identifying and locating pheochromocytoma. However, FNAC, which involves extracting cells from the tumor using a thin needle for microscopic examination, is not commonly used for diagnosing pheochromocytoma due to the risk of triggering a sudden release of hormones during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Most common substance abuse in India is :
- A.
Tobacco
- B.
Cannabis
- C.
Alcohol
- D.
Heroin
Correct Answer
A. TobaccoExplanation
Most common substance abuse in India – Tobacco (see statistics below)
Most common substance abuse in the world – ?? Probably tobacco (According to WHO statistics, there is an estimated 1.1 billion tobacco users in the world – corresponds to 1/3 of people above 15 years of age)
Most common illicit substance abuse in India – Cannabis (see statistics below)
Most common illicit substance abuse in the world – Cannabis (see statistics below)
National Household Survey of Drug and Alcohol Abuse in India - Estimated users: (2001)
Tobacco – 162 million
Alcohol – 62 million
Cannabis – 9 million
Opiates – 2.5 lakh
Cannabis is by far the most widely cultivated, trafficked and abused illicit drug. About 147 million people, 2.5% of the world population, consume cannabis (annual prevalence) compared with 0.2% consuming cocaine and 0.2% consuming opiates.
References :
Substance use disorder, Manual for physicians – published by National Drug Dependance Treatment Centre, AIIMSRate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 01, 2011Quiz Created by
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