Pharm Lecture 4- Antibiotics

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Questions: 63 | Attempts: 2,151 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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Review quiz based on PPP for Antibiotics and the Key points from the 2 antibiotics articles

Questions and Answers

1.

Which of the following statements is innacurate
- A.
  
  Acute respiratory tract infection (ARI) refers to common cold, rhinosinusitis, pharyngitis, acute bronchitis, and acute otitis media.
- B.
  
  More than half of all antibiotics prescribed for ARIs are unnecessary
- C.
  
  These infections are most likely viral
- D.
  
  All cases should be treated with antibiotics
Correct Answer
D. All cases should be treated with antibiotics

Explanation
The statement "all cases should be treated with antibiotics" is inaccurate. Acute respiratory tract infections (ARIs) are most likely viral, and therefore antibiotics are not effective in treating them. In fact, more than half of all antibiotics prescribed for ARIs are unnecessary, as they do not target the viral infection. Treatment for ARIs should focus on symptom relief, rest, and staying hydrated, rather than relying on antibiotics.

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2.

Which statement is the most accurate?
- A.
  
  Influenza is a systemic illness and should be grouped with other ARis
- B.
  
  Antibiotic treatment does not improve resolution of infleunza infections or prevent complications
- C.
  
  Antibiotics is the best treatment for influenza
- D.
  
  Antiviral therapy should only be used during the winter months
Correct Answer
B. Antibiotic treatment does not improve resolution of infleunza infections or prevent complications

Explanation
Antibiotic treatment does not improve resolution of influenza infections or prevent complications. This statement is the most accurate because antibiotics are not effective against viral infections like influenza. Influenza is caused by a virus, not bacteria, so antibiotics have no effect on it. Antiviral medications may be used to treat influenza, but antibiotics are not recommended for this purpose.

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3.

Which of the following is a vital component of reducing inappropriate antibiotic use
- A.
  
  Patient education
- B.
  
  Antibiotic prophylaxis
- C.
  
  Writing less prescriptions
- D.
  
  Referring patients to someone else
- E.
  
  Let patients decide when they need antibiotics
Correct Answer
A. Patient education

Explanation
Patient education is a vital component of reducing inappropriate antibiotic use because it helps patients understand when antibiotics are necessary and when they are not. By educating patients about the risks and benefits of antibiotic use, as well as the importance of completing a full course of antibiotics, healthcare providers can empower patients to make informed decisions about their own healthcare. This can help prevent unnecessary antibiotic prescriptions, reduce antibiotic resistance, and improve overall patient outcomes.

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4.

Where are you least likely to find genes that confer antibiotic resistance
- A.
  
  Plasmids
- B.
  
  DNA
- C.
  
  Cell wall
- D.
  
  Being exchanged between bacteria
Correct Answer
C. Cell wall

Explanation
Genes that confer antibiotic resistance are least likely to be found in the cell wall. Antibiotic resistance genes are typically found in plasmids, which are small, circular pieces of DNA that can be easily transferred between bacteria. These plasmids can carry multiple resistance genes, allowing bacteria to survive exposure to antibiotics. While DNA is the genetic material that carries the genes, the cell wall itself does not typically contain antibiotic resistance genes. Therefore, the correct answer is cell wall.

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5.

Which is not a mechanism of antibiotic resistance?
- A.
  
  Antibiotic resistance
- B.
  
  Enzymatic inactivation
- C.
  
  Increased uptake
- D.
  
  Increased removal
- E.
  
  Alteration of target sites
Correct Answer
C. Increased uptake

Explanation
Increased uptake is not a mechanism of antibiotic resistance. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria develop ways to evade the effects of antibiotics. Enzymatic inactivation refers to the production of enzymes that can deactivate antibiotics. Increased removal refers to the ability of bacteria to pump out antibiotics from their cells. Alteration of target sites means that bacteria modify the target sites where antibiotics usually bind, making them ineffective. However, increased uptake does not contribute to antibiotic resistance as it would enhance the effectiveness of antibiotics rather than resist them.

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6.

An antibiogram tells what percentage of bacteria are susceptible to an antimicrobial agent
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
An antibiogram is a laboratory test that determines the susceptibility of bacteria to different antimicrobial agents. It measures the effectiveness of antibiotics by determining the percentage of bacteria that are susceptible to a specific antimicrobial agent. Therefore, the statement is true as an antibiogram does indeed provide information about the percentage of bacteria that can be killed or inhibited by a particular antimicrobial agent.

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7.

In order to prevent pathogen resistance, it is best to follow shorter courses of antibiotic use with duration of therapy based on the time the patient takes to achieve clinical stability
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Following shorter courses of antibiotic use with duration of therapy based on the time the patient takes to achieve clinical stability can help prevent pathogen resistance. This approach ensures that the antibiotic is used for an appropriate amount of time, enough to treat the infection effectively, but not longer than necessary. Prolonged use of antibiotics can lead to the development of resistance in pathogens, making them less susceptible to the effects of the antibiotic. Therefore, using antibiotics for shorter durations based on clinical stability can help prevent the development of resistance.

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8.

Ability to bypass or overcome the immune system
- A.
  
  Pathogenicity
- B.
  
  Virulence
- C.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Pathogenicity

Explanation
Pathogenicity refers to the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host. It encompasses various factors, including the ability to bypass or overcome the host's immune system. Virulence, on the other hand, specifically refers to the severity or harmfulness of a pathogen's effects on the host. Therefore, pathogenicity is the correct answer as it encompasses the ability to bypass or overcome the immune system, while virulence focuses on the severity of the disease caused.

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9.

Measure of disease producing potential
- A.
  
  Pathogenicity
- B.
  
  Virulence
- C.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Virulence

Explanation
Virulence is the correct answer because it refers to the measure of the disease-producing potential of a pathogen. It describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease and the severity of the resulting illness. Virulence factors such as toxins, adhesion molecules, and evasion mechanisms contribute to the pathogen's ability to invade and damage host tissues. Therefore, virulence is a key characteristic in understanding the impact and severity of a particular disease-causing microorganism.

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10.

How do pathogen cause disease?
- A.
  
  Increase in number and over come the immune system
- B.
  
  Increase in number and disrupt cellular function
- C.
  
  Increase production of toxins and disrupt cellular function
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above

Explanation
Pathogens cause disease through various mechanisms. They can increase in number, overwhelming the immune system's ability to control them. Additionally, pathogens can disrupt cellular function by interfering with normal cellular processes. Some pathogens also produce toxins, which can further disrupt cellular function and cause damage to tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all these mechanisms contribute to the pathogenicity of diseases.

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11.

Gram positive are red and gram negative are purple
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
gram negative are red, gram Positive are Purple

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12.

Rod shaped
- A.
  
  Bacilli
- B.
  
  Cocci
- C.
  
  Spirilla
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Bacilli

Explanation
The correct answer is "bacilli" because bacilli refers to a type of bacteria that are rod-shaped. This term is commonly used in microbiology to describe the morphology or shape of certain bacteria. It is important to note that cocci refers to bacteria that are spherical in shape, and spirilla refers to bacteria that are spiral-shaped. Therefore, the most appropriate answer in this case is bacilli.

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13.

Spherical shape
- A.
  
  Bacilli
- B.
  
  Cocci
- C.
  
  Spirilla
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Cocci

Explanation
Cocci are bacteria that have a spherical shape. Bacilli, on the other hand, are bacteria that have a rod-like shape. Spirilla are bacteria that have a spiral or helical shape. The question is asking for the correct answer regarding the shape of the bacteria, and out of the options given, cocci are the only bacteria that have a spherical shape. Therefore, the correct answer is cocci.

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14.

Spiral shape
- A.
  
  Bacilli
- B.
  
  Cocci
- C.
  
  Spirilla
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Spirilla

Explanation
The term "spirilla" refers to a type of bacteria that has a spiral shape. This distinguishes it from the other options provided, which are "bacilli" (rod-shaped bacteria) and "cocci" (spherical-shaped bacteria). Therefore, the correct answer is "spirilla" because it accurately describes bacteria with a spiral shape.

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15.

Anaerobic bacteria need oxygen but faculative do not
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
anaerobic do not need oxygen but facultative can go either way

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16.

*this question isn't graded* - What are all 7 Gram positive bacteria? all 13 Gram Negative?
17.

What test identifies the bug and selects the drug?
- A.
  
  I&D
- B.
  
  C&S
- C.
  
  TURP
- D.
  
  CABG
Correct Answer
B. C&S

Explanation
The test that identifies the bug and selects the drug is C&S (Culture and Sensitivity). This test involves taking a sample of the bug (such as bacteria) and growing it in a laboratory to identify the specific type of bug causing the infection. Once identified, the bug is then tested against different antibiotics to determine which drug is most effective in treating the infection. This helps healthcare providers choose the appropriate drug for the specific bug, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

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18.

Culture and sensitivity cannot be done after antibiotic treatment has started
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Culture and sensitivity tests are performed to identify the specific bacteria causing an infection and determine which antibiotics are effective against it. However, once antibiotic treatment has been initiated, it can kill or suppress the growth of bacteria, making it difficult to obtain an accurate culture result. Therefore, it is generally recommended to perform these tests before starting antibiotic treatment to ensure the most accurate and effective treatment plan.

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19.

If an organism is known to have resistant strains what test would help to choose the best drug?
- A.
  
  Culture
- B.
  
  Occult blood study
- C.
  
  Trial and error
- D.
  
  Sensitivity
Correct Answer
D. Sensitivity

Explanation
Sensitivity testing is a method used to determine the effectiveness of different drugs against resistant strains of organisms. It involves exposing the organisms to various drugs and observing their response. By comparing the results, the most effective drug can be identified and chosen as the best treatment option. This test helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about which drug will be most successful in treating the infection caused by the resistant strains.

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20.

Which of the following should be considered when choosing an antibiotic?
- A.
  
  Drug that is most effective against the pathogen involved
- B.
  
  Drug with lowest side effect profile that will still be effective
- C.
  
  Drug that is safe for individual patient
- D.
  
  Least expensive drug that will still be effective
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above

Explanation
When choosing an antibiotic, several factors should be considered. The drug should be effective against the specific pathogen involved, ensuring that it can effectively treat the infection. Additionally, the antibiotic with the lowest side effect profile should be chosen, prioritizing patient safety and minimizing potential adverse reactions. It is also important to consider the safety of the drug for the individual patient, taking into account any allergies or underlying medical conditions. Lastly, the cost of the antibiotic should be taken into consideration, aiming for the least expensive option that is still effective. Therefore, all of the options listed should be considered when choosing an antibiotic.

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21.

Which statement is the most true
- A.
  
  Bactericidals cause the death of susceptible bacteria directly
- B.
  
  Bacteriostatics inhibit the growth/reproduction of susceptible bacteria and cause death indirectly
- C.
  
  Bacteriocidals and bacteriostatics use the same mechanism of action
- D.
  
  A & B
- E.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
D. A & B

Explanation
Bactericidals directly cause the death of susceptible bacteria, while bacteriostatics inhibit the growth/reproduction of susceptible bacteria and indirectly cause death. This means that both statements A and B are true.

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22.

One way bacteria develop resistance is by producing chemicals that act as antagonist to the drug
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Bacteria can develop resistance to drugs by producing chemicals that act as antagonists. These chemicals can neutralize the effects of the drug, making it ineffective against the bacteria. This is one of the mechanisms through which bacteria can adapt and become resistant to antibiotics or other drugs. By producing antagonist chemicals, bacteria can protect themselves from the harmful effects of the drugs and continue to survive and multiply.

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23.

Which is not a benefit of combination antibiotic therapy?
- A.
  
  Requires higher doses of each drug – especially in serious infections
- B.
  
  Some antibiotics are synergistic when used together
- C.
  
  Useful for infections caused by more than one pathogen
- D.
  
  Some treatments require multiple antibiotic therapy such as TB
Correct Answer
A. Requires higher doses of each drug – especially in serious infections

Explanation
Combination antibiotic therapy has several benefits, including increased effectiveness against certain infections caused by multiple pathogens, as well as the potential for synergy between different antibiotics. However, one drawback of combination therapy is that it often requires higher doses of each drug, particularly in serious infections. This is because using multiple antibiotics simultaneously can increase the risk of drug resistance and may necessitate higher drug concentrations to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

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24.

Which of the following situations would be the best time give a patient antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infection?
- A.
  
  After GI/GU surgery
- B.
  
  Patient without known exposure to life threatening or chronic infection
- C.
  
  Patient undergoing non invasive surgery
- D.
  
  Before traveling to an area where infectious disease is endemic
- E.
  
  Patient who doesn't have cardiac valve disease or valve replacements
Correct Answer
D. Before traveling to an area where infectious disease is endemic

Explanation
The best time to give a patient antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infection would be before traveling to an area where infectious disease is endemic. This is because traveling to such an area increases the risk of exposure to infectious diseases that may not be prevalent in the patient's home region. Administering antibiotic prophylaxis before travel can help prevent the development of infections and protect the patient's health. The other situations mentioned in the options do not specifically involve a higher risk of exposure to infectious diseases, making them less suitable for antibiotic prophylaxis.

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25.

Which is not an adverse effect from antibiotics
- A.
  
  Renal toxicity
- B.
  
  GI tract toxicity
- C.
  
  Neuro toxicity
- D.
  
  Hyposensitivity
- E.
  
  Superinfections
Correct Answer
D. Hyposensitivity

Explanation
Hyposensitivity is not an adverse effect from antibiotics. Adverse effects usually refer to negative or harmful reactions that occur as a result of taking antibiotics. Renal toxicity, GI tract toxicity, neurotoxicity, and superinfections are all possible adverse effects that can occur when taking antibiotics. However, hyposensitivity refers to a decreased sensitivity or response to a substance, which is not typically associated with antibiotic use.

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26.

Superinfections occur when a host's normal flora is destroyed by antibiotics from broad spectrum antibiotics or chronic long term use
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Superinfections can occur when the normal flora, which are the beneficial bacteria that naturally reside in the body, are disrupted or destroyed by broad-spectrum antibiotics or prolonged use of antibiotics. These medications can kill not only the harmful bacteria causing the infection but also the beneficial ones, creating an opportunity for other opportunistic pathogens to grow and cause a secondary infection. This is why it is important to use antibiotics judiciously and only when necessary to minimize the risk of superinfections.

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27.

Which is not a sulfa drug?
- A.
  
  Sulfadiazine
- B.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole
- C.
  
  Sulfatetride
- D.
  
  Sulfisoxazoles
- E.
  
  Sulfacetamide
Correct Answer
C. Sulfatetride

Explanation
Sulfatetride is not a sulfa drug because it does not contain the sulfonamide functional group, which is a key component of sulfa drugs. Sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole, sulfisoxazoles, and sulfacetamide all contain this functional group and are therefore considered sulfa drugs.

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28.

Which does not describe the drug action of sulfonamides?
- A.
  
  Bacteriostatic
- B.
  
  Prevents synthesis of folic acid
- C.
  
  Affects all folic acid
- D.
  
  Once broad spectrum but high resistance has developed
- E.
  
  Treats UTI
Correct Answer
C. Affects all folic acid

Explanation
doesn't treat human folic acid and there is a high bacterial resistance rate

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29.

This sulfa drug is a topical cream used to treat burns and prevent infections secondary to burns
- A.
  
  Sulfidiazine (microsulfon)
- B.
  
  Silver sulfadiazine (silvadeen)
- C.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole
- D.
  
  Sulfisoxazole
Correct Answer
B. Silver sulfadiazine (silvadeen)

Explanation
Silver sulfadiazine (silvadeen) is the correct answer because it is a topical cream commonly used to treat burns and prevent infections that may occur as a result of burns. It contains both silver and sulfadiazine, which have antimicrobial properties and help to prevent the growth of bacteria on the burned skin. This cream is often prescribed by healthcare professionals for burn patients to promote healing and reduce the risk of infection.

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30.

This Sulfa drug is combined with trimethoprim to create a synergistic effect and treats, UTI, Pneumocystis Jiroveci, Otitis media and COPD
- A.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole in Bactrim or Septra
- B.
  
  Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadeen)
- C.
  
  Sulfadiazine (Microsulfon
- D.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole (Azo-Gantanol)
Correct Answer
A. Sulfamethoxazole in Bactrim or Septra

Explanation
Sulfamethoxazole in Bactrim or Septra is combined with trimethoprim to create a synergistic effect. This combination is effective in treating urinary tract infections (UTI), Pneumocystis Jiroveci (a type of pneumonia), Otitis media (middle ear infection), and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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31.

This sulfa drug is available PO and is combined with Phenazopyridine to create a mucosal analgesic-anesthetic confined to the urinary tract
- A.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole (Azo-Gatanol)
- B.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim or septra)
- C.
  
  Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadeen)
- D.
  
  Sulfadiazine (Microsulfon)
Correct Answer
A. Sulfamethoxazole (Azo-Gatanol)

Explanation
Sulfamethoxazole (Azo-Gatanol) is the correct answer because it is a sulfa drug that is available orally (PO) and is combined with Phenazopyridine to create a mucosal analgesic-anesthetic confined to the urinary tract. The other options, such as Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim or septra), Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadeen), and Sulfadiazine (Microsulfon), do not meet the criteria mentioned in the question.

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1
32.

This sulfa drug is available PO only as a suspension and is combined with erythromycin a macrolide antibiotic to treat OM in young children
- A.
  
  Sulfisoxazole + phenazopyridine (Azo-Gantrisin)
- B.
  
  Azo Gantanol
- C.
  
  Silver Sulfadiazine (silvadeen)
- D.
  
  Pediazole
Correct Answer
D. Pediazole

Explanation
Pediazole is the correct answer because it is a combination of sulfisoxazole, a sulfa drug, and erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic. It is available only as a suspension and is used to treat otitis media (OM) in young children. The other options listed do not contain both sulfisoxazole and erythromycin, and therefore, are not the correct answer.

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33.

This Sulfa drug treats bacterial eye infections and should not be used for most pink eye infections, because they are usually viral
- A.
  
  Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadeen)
- B.
  
  Sulfamethoxazole (Azo-Gantanol)
- C.
  
  Sulfacetamide Opthalmic
- D.
  
  Sulfisoxazole (Pediazole)
Correct Answer
C. Sulfacetamide Opthalmic

Explanation
Sulfacetamide Opthalmic is the correct answer because it is a sulfa drug that specifically treats bacterial eye infections. Pink eye infections are usually viral, so using Sulfacetamide Opthalmic for most pink eye infections would not be effective.

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34.

Pyridium is phenazopyridine prescribed seperately along with a sulfonamide because it may be cheaper, this should only be prescribed for two days. One side effect of this drug is that it stains contact lenses and turns urine bright _______________

Correct Answer
orange

Explanation
Pyridium, also known as phenazopyridine, is often prescribed in combination with a sulfonamide to reduce costs. However, it should only be taken for a maximum of two days. One side effect of Pyridium is that it can stain contact lenses and cause urine to appear bright orange.

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4
35.

Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe life threatening hypersensitivity complex affecting the skin and the mucus membranes and may be cause by illness or as a response to what drug class?
- A.
  
  Vacomycin
- B.
  
  Sulfonamides
- C.
  
  Quinolones
- D.
  
  A&C
- E.
  
  A&B
Correct Answer
E. A&B

Explanation
Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe life-threatening hypersensitivity complex affecting the skin and the mucous membranes. It can be caused by illness or as a response to certain drug classes. The correct answer, A&B, indicates that both vancomycin and sulfonamides can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome. This means that individuals who are exposed to either of these drug classes may develop this severe hypersensitivity reaction, leading to potentially life-threatening symptoms. The other options, quinolones and A&C, are not mentioned as causes of Steven-Johnson syndrome in this question.

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36.

Which does not describe Penicillins?
- A.
  
  Bactericidal- inhibit cell wall synthesis
- B.
  
  AKA Beta lactams
- C.
  
  Broad spectrum
- D.
  
  Cause bacteria to die from cell lysis
- E.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above

Explanation
The given options describe the characteristics of Penicillins accurately. Penicillins are bactericidal antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, hence they are also known as Beta lactams. They have a broad spectrum of activity, meaning they are effective against a wide range of bacteria. Penicillins cause bacteria to die from cell lysis, which is the bursting of the bacterial cell. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" as all the options accurately describe Penicillins.

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37.

Natural PCN includes beta lactam ring but this makes it susceptible to penicillinase enzyme that splits the ring and makes it ineffective
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true because natural penicillin (PCN) does indeed include a beta-lactam ring. This ring structure is susceptible to the penicillinase enzyme, which has the ability to split the ring and render the PCN ineffective. As a result, the presence of the beta-lactam ring in natural PCN makes it vulnerable to the action of penicillinase, limiting its effectiveness.

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38.

Natural penicillins carry a higher risk for allergic reactions but because of their broad spectrum they are able to kill many bacteria
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
higher risk of allergy, but alot of resistance so even though it is broad spectrum it is not as effective anymore

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39.

Which is not a penicillinase(enzyme)- resistant penicillin?
- A.
  
  Dicloxacillin
- B.
  
  Penicillin G
- C.
  
  Methicillin
- D.
  
  Nafcillin
- E.
  
  Oxacillin
Correct Answer
B. Penicillin G

Explanation
Penicillin G is not a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. Penicillinase is an enzyme that breaks down penicillin, making it ineffective. However, penicillin G is susceptible to penicillinase and can be easily degraded by the enzyme. On the other hand, dicloxacillin, methicillin, nafcillin, and oxacillin are all penicillinase-resistant penicillins, meaning they are not easily broken down by the enzyme and remain effective in treating bacterial infections.

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1
1
40.

What is alarming about MSRA that was not true before?
- A.
  
  It is a nosocomial infection
- B.
  
  Becoming problem in community acquired infections
- C.
  
  Virulent strain of staph
- D.
  
  Ineffective in penicillinase producing bacteria
Correct Answer
B. Becoming problem in community acquired infections

Explanation
The alarming aspect of MSRA that was not true before is that it is now becoming a problem in community acquired infections. This means that the infection is no longer limited to hospitals or healthcare settings, but is spreading among the general population. This is concerning because it increases the risk of transmission and makes it more difficult to control the spread of the infection.

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41.

Which Penicillin drug is virtually always combined with clavulanic acid?
- A.
  
  Ticarcillin
- B.
  
  Piperacillin
- C.
  
  Amoxicillin
- D.
  
  Ampicillin
Correct Answer
A. Ticarcillin

Explanation
Ticarcillin is the Penicillin drug that is virtually always combined with clavulanic acid. This combination is known as ticarcillin/clavulanate and is used to treat various bacterial infections. Clavulanic acid helps to inhibit certain enzymes that can break down the ticarcillin, allowing it to be more effective in fighting the infection.

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42.

Which of the following is a penicillinase inhibiting chemical?
- A.
  
  Clauvulanic acid
- B.
  
  Tazobactam
- C.
  
  Sulbactam
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above

Explanation
All of the options mentioned in the question - clauvulanic acid, tazobactam, and sulbactam - are penicillinase inhibiting chemicals. Penicillinase, also known as beta-lactamase, is an enzyme produced by certain bacteria that can inactivate penicillin antibiotics. These chemicals are specifically designed to inhibit the action of penicillinase, thereby allowing penicillin antibiotics to remain effective against these bacteria. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are correct as they all possess penicillinase inhibiting properties.

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43.

Which of the following is not a penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combination drug?
- A.
  
  Zosyn
- B.
  
  Augmentin
- C.
  
  Timentin
- D.
  
  Unasyn
- E.
  
  Zohan
Correct Answer
E. Zohan

Explanation
Zohan is not a penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combination drug. The other options listed (zosyn, augmentin, timentin, and unasyn) are all combinations of penicillin antibiotics and beta-lactamase inhibitors. However, Zohan does not fall into this category and is therefore not a correct answer option.

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44.

Penicillins are usually used for Gram + infections and common side effects include nausea vomiting diarrhea and abdominal pain but may have life threatening or even fatal adverse effects
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Penicillins are a class of antibiotics commonly used to treat Gram-positive bacterial infections. They are effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species. However, like any medication, penicillins can cause side effects. Common side effects include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. In rare cases, penicillins can cause severe allergic reactions that may be life-threatening or even fatal. Therefore, the statement that penicillins may have life-threatening or fatal adverse effects is true.

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45.

Besides monobactams what is another non penicillin beta lactam?
- A.
  
  Zosyn
- B.
  
  Carbapenems
- C.
  
  Timentin
- D.
  
  Augmentin
Correct Answer
B. Carbapenems

Explanation
Carbapenems are another type of non-penicillin beta-lactam antibiotics. They are structurally similar to penicillins and monobactams but have a broader spectrum of activity against bacteria. Carbapenems are often used to treat serious infections caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria. They are considered a last resort option due to their potency and potential for developing resistance. Zosyn, Timentin, and Augmentin are not carbapenems, but rather combinations of different antibiotics.

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46.

Which does not describe monobactams
- A.
  
  Narrow spectrum beta lactam
- B.
  
  Effective against aerobic gram - rods , no gram + or anaerobes
- C.
  
  PO, IM, IV routes
- D.
  
  Inhaled form Cayston used for Cystic Fibrosis
Correct Answer
C. PO, IM, IV routes

Explanation
Im, IV only

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47.

Which does not describe Carbapenems?
- A.
  
  Pseudomonas resistant to ertapenem
- B.
  
  Gram + and Gram - coverage
- C.
  
  Non resistant to most beta lactamases
- D.
  
  Used for moderate to sever infections
- E.
  
  Anaerobic coverage and p. aeruginosa
Correct Answer
C. Non resistant to most beta lactamases

Explanation
resistant to most beta lactamases

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48.

Cephalosporins, one of the most widely prescribed antibiotics, is classified into four generations based on their spectrum of activity. It is also similar to PCN but has superior coverage of bacteria within its spectrum
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Cephalosporins, a commonly prescribed antibiotic, are categorized into four generations based on their range of effectiveness against bacteria. They are similar to penicillin (PCN) but provide better coverage for bacteria within their spectrum. This statement is true as it accurately describes the classification and effectiveness of cephalosporins.

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49.

Which does not describe Cephalosporins?
- A.
  
  Beactericidal- inhibits cell wall synthesis in bacteria
- B.
  
  1st generation has beta-lactam ring
- C.
  
  Good gram + coverage
- D.
  
  Good gram - coverage
- E.
  
  Innefective agains betalactamase
Correct Answer
D. Good gram - coverage

Explanation
Cephalosporins are a class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis in bacteria, making them bactericidal. The first generation of cephalosporins contains a beta-lactam ring. They have good gram-positive coverage, meaning they are effective against gram-positive bacteria. However, they do not have good gram-negative coverage, meaning they are less effective against gram-negative bacteria. Additionally, cephalosporins are ineffective against beta-lactamase, an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can break down beta-lactam antibiotics. Therefore, the statement "good gram-negative coverage" does not describe cephalosporins.

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50.

Which does not describe 2nd generation Cephalosporins
- A.
  
  More potent that 1st generation
- B.
  
  Most effective group against gram -
- C.
  
  More resistant against beta lacatamase
- D.
  
  Better gram - coverage that gen 1 and good gram + coverage
Correct Answer
B. Most effective group against gram -

Explanation
3rd gen are most effective against gram -

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Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

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Oct 03, 2010

Quiz Created by
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Pharm Lecture 4- Antibiotics

Which of the following statements is innacurate

Which statement is the most accurate?

Which of the following is a vital component of reducing inappropriate antibiotic use

Where are you least likely to find genes that confer antibiotic resistance

Which is not a mechanism of antibiotic resistance?

An antibiogram tells what percentage of bacteria are susceptible to an antimicrobial agent

In order to prevent pathogen resistance, it is best to follow shorter courses of antibiotic use with duration of therapy based on the time the patient takes to achieve clinical stability

Ability to bypass or overcome the immune system

Measure of disease producing potential

How do pathogen cause disease?

Gram positive are red and gram negative are purple

Rod shaped

Spherical shape

Spiral shape

Anaerobic bacteria need oxygen but faculative do not

*this question isn't graded* - What are all 7 Gram positive bacteria? all 13 Gram Negative?

What test identifies the bug and selects the drug?

Culture and sensitivity cannot be done after antibiotic treatment has started

If an organism is known to have resistant strains what test would help to choose the best drug?

Which of the following should be considered when choosing an antibiotic?

Which statement is the most true

One way bacteria develop resistance is by producing chemicals that act as antagonist to the drug

Which is not a benefit of combination antibiotic therapy?

Which of the following situations would be the best time give a patient antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infection?

Which is not an adverse effect from antibiotics

Superinfections occur when a host's normal flora is destroyed by antibiotics from broad spectrum antibiotics or chronic long term use

Which is not a sulfa drug?

Which does not describe the drug action of sulfonamides?

This sulfa drug is a topical cream used to treat burns and prevent infections secondary to burns

This Sulfa drug is combined with trimethoprim to create a synergistic effect and treats, UTI, Pneumocystis Jiroveci, Otitis media and COPD

This sulfa drug is available PO and is combined with Phenazopyridine to create a mucosal analgesic-anesthetic confined to the urinary tract

This sulfa drug is available PO only as a suspension and is combined with erythromycin a macrolide antibiotic to treat OM in young children

This Sulfa drug treats bacterial eye infections and should not be used for most pink eye infections, because they are usually viral

Pyridium is phenazopyridine prescribed seperately along with a sulfonamide because it may be cheaper, this should only be prescribed for two days. One side effect of this drug is that it stains contact lenses and turns urine bright _______________

Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe life threatening hypersensitivity complex affecting the skin and the mucus membranes and may be cause by illness or as a response to what drug class?

Which does not describe Penicillins?

Natural PCN includes beta lactam ring but this makes it susceptible to penicillinase enzyme that splits the ring and makes it ineffective

Natural penicillins carry a higher risk for allergic reactions but because of their broad spectrum they are able to kill many bacteria

Which is not a penicillinase(enzyme)- resistant penicillin?

What is alarming about MSRA that was not true before?

Which Penicillin drug is virtually always combined with clavulanic acid?

Which of the following is a penicillinase inhibiting chemical?

Which of the following is not a penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combination drug?

Penicillins are usually used for Gram + infections and common side effects include nausea vomiting diarrhea and abdominal pain but may have life threatening or even fatal adverse effects

Besides monobactams what is another non penicillin beta lactam?

Which does not describe monobactams

Which does not describe Carbapenems?

Cephalosporins, one of the most widely prescribed antibiotics, is classified into four generations based on their spectrum of activity. It is also similar to PCN but has superior coverage of bacteria within its spectrum

Which does not describe Cephalosporins?

Which does not describe 2nd generation Cephalosporins

this question isn't graded - What are all 7 Gram positive bacteria? all 13 Gram Negative?