1.
Positive inotropic action does which of the following?
Correct Answer
C. Increases contractility
Explanation
Positive inotropic action refers to the ability of a substance or drug to increase the force of contraction of the heart muscle. This means that it enhances the contractility of the heart, allowing it to pump blood more effectively. The other options, such as decreasing heart rate and decreasing cellular conduction, are not associated with positive inotropic action.
2.
What is the digitalizing dose of Digoxin (Lanoxin)?
Correct Answer
B. 0.5 to 2
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.5 to 2. This range represents the digitalizing dose of Digoxin (Lanoxin). This means that when starting treatment with Digoxin, the initial dose should be within this range. It is important to start with a lower dose and gradually increase it to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while minimizing the risk of toxicity. The specific dose within this range will depend on factors such as the patient's age, weight, renal function, and the indication for Digoxin therapy.
3.
Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Digoxin. You need to educate your client on consuming potassium-rich foods. Which of the following will you include in your list of potassium-rich foods?
Correct Answer
B. Strawberries
Explanation
Strawberries are included in the list of potassium-rich foods because they are a good source of potassium. Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper heart function and electrolyte balance. Since hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Digoxin, a medication commonly used for heart conditions, it is important to educate the client about consuming potassium-rich foods to prevent low potassium levels. Strawberries can be a beneficial addition to their diet as they provide a good amount of potassium along with other essential nutrients.
4.
A patient has been admitted with chest pain. He states that it began while he is watching TV on his couch. What kind of angina does he likely have?
Correct Answer
C. Variant
Explanation
Angina without exertion typically suggests a more serious condition known as variant or Prinzmetal's angina. Variant angina occurs at rest, often during sleep or periods of inactivity, and is caused by coronary artery spasms rather than exertion or emotional stress. It is considered unstable and requires prompt medical attention.
5.
Which of the following is NOT a nursing intervention relevant to administration of nitroglycerin?
Correct Answer
C. Inform the client that a headache is the most common side effect associated with this drug
Explanation
The correct answer is "Inform the client that a headache is the most common side effect associated with this drug." This is not a nursing intervention relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin because informing the client about the common side effects of a medication is part of the education and counseling process, rather than a specific nursing intervention related to the administration of the medication. Nursing interventions related to the administration of nitroglycerin may include assessing the client's blood pressure before and after administration, monitoring for adverse reactions such as hypotension or dizziness, and ensuring proper storage and handling of the medication.
6.
Which group of drugs can be either selective or nonselective?
Correct Answer
B. Beta Blockers
Explanation
Beta blockers are a group of drugs that can be either selective or nonselective. Selective beta blockers primarily target beta-1 receptors in the heart, while nonselective beta blockers target both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in various parts of the body. The selectivity or nonselectivity of beta blockers determines their specific effects and potential side effects.
7.
Which of the following is a class of antidysrhythmic drug?
Correct Answer
C. Beta Adrenergic Blocker
Explanation
Beta adrenergic blockers are a class of drugs used to treat various conditions, including dysrhythmias. They work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the body, which helps to slow down the heart rate and reduce the force of contractions. This class of drugs is commonly prescribed for conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain types of arrhythmias. Therefore, the correct answer is Beta Adrenergic Blocker.
8.
When administering hydrochlorothiazide, which labs must be monitored?
Correct Answer
A. BUN, creatinine
Explanation
When administering hydrochlorothiazide, it is important to monitor BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication that can increase urine production and decrease fluid retention. Monitoring BUN and creatinine levels helps to assess kidney function and detect any potential kidney damage or impairment caused by the medication. These lab tests provide valuable information about the body's ability to filter waste products and maintain proper fluid balance. Monitoring these labs helps to ensure the safe and effective use of hydrochlorothiazide.
9.
Which of the following is a serum abnormality with thiazides?
Correct Answer
B. Hyperglycemia
Explanation
Thiazides are a type of diuretic medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure. One of the known side effects of thiazides is the increase in blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. This occurs due to the diuretic effect of thiazides, which can reduce insulin sensitivity and impair glucose tolerance. Therefore, hyperglycemia is a serum abnormality associated with thiazides.
10.
Which of the following serum abnormalities is unique to loop diuretics?
Correct Answer
C. Hyponatremia
Explanation
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidneys, inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions. This leads to increased urinary excretion of sodium, resulting in a decrease in serum sodium levels, known as hyponatremia. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels) are also potential side effects of loop diuretics, but they are not unique to this class of diuretics and can occur with other types as well.
11.
Which class of diuretics is used to decrease intraocular and intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer
A. Osmotics
Explanation
Osmotics are a class of diuretics that are used to decrease intraocular (inside the eye) and intracranial (inside the skull) pressure. They work by increasing the osmolarity (concentration) of the blood, which draws fluid out of the eye or brain and into the bloodstream, reducing pressure. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and loop diuretics are not typically used for this purpose.
12.
Potassium sparing diuretics work where?
Correct Answer
A. Collecting distal tubules
Explanation
Potassium sparing diuretics work in the collecting distal tubules. These diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubules, which results in increased excretion of sodium and water. Unlike other diuretics, potassium sparing diuretics do not promote the excretion of potassium. They are often used to treat conditions such as hypertension and heart failure, where excessive potassium loss can be detrimental. By acting in the collecting distal tubules, potassium sparing diuretics help maintain potassium balance while still promoting diuresis.
13.
What is the antidote for Heparin?
Correct Answer
C. Protamine sulfate
Explanation
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clotting. However, in cases of Heparin overdose or excessive bleeding, protamine sulfate is administered as an antidote. Protamine sulfate works by binding to Heparin and neutralizing its effects, thereby reversing the anticoagulant activity and helping to restore normal blood clotting.
14.
Which of the following anticoagulants is used prophylactically?
Correct Answer
B. Lovenox
Explanation
Lovenox is used prophylactically as an anticoagulant. It is a low molecular weight heparin that helps prevent blood clots in certain medical conditions, such as after surgery or in patients at risk for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Lovenox works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots, reducing the risk of complications. Unlike coumadin, which is mainly used for treatment rather than prophylaxis, Lovenox has a more immediate onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring. Therefore, Lovenox is the correct answer for this question.
15.
Which of the following drugs are known as "clot busters?"
Correct Answer
C. Thrombolytics
Explanation
Thrombolytics are known as "clot busters" because they are drugs that break down blood clots. They work by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system, which helps to restore blood flow in blocked blood vessels. Thrombolytics are commonly used in emergency situations, such as heart attacks or strokes, where quick clot removal is crucial to prevent further damage. Unlike anticoagulants and antiplatelets, which prevent clot formation, thrombolytics directly dissolve existing blood clots.
16.
Which of the following must be given within 3 hours of the beginning of an MI or stroke?
Correct Answer
A. Thrombolytics
Explanation
Thrombolytics must be given within 3 hours of the beginning of an MI or stroke. Thrombolytics are medications that help dissolve blood clots, which is crucial in the early stages of a heart attack or stroke to restore blood flow and prevent further damage. Prompt administration of thrombolytics can significantly improve outcomes and reduce complications associated with these conditions. Therefore, it is essential to administer thrombolytics within the specified time frame to maximize their effectiveness.
17.
Which drug category has intermittent claudication as a characteristic side effect?
Correct Answer
A. PeripHeral vasodilators
Explanation
Peripheral vasodilators are a drug category that relaxes and widens the blood vessels in the peripheral circulation. This increased blood flow can lead to a side effect known as intermittent claudication, which is characterized by pain or cramping in the legs during physical activity. The narrowed blood vessels in the legs struggle to deliver enough oxygen-rich blood to the muscles, causing discomfort. Therefore, peripheral vasodilators can cause intermittent claudication as a side effect.
18.
Which of the following drugs would you NOT give to asthmatic?
Correct Answer
B. Propanolol
Explanation
Propanolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, which is the narrowing of the airways. This can worsen asthma symptoms and potentially trigger an asthma attack. Therefore, it is contraindicated in asthmatic patients. Metoprolol and Acebutolol, on the other hand, are selective beta-blockers that have less effect on the airways and are generally considered safer options for asthmatic patients.
19.
What is the most common side effect of ACE Inhibitors?
Correct Answer
B. Persistent dry cough
Explanation
The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the production of a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow, which helps to lower blood pressure. However, this can also cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a dry cough. This side effect is usually not serious but can be bothersome for some individuals. If the cough becomes severe or persistent, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for further evaluation and possible alternative medication options.
20.
Your patient is on coumadin. You must instruct them to limit their intake of what?
Correct Answer
C. Tea
Explanation
Coumadin is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called anticoagulants or blood thinners. These medications help prevent the formation of blood clots. Tea, especially green tea, contains high levels of vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of coumadin. Vitamin K plays a role in blood clotting, so consuming large amounts of tea can counteract the effects of the medication. Therefore, patients on coumadin should limit their intake of tea to maintain the desired anticoagulant effects.