Pharmacology Chap 35- Sxs Chap 1&25
Review mod 4 week 4
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The leading cause of death among women, cardiovascular disease, is not often diagnosed early or correctly because of which factors? Select all that apply
- A.
Women's inability to pay for medical treatment
- B.
Different presentation of the disease
- C.
Ascribing symptoms to other causes
- D.
Shortened duration of disease process before death
Correct Answer(s)
B. Different presentation of the disease
C. Ascribing symptoms to other causesExplanation
Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among women, and one reason it is not often diagnosed early or correctly is due to the different presentation of the disease in women. Symptoms may be atypical or less recognized, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Additionally, women may ascribe their symptoms to other causes, such as stress or anxiety, which can further delay proper diagnosis and treatment. These factors contribute to the underdiagnosis and undertreatment of cardiovascular disease in women.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following have been attributed to the long-term use of marijuana? select all that apply.
- A.
Chromosome breaks
- B.
Increased cognitive ability
- C.
Personality changes
- D.
Anxiety and irritation
- E.
Gynecomastia in males
Correct Answer(s)
A. Chromosome breaks
C. Personality changes
D. Anxiety and irritation
E. Gynecomastia in malesExplanation
Long-term use of marijuana has been attributed to chromosome breaks, personality changes, anxiety and irritation, and gynecomastia in males. Chromosome breaks refer to the potential damage to the genetic material, which can lead to various health issues. Personality changes can occur due to the impact of marijuana on brain function and neurotransmitters. Anxiety and irritation are common side effects of marijuana use, particularly in high doses or in individuals predisposed to anxiety disorders. Gynecomastia, the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can be caused by hormonal imbalances that can occur with marijuana use.Rate this question:
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- 3.
For women who do not tolerate the adverse effects of statin drugs, which of the following may be used to lower cholesterol levels?
- A.
Vitamin a (retinol)
- B.
Niacin (nicor)
- C.
Simvastatin (zocor)
- D.
Famotidine (pepsid)
Correct Answer
B. Niacin (nicor)Explanation
Niacin (nicor) may be used to lower cholesterol levels in women who do not tolerate the adverse effects of statin drugs. Niacin is a B vitamin that can help increase levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, also known as "good" cholesterol, and decrease levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, also known as "bad" cholesterol. It can also help lower triglyceride levels. Niacin is often used as an alternative to statin drugs for individuals who experience side effects from statins or cannot tolerate them.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Acetaminophen differs from nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin in the treatment of osteoarthritis in which way
- A.
It has a high risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B.
It has a high risk of sensitivity or allergic reactions
- C.
It does not have an antiinflammatory effect
- D.
It does not have an analgesic effect
Correct Answer
C. It does not have an antiinflammatory effectExplanation
Acetaminophen differs from nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin in the treatment of osteoarthritis because it does not have an anti-inflammatory effect. While NSAIDs and aspirin have anti-inflammatory properties that can help reduce inflammation and swelling in the joints, acetaminophen primarily works as an analgesic (pain reliever) and does not have the same anti-inflammatory properties. Therefore, it is not as effective in reducing inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Compared with cartilage in men, the knee cartilage in women is
- A.
Stronger and thicker
- B.
Less estrogen sensitive
- C.
Thinner and more likely to deteriorate
- D.
Likely to have fewer long-term effects after injury
Correct Answer
C. Thinner and more likely to deteriorateExplanation
The knee cartilage in women is thinner and more likely to deteriorate compared to cartilage in men. This could be due to various factors such as hormonal differences, biomechanical variations, and genetic predispositions. Thinner cartilage could make women more susceptible to cartilage damage and increase the risk of developing conditions like osteoarthritis. It is important for women to take preventive measures and engage in activities that promote joint health to minimize the likelihood of cartilage deterioration.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the most serious and long-lasting effect of postmenopausal estrogen deprivation
- A.
Lack of fertility
- B.
Hot flashes
- C.
Dry and sagging skin
- D.
Osteoporosis
Correct Answer
D. OsteoporosisExplanation
Postmenopausal estrogen deprivation leads to a decrease in bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Estrogen plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by inhibiting bone breakdown. Without estrogen, bone resorption exceeds bone formation, resulting in weakened and brittle bones. Osteoporosis is a serious condition that increases the risk of fractures and can have long-lasting effects on mobility and overall quality of life. Therefore, osteoporosis is the most serious and long-lasting effect of postmenopausal estrogen deprivation.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In contrast with insomnia in men, women's sleep is influenced by
- A.
Fatigue from physical effort
- B.
Increased levels of dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
- C.
Decreases levels of progesterone
- D.
Complex hormonal cycles
Correct Answer
D. Complex hormonal cyclesExplanation
Women's sleep is influenced by complex hormonal cycles. Unlike men, women experience hormonal fluctuations throughout their menstrual cycle, which can affect their sleep patterns. These hormonal changes can lead to symptoms such as insomnia, difficulty falling asleep, or disrupted sleep. The levels of progesterone, a hormone involved in regulating sleep, decrease during certain phases of the menstrual cycle, which can contribute to sleep disturbances. Additionally, increased levels of dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), another hormone, can also impact sleep in women. Overall, the complex hormonal cycles that women experience can significantly influence their sleep.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following drugs have been shown to be effective in treating postpartum depression
- A.
Benzodiazepine agents
- B.
Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
- C.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOIs)
- D.
Tricyclic antidepressant agents
Correct Answer
B. Serotonin norepinepHrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)Explanation
SNRIs have been shown to be effective in treating postpartum depression. This class of drugs works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. Benzodiazepine agents are not typically used to treat depression, but rather anxiety disorders. MAOIs and tricyclic antidepressants can be effective for depression, but they are not specifically indicated for postpartum depression. Therefore, SNRIs are the most appropriate choice for treating postpartum depression.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Tolerance to a drug occurs when which of the following happens
- A.
The patient is able to take the drug without any side effects
- B.
The drug does not have any interactions with other drugs
- C.
Higher doses of the drug are required to achieve the desired effect
- D.
The patient is compliant with the prescribed regimen of administration
Correct Answer
C. Higher doses of the drug are required to achieve the desired effectExplanation
Tolerance to a drug occurs when higher doses of the drug are required to achieve the desired effect. This means that over time, the patient's body becomes less responsive to the drug, and larger amounts are needed to produce the same therapeutic effect. This can happen due to various factors, such as the body's attempt to counteract the drug's effects or the development of metabolic tolerance. Tolerance can lead to the need for dose escalation or even treatment failure if the drug's maximum dose is reached.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which statement best describes withdrawal from a narcotic
- A.
Symptoms are mild and pass quickly
- B.
The first abstinence symptoms tend to appear 72 hours after the last dose
- C.
The symptoms are often severe and life threatening
- D.
Nonaddictive drugs are available for sustaining patients after withdrawal
Correct Answer
C. The symptoms are often severe and life threateningExplanation
Withdrawal from a narcotic is often characterized by severe and life-threatening symptoms. This is because narcotics are highly addictive substances that can lead to physical dependence. When someone abruptly stops using a narcotic, their body experiences withdrawal symptoms as it tries to readjust without the drug. These symptoms can be extremely uncomfortable and can include intense cravings, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, sweating, and even seizures or respiratory distress in severe cases. Therefore, it is important for individuals going through narcotic withdrawal to seek medical assistance and support to manage these potentially dangerous symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A diabetic patient who is taking oral hypoglycemic agents is started on metronidazole (flagyl) for an infection. the patient education will include which of the following in instructions regarding the prescription
- A.
Be sure to drink plenty of water and avoid grapefruit juice
- B.
Avoid alcohol because it may cause a reaction characterized by nausea, fast heartbeat, and shortness of breath
- C.
Stop taking the flagyl when you start to feel better
- D.
Take some extra doses if the flagyl doesn't seem to be working
Correct Answer
B. Avoid alcohol because it may cause a reaction characterized by nausea, fast heartbeat, and shortness of breathExplanation
Diabetic patients who are taking oral hypoglycemic agents should avoid alcohol because it can cause a reaction characterized by nausea, fast heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Alcohol can interact with metronidazole and lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, which can be dangerous for diabetic patients. Drinking plenty of water and avoiding grapefruit juice is not specifically related to the interaction between metronidazole and oral hypoglycemic agents. Stopping the medication when feeling better or taking extra doses without medical advice can be harmful and should not be recommended.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Of the 25,000 accidental deaths of adolescents yearly, what percentage is alcohol related
- A.
10%
- B.
15%
- C.
25%
- D.
40%
Correct Answer
D. 40%Explanation
The correct answer is 40%. This means that out of the 25,000 accidental deaths of adolescents that occur yearly, 40% of them are related to alcohol. This indicates a significant correlation between alcohol consumption and accidental deaths among adolescents. It highlights the importance of addressing and preventing alcohol-related incidents to protect the well-being and safety of young individuals.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following are signs of possible drug involvement among adolescents
- A.
Increased family and social contacts
- B.
Avoidance of drug-using friends
- C.
Change in school or work attendance
- D.
Open attitude concerning drug use
Correct Answer
C. Change in school or work attendanceExplanation
A change in school or work attendance can be a sign of possible drug involvement among adolescents because it suggests that they may be prioritizing drug use over their responsibilities and commitments. This change could be seen as a decline in attendance or a sudden lack of interest in school or work. It is important to monitor attendance patterns as it can indicate potential drug use and intervene early to provide support and guidance to the adolescent.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Medical marijuana is thought to have some indication in which of the following
- A.
Nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy
- B.
Cataracts and morning sickness
- C.
Bipolar affective disease and shingles
- D.
Depression and seizures
Correct Answer
A. Nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapyExplanation
Medical marijuana is believed to be effective in treating nausea and vomiting that are caused by chemotherapy. This is because the active compounds in marijuana, such as THC and CBD, can help alleviate these symptoms by interacting with the body's endocannabinoid system. Studies have shown that medical marijuana can reduce nausea and vomiting, improve appetite, and provide relief for cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. Therefore, it is considered a potential indication for the use of medical marijuana.Rate this question:
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- 15.
During the 60 minutes after the use of cocaine, the risk factor for which of the following is increased by a factor of 24
- A.
Narcosis
- B.
Hypotension
- C.
Myocardial infarction
- D.
Depression
Correct Answer
C. Myocardial infarctionExplanation
The use of cocaine increases the risk factor for myocardial infarction (heart attack) by a factor of 24 during the 60 minutes after its use. This means that individuals who have used cocaine are 24 times more likely to experience a heart attack within this time frame compared to those who have not used cocaine.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A patient takin disulfiram (antabuse) for maintenance of sobriety is unlikely to have a reaction to which of the following
- A.
Perfumes and aftershave lotions
- B.
Metronidazole (flagyl)
- C.
NSAIDs
- D.
Aerosol bronchodilator agents
Correct Answer
C. NSAIDsExplanation
Disulfiram (Antabuse) is a medication used to help maintain sobriety in individuals with alcohol dependence. It works by blocking the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol, leading to unpleasant symptoms if alcohol is consumed. NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) are a class of medications commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation. There is no known interaction between disulfiram and NSAIDs, so a patient taking disulfiram is unlikely to have a reaction to NSAIDs. Therefore, the correct answer is NSAIDs.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The coder's responsibility is to ensure that the data are as accurate as possible not only for classification and study purposes but also to obtain appropriate reimbursement
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because as a coder, it is essential to ensure that the data being recorded is accurate. This accuracy is important not only for classification and study purposes but also for obtaining appropriate reimbursement. Accurate data helps in correctly categorizing medical conditions, treatments, and procedures, which in turn ensures proper reimbursement from insurance companies. Therefore, it is the coder's responsibility to ensure the accuracy of the data.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The federal register is the offical publication for all presidential documents, rules and regulations, proposed rules, and notices
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the Federal Register is indeed the official publication for all presidential documents, rules and regulations, proposed rules, and notices. It serves as a comprehensive record of government actions and provides transparency to the public by making these documents easily accessible.Rate this question:
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- 19.
National unit values have been assigned for each service by medicare (CPT) and HCPCS) and determined on the basis of the resources necessary for the physician's performance of the service
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because Medicare assigns national unit values for each service using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) and Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS). These values are determined based on the resources required for a physician to perform the service. This helps in determining the reimbursement rates for healthcare services provided by physicians.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Fraud is an intentional deception or misrepresentation that an individual knows to be false or does not believe to be true and makes it knowing that the deception could result in some unauthorized benefit to himself/herself or some other person
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. Fraud refers to the deliberate act of deceiving or misrepresenting information with the knowledge that it is false or not believed to be true. The intention behind fraud is to gain unauthorized benefits for oneself or another person.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Kickbacks from patients are allowed under certain circumstances according to medicare guidelines
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement suggests that kickbacks from patients are allowed under certain circumstances according to Medicare guidelines. However, this is incorrect. Medicare guidelines strictly prohibit kickbacks from patients, regardless of the circumstances. Kickbacks involve receiving payment or any form of compensation in exchange for referring patients or for any other healthcare services. Such practices are considered fraudulent and are not allowed under Medicare guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 22.
An interactive psychiatric diagnostic interview examination is typically furnished to children
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
An interactive psychiatric diagnostic interview examination is typically furnished to children. This means that it is common practice to provide children with a diagnostic interview that involves interactive communication to assess their psychiatric condition. This type of examination allows professionals to gather information and evaluate the child's mental health status.Rate this question:
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- 23.
There are inpatient and outpatient codes for insight-oriented behavior-modifying and supportive psychotherapy
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because there are indeed separate codes for inpatient and outpatient services for insight-oriented behavior-modifying and supportive psychotherapy. These codes help differentiate and accurately bill for the different types of therapy provided in different settings. The use of separate codes for inpatient and outpatient services ensures that healthcare providers can appropriately document and bill for the specific type of therapy provided to patients.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The use of a hand-held doppler device that does not produce hard copy output, or that produces a record that does not permit analysis of bidirectional vascular flow, is considered to be part of the physical examination of the vascular system and is not separately reported.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that the use of a hand-held doppler device without hard copy output or bidirectional vascular flow analysis is considered to be part of the physical examination of the vascular system. This means that it is not separately reported or billed as a separate procedure.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Office visit codes may not be reported in addition to allergen immunotherapy codes even if other identifiable evaluation and management services are provided at the time of immunotherapy
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because office visit codes can be reported in addition to allergen immunotherapy codes if other identifiable evaluation and management services are provided at the time of immunotherapy. This means that if a patient receives both immunotherapy and other medical services during the same visit, both codes can be reported separately.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The correct codes to descrive a general evaluation of the complete visual system are 92002 and 92012
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given answer is false because the codes 92002 and 92012 do not describe a general evaluation of the complete visual system. These codes are actually used for different purposes. Code 92002 is used for an intermediate eye examination, while code 92012 is used for a comprehensive eye examination. Therefore, neither of these codes provides a complete evaluation of the visual system.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The medicare program was established in
- A.
1955
- B.
1960
- C.
1965
- D.
1970
Correct Answer
C. 1965Explanation
The correct answer is 1965. This is the year when the Medicare program was established. Medicare is a federal health insurance program in the United States that provides coverage for individuals who are 65 years old or older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. It was signed into law by President Lyndon B. Johnson as an amendment to the Social Security Act. The program aimed to provide affordable healthcare options for older Americans and has since become a crucial component of the country's healthcare system.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Medicare part a pays for
- A.
Professional services and durable medical equipment
- B.
Hospital/facility care
- C.
Physician services and durable medical equipment
- D.
Hospital/facility care and durable medical equipment
Correct Answer
B. Hospital/facility careExplanation
Medicare Part A covers hospital/facility care, which includes services such as inpatient hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, and hospice care. It also covers certain durable medical equipment that is considered necessary for the patient's treatment or recovery during their stay in a hospital or other healthcare facility. Therefore, the correct answer is hospital/facility care and durable medical equipment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Medicare part b pays for
- A.
Durable medical equipment
- B.
Hospital/facility care
- C.
Physician services and durable medical equipment
- D.
Hospital/facility care and durable medical equipment
Correct Answer
C. pHysician services and durable medical equipmentExplanation
Medicare Part B pays for physician services and durable medical equipment. This means that Medicare Part B covers the costs of services provided by doctors and other healthcare professionals, as well as the cost of necessary medical equipment that can be used at home or in a medical facility. This coverage ensures that individuals have access to necessary medical services and equipment to manage their health conditions effectively.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who handles the day-to-day operation of the medicare program for the CMS
- A.
HCFA
- B.
Peer review organization
- C.
MACs
- D.
IPPS
Correct Answer
C. MACsExplanation
MACs stands for Medicare Administrative Contractors, which are responsible for handling the day-to-day operation of the Medicare program for the CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services). They process claims, provide customer service, and ensure that Medicare beneficiaries receive the appropriate healthcare services. MACs play a vital role in the administration and management of the Medicare program.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Medicare pays for what percentage of covered charges
- A.
70%
- B.
75%
- C.
80%
- D.
85%
Correct Answer
C. 80%Explanation
Medicare pays for 80% of covered charges. This means that if a medical service or treatment is covered by Medicare, the program will typically cover 80% of the cost, while the remaining 20% is the responsibility of the beneficiary. This is an important aspect of Medicare coverage as it helps to alleviate some of the financial burden for individuals who rely on the program for their healthcare needs.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The incentive to medicare participating providers is
- A.
Direct payment is made on all claims
- B.
A 5% higher fee schedule
- C.
Faster processing
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Medicare participating providers are incentivized by all of the above options. Direct payment on all claims ensures that providers receive timely and guaranteed reimbursement for their services. A 5% higher fee schedule means that providers will receive higher payment rates compared to non-participating providers. Faster processing of claims reduces administrative burden and allows providers to receive payment more quickly. All of these incentives contribute to making Medicare participation more attractive for healthcare providers.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Part b services are billed using
- A.
RBRVS, GPCI, and RUVs
- B.
ICD-9-CM, CPT, HCPCS
- C.
MS-DRGs
- D.
APCs
Correct Answer
B. ICD-9-CM, CPT, HCPCSExplanation
Part B services are billed using ICD-9-CM, CPT, and HCPCS codes. These coding systems are used to accurately describe the medical procedures, services, and supplies provided to patients. ICD-9-CM codes are used to classify diagnoses, while CPT codes are used to document the procedures performed. HCPCS codes are used for additional supplies and services not covered by CPT codes. By using these coding systems, healthcare providers can ensure accurate billing and reimbursement for their services.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who is the largest third-party payer in the nation
- A.
Blue cross blue shield
- B.
Aetna
- C.
Cigna
- D.
The government
Correct Answer
D. The governmentExplanation
The largest third-party payer in the nation is the government. This is because the government provides healthcare coverage through programs such as Medicare and Medicaid, which cover a significant portion of the population. These programs are funded by taxpayer dollars and provide insurance for individuals who are elderly, disabled, or have low income. Additionally, the government also provides healthcare coverage for military personnel and veterans through programs like TRICARE and the Department of Veterans Affairs. Therefore, the government is the largest payer of healthcare services in the country.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A major change took place in medicare in _____ with the enactment of the omnibus budget reconciliation act
- A.
1989
- B.
1992
- C.
1997
- D.
2000
Correct Answer
A. 1989 -
- 36.
The physician fee schedule is updated each april 15 and is composed of
- A.
The relative value units for each service
- B.
A geographic adjustment factor to adjust for regional variations in the cost of operating a health care facility
- C.
A national conversion factor
- D.
All to the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All to the aboveExplanation
The physician fee schedule is updated each April 15 and is composed of relative value units for each service, a geographic adjustment factor to adjust for regional variations in the cost of operating a health care facility, and a national conversion factor. This means that all of the given options are correct and contribute to the composition of the physician fee schedule.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Medicare sets the payment level for assistants at surgery at a percentage of the fee schedule amount for the ____ surgical service
- A.
Global
- B.
United
- C.
Partial
- D.
Subsequent
Correct Answer
A. GlobalExplanation
Medicare sets the payment level for assistants at surgery at a percentage of the fee schedule amount for the global surgical service. This means that the payment for assistants is based on a percentage of the total fee for the entire surgical procedure, including pre-operative, intra-operative, and post-operative care. The global surgical service includes all aspects of the surgery, from start to finish, and the payment for assistants is determined based on this global fee schedule amount.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What edition of the federal register would hospital facilities be especially interested in
- A.
October
- B.
November or december
- C.
January
- D.
July
Correct Answer
A. OctoberExplanation
Hospital facilities would be especially interested in the October edition of the Federal Register because it is typically when new regulations and updates related to healthcare and hospitals are published. This edition may contain important information regarding changes in policies, reimbursement rates, quality measures, or any other updates that could impact hospital operations and compliance. Therefore, hospital facilities would prioritize reviewing the October edition to stay informed and ensure they are in compliance with the latest regulations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What edition of the federal register would outpatient facilities be especially interested in
- A.
October
- B.
November or december
- C.
January
- D.
July
Correct Answer
B. November or decemberExplanation
Outpatient facilities would be especially interested in the November or December edition of the Federal Register because these editions often contain important updates and regulations related to healthcare policies and procedures. As the end of the year approaches, government agencies often release new rules and guidelines that may affect outpatient facilities, such as changes in reimbursement rates or reporting requirements. Therefore, it is crucial for outpatient facilities to stay informed by regularly reviewing the November and December editions of the Federal Register.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What are the three items that the medicare beneficiaries are responsible to pay before medicare will begin to pay for services
- A.
Personal care items
- B.
Deductibles, drug costs, personal care items
- C.
Premiums
- D.
Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance
Correct Answer
D. Deductibles, premiums, and coinsuranceExplanation
Medicare beneficiaries are responsible to pay deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance before Medicare will begin to pay for services. Deductibles are the amount that beneficiaries must pay out of pocket before Medicare coverage kicks in. Premiums are the monthly fees paid for Medicare coverage. Coinsurance is the percentage of the cost of services that beneficiaries must pay after meeting their deductible. These three items represent the financial responsibilities that beneficiaries have in order to receive Medicare benefits.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Medicare funds are collected by
- A.
US food and drug administration
- B.
Social security administration
- C.
National centers for health statistics
- D.
Department of the treasury
Correct Answer
B. Social security administrationExplanation
The correct answer is the social security administration. Medicare funds are collected by the social security administration, which is responsible for administering the Medicare program. This agency collects payroll taxes from employees and employers to fund the Medicare program, which provides health insurance for individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. The social security administration plays a crucial role in ensuring that Medicare funds are collected and allocated appropriately to provide healthcare benefits to eligible individuals.Rate this question:
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- 42.
CMS handles the daily operation of the medicare program through the use of ___ _______ _______
- A.
Medical adjustment contractor
- B.
Medicare administrative cooperative
- C.
Medicare administrative contractors
- D.
Medical administrative contractors
Correct Answer
C. Medicare administrative contractorsExplanation
The correct answer is "medicare administrative contractors". Medicare administrative contractors are responsible for handling the daily operations of the Medicare program. They process claims, provide customer service, and ensure that healthcare providers are following Medicare rules and regulations. These contractors play a crucial role in managing the administrative tasks of the Medicare program, allowing CMS to focus on policy development and oversight.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is not a stated goal of the physician payment reform
- A.
Decrease medicare expenditures
- B.
Assure quality health care at a reasonable cost
- C.
Limit provider liabilities
- D.
Redistribute physician payment more equitably
Correct Answer
C. Limit provider liabilitiesExplanation
The correct answer is "limit provider liabilities." This means that limiting the legal responsibility or potential financial risk for healthcare providers is not a stated goal of physician payment reform. The other options, such as decreasing Medicare expenditures, assuring quality healthcare at a reasonable cost, and redistributing physician payment more equitably, are mentioned as goals of the reform.Rate this question:
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- 44.
If a QIO provider renders a covered service that costs $100 and bills medicare for the service and medicare allowed $58, the provider would bill this amount to the patient
- A.
$42
- B.
$58
- C.
$100
- D.
$0
Correct Answer
D. $0Explanation
The explanation for the correct answer is that if the Medicare allowed amount for a covered service is $58 and the provider bills Medicare for this service, it means that the provider has agreed to accept the Medicare allowed amount as full payment. Therefore, the provider cannot bill the patient for any additional amount, so the patient would not be responsible for any payment, resulting in a bill amount of $0.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003 established these new benefits available under the medicare program
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part b
- C.
Part c
- D.
Part d
Correct Answer
D. Part dExplanation
The Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 introduced new benefits under the Medicare program, one of which is Part D. Part D is the prescription drug coverage that helps beneficiaries pay for their prescription medications. It is designed to provide access to affordable prescription drugs and protect against high drug costs. This addition to the Medicare program allows beneficiaries to have coverage for their prescription drugs, which was not previously included in Parts A, B, or C.Rate this question:
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- 46.
This program is also known as medicare advantage
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part b
- C.
Part c
- D.
Part d
Correct Answer
C. Part cExplanation
Part C refers to Medicare Advantage, which is a program that provides an alternative way to receive Medicare benefits. It combines the coverage of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance) and often includes additional benefits such as prescription drug coverage (Part D) and dental or vision services. Therefore, Part C is the correct answer as it aligns with the statement that the program is also known as Medicare Advantage.Rate this question:
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- 47.
_________ are activities involving the transfer of health care information and ______ means the movement of electronic data between two entities and the technology that supports the transfer
- A.
Transmission, transactions
- B.
Transactions, transmissions
- C.
Interchange,transmission
- D.
Transmission, interchange
Correct Answer
B. Transactions, transmissionsExplanation
The given correct answer is "transactions, transmissions". In the context of health care information, transactions refer to the activities involving the transfer of this information. On the other hand, transmissions mean the movement of electronic data between two entities and the technology that supports this transfer. Therefore, "transactions, transmissions" is the appropriate pair of words that accurately defines the activities and technology related to the transfer of health care information.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Psychiatric diagnostic interview examination includes
- A.
History
- B.
Mental status
- C.
Disposition and communication with family or other sources
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The psychiatric diagnostic interview examination includes gathering a patient's history, assessing their mental status, and evaluating their disposition and communication with family or other sources. This comprehensive approach allows for a thorough understanding of the patient's background, current mental state, and social support system, which are all crucial in making an accurate psychiatric diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."Rate this question:
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- 49.
If an established patient is given an immunization during an office visit, and the only service provided was the immunization, and what type of codes would you use to report the service
- A.
Only and E/M code
- B.
An E/m code, a medicine section immunization code, and an administration code
- C.
A medicine section immunization code and an administration code
- D.
Neither an E/m code nor a medicine section immunization code
Correct Answer
C. A medicine section immunization code and an administration codeExplanation
The correct answer is a medicine section immunization code and an administration code. This is because the patient received an immunization, which falls under the medicine section of the CPT code. Additionally, an administration code is used to report the actual administration of the immunization. No E/M code is necessary in this case because the only service provided was the immunization.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What word is used to describe the pushing of liquid into the body over a long period of time
- A.
Instillation
- B.
Introduction
- C.
Infusion
- D.
Intrusion
Correct Answer
C. InfusionExplanation
Infusion is the correct answer because it refers to the process of slowly introducing a liquid into the body over a prolonged period of time. This term is commonly used in medical contexts, such as intravenous (IV) infusion, where fluids or medications are administered directly into the bloodstream through a vein. The other options, instillation, introduction, and intrusion, do not specifically convey the concept of a gradual and continuous delivery of liquid into the body.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 23, 2010Quiz Created by
Coofoogirl555
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