1.
Which condition results from over secretion of growth hormone?
Correct Answer
C. Acromegaly
Explanation
Acromegaly is a condition that occurs due to the over secretion of growth hormone. It is characterized by the enlargement of the bones and tissues in the body, especially in the extremities. This excess growth hormone is usually caused by a benign tumor in the pituitary gland. Symptoms of acromegaly include enlarged hands and feet, facial changes, joint pain, and thickened skin. Panhypopituitarism, Addison's disease, and diabetes are not caused by the over secretion of growth hormone, making them incorrect answers.
2.
Which drug may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer
D. Levothyroxine
Explanation
Levothyroxine may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine, which helps to regulate the body's metabolism. By taking levothyroxine, it can help to restore the levels of thyroid hormone in the body and alleviate the symptoms of hypothyroidism. Pegvisomant, insulin, and desmopressin are not typically used to treat hypothyroidism.
3.
This G protein-coupled receptor acts to decrease cAMP concentration intracellularly.
Correct Answer
B. Gi protein coupled receptor
Explanation
The correct answer is Gi protein coupled receptor. Gi protein coupled receptors are a class of G protein-coupled receptors that inhibit the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) within the cell. When activated, Gi protein coupled receptors bind to and activate Gi proteins, which in turn inhibit the activity of adenylate cyclase, an enzyme responsible for producing cAMP. As a result, the concentration of cAMP decreases intracellularly.
4.
Activation of this G protein-coupled receptor results in the second messengers IP3 and DAG.
Correct Answer
A. Gq coupled receptor
Explanation
Activation of Gq coupled receptors leads to the activation of phospholipase C (PLC), which in turn catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). IP3 then binds to its receptor on the endoplasmic reticulum, causing the release of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cytoplasm, while DAG activates protein kinase C (PKC). These second messengers, IP3 and DAG, play crucial roles in various signaling pathways, including intracellular calcium release and PKC-mediated signaling. Therefore, activation of Gq coupled receptors results in the production of IP3 and DAG as second messengers.
5.
Lack of ADH causes diabetes insipidus. This drug may be prescribed to combat the disorder.
Correct Answer
C. Desomopressin
Explanation
Desomopressin is the correct answer because it is a synthetic form of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) that can be prescribed to combat diabetes insipidus, a disorder caused by a lack of ADH. Desomopressin helps to regulate water balance in the body by reducing urine output and increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Insulin and Metformin are not used to treat diabetes insipidus, and Octreotide is typically used for a different condition called acromegaly.
6.
This drug combats acromegaly by acting as somatostatin, a growth hormone release inhibiting factor.
Correct Answer
A. Octreotide
Explanation
Octreotide is the correct answer because it acts as somatostatin, a growth hormone release inhibiting factor. Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone production, and octreotide helps to regulate this by inhibiting the release of growth hormone. This drug is commonly used in the treatment of acromegaly to control symptoms and reduce the size of tumors that cause the excessive hormone production.
7.
Which of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Prolactin
C. TSH
Explanation
The hormones Prolactin and TSH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. Prolactin is responsible for stimulating milk production in the mammary glands, while TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) regulates the production and release of thyroid hormones. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and Oxytocin, on the other hand, are released from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH helps regulate water balance in the body, while Oxytocin is involved in various reproductive functions, such as uterine contractions during childbirth and milk letdown during breastfeeding.
8.
This drug acts as a synthetic T4 hormone.
Correct Answer
A. Levothyroxine
Explanation
Levothyroxine is the correct answer because it acts as a synthetic T4 hormone. T4 is the inactive form of thyroid hormone, and levothyroxine is a synthetic version of this hormone. It is commonly used to treat an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism) by replacing or supplementing the body's natural thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine helps to regulate metabolism and energy levels in the body. Pegvisomant is used to treat acromegaly, metformin is used to treat diabetes, and PTU is used to treat hyperthyroidism.
9.
This drug treats hyperthyroidism by inhibiting T3 and T4 production in the thyroid gland, and by preventing T3 conversion to T4 in tissues.
Correct Answer
B. Propylthiouracil
Explanation
Propylthiouracil is the correct answer because it is a drug that is used to treat hyperthyroidism. It works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. Additionally, it also prevents the conversion of T3 to T4 in tissues. This helps to reduce the levels of thyroid hormones in the body and alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
10.
Lack of glucocorticoids with primary causes would be attributed to which condition?
Correct Answer
C. Addison's
Explanation
Lack of glucocorticoids is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease, which is caused by primary adrenal insufficiency. In this condition, the adrenal glands do not produce enough glucocorticoids, such as cortisol. Cushing's disease, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive production of glucocorticoids. Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, and hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Therefore, the correct answer is Addison's disease.
11.
Which drug increases liver and tissue sensitivity to insulin by activating AMP-activated protein kinases which play a key role in insulin signaling?
Correct Answer
C. Metformin
Explanation
Metformin is the correct answer because it increases liver and tissue sensitivity to insulin by activating AMP-activated protein kinases (AMPK), which are key players in insulin signaling. By activating AMPK, metformin helps to lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin resistance in individuals with type 2 diabetes. This mechanism of action sets metformin apart from the other options listed, as alpha glucosidase inhibitors, orlistat, and dopamine agonists do not directly target insulin signaling or sensitivity.
12.
This drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the digestive tract.
Correct Answer
C. AlpHa glucosidase inhibitor
Explanation
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are a class of drugs that work by inhibiting the enzymes in the digestive tract responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into simple sugars. By slowing down the digestion of sugars, these drugs help to control blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This explanation aligns with the statement that the drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the digestive tract.
13.
Anti-obesity agents (orlistat) work by...
Correct Answer
A. Inhibiting lipase
Explanation
Orlistat is an anti-obesity agent that works by inhibiting lipase. Lipase is an enzyme responsible for breaking down dietary fats in the intestines. By inhibiting lipase, orlistat reduces the absorption of dietary fats, leading to a decrease in calorie intake and ultimately aiding in weight loss.
14.
Insulin secretagogues include...
Correct Answer(s)
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Meglitinides
Explanation
Insulin secretagogues are a class of medications that stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides are both examples of insulin secretagogues. Sulfonylureas work by increasing the release of insulin from the beta cells in the pancreas, while meglitinides stimulate insulin secretion in a similar manner. These medications are commonly used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes to help lower blood sugar levels. TZD (thiazolidinediones) and GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide-1) are not insulin secretagogues, as they work through different mechanisms to improve insulin sensitivity and regulate blood sugar levels.
15.
Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting the outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the pancreas. This then causes depolarization of the cell, leading to the release of insulin. They differ from each other in the following way.
Correct Answer
B. Meglitinides bind to a different site then sulfonylureas, have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of hypoglycemia
Explanation
Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting the outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to depolarization and insulin release. However, meglitinides bind to a different site than sulfonylureas, have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of hypoglycemia. Meglitinides only cause partial depolarization of the cell, resulting in less insulin release. This explains why meglitinides have a different efficacy and safety profile compared to sulfonylureas.
16.
The sodium glucose co-transporter is a _________ and its function is to_____________.
Correct Answer
D. Anti-diabetic, decrease amount of glucose reabsorbed by kidney
Explanation
The sodium glucose co-transporter is an anti-diabetic agent that works by decreasing the amount of glucose reabsorbed by the kidney. This helps to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes by promoting the excretion of excess glucose through urine. By inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose, the medication helps to prevent hyperglycemia and improve glycemic control.
17.
Postmenopausal women should not take hormone replacement therapy if...
Correct Answer(s)
A. They have an absence of troublesome symptoms
B. They have a family Hx of estrogen sensitive breast cancer
D. They have begun menopause more than five years ago
Explanation
Postmenopausal women should not take hormone replacement therapy if they have begun menopause more than five years ago because the benefits of hormone therapy decrease significantly after this time period. Additionally, if they have an absence of troublesome symptoms, hormone replacement therapy may not be necessary as it is primarily used to alleviate menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Lastly, if they have a family history of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer, hormone replacement therapy may increase the risk of developing breast cancer, and therefore should be avoided.
18.
Estriol is a type of estrogen that is predominantly present during...
Correct Answer
C. Pregnancy
Explanation
Estriol is a type of estrogen that is predominantly present during pregnancy. During pregnancy, the placenta produces estriol in large quantities to support the growth and development of the fetus. Estriol plays a crucial role in maintaining the pregnancy, promoting fetal organ development, and preparing the body for childbirth. It is also used as a marker to monitor the health and well-being of the fetus during pregnancy.
19.
Oral contraceptives consisting of progesterone-only consist of a cycle of....
Correct Answer
C. Continuous administration
Explanation
Oral contraceptives consisting of progesterone-only are administered continuously without any breaks or days off. This means that the medication is taken every day without any interruption for a certain period of time. Continuous administration ensures that the hormone levels in the body remain stable, preventing ovulation and reducing the risk of pregnancy. This method is different from other types of oral contraceptives that have a cycle of taking active pills for a certain number of days followed by a period of inactive pills or no pills at all.
20.
Depo-Provera is not recommended for use longer than 2 years. This is because...
Correct Answer
A. It has been shown to decrease bone mass
Explanation
Depo-Provera is not recommended for use longer than 2 years because it has been shown to decrease bone mass. This means that prolonged use of Depo-Provera can lead to a loss of bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. It is important for individuals using Depo-Provera to be aware of this potential side effect and discuss with their healthcare provider the duration of use and any necessary measures to maintain bone health.
21.
This type of estrogen is primarily present in menopausal women.
Correct Answer
B. Estrone
Explanation
Estrone is the correct answer because it is a type of estrogen that is primarily present in menopausal women. During menopause, the levels of estradiol, which is the predominant estrogen in premenopausal women, decrease significantly, while the levels of estrone become relatively higher. Estriol is another type of estrogen that is primarily produced during pregnancy, and progesterone is a hormone involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, but it is not primarily present in menopausal women.
22.
Oral contraceptives can come with the following administration instructions.
Correct Answer(s)
A. 84 days on, 7 days off
B. 21 days on, 7 days off
Explanation
The correct answer is 84 days on, 7 days off, 21 days on, 7 days off. This administration schedule is commonly known as a "continuous" or "extended" regimen. It involves taking the oral contraceptive continuously for 84 days (12 weeks) followed by a 7-day break, during which withdrawal bleeding occurs. After the break, another pack of oral contraceptives is started and taken for 21 days, followed by another 7-day break. This schedule allows for fewer menstrual periods throughout the year and may be preferred by some individuals.
23.
If two doses of the progesterone-only pill are missed, the client should be advised to...
Correct Answer
D. Use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle
Explanation
If two doses of the progesterone-only pill are missed, the client should be advised to use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle. This is because missing two doses of the progesterone-only pill increases the risk of ovulation and pregnancy. Using a barrier method, such as condoms, for the rest of the monthly cycle can help to prevent pregnancy.
24.
The following are examples of post-coital contraception.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Mifepristone
B. High dose estrogen
C. Estrogen and progesterone combinations
Explanation
These are examples of post-coital contraception methods. Mifepristone is a medication that can be used to prevent pregnancy after unprotected intercourse. High dose estrogen and estrogen and progesterone combinations are also used as emergency contraception to prevent pregnancy. Misoprostol, although mentioned in the list, is not a post-coital contraception method, so it is not included in the correct answer.
25.
Mifepristone works by...
Correct Answer
D. Causing the slough off of the endometrium
Explanation
Mifepristone works by causing the slough off of the endometrium. This means that it causes the shedding of the lining of the uterus, which is necessary for the termination of pregnancy. By inducing the shedding of the endometrium, Mifepristone helps to detach the fertilized egg from the uterus, leading to the termination of the pregnancy.
26.
High dose estrogen postcoital contraception administration consists of...
Correct Answer
A. Administration within 72 hours, 2 more doses per day for 5 days
Explanation
High dose estrogen postcoital contraception involves administering the medication within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and then taking two additional doses per day for a total of five days. This regimen helps to prevent pregnancy by providing a high level of estrogen to disrupt the normal hormonal balance and inhibit ovulation. Taking multiple doses over several days ensures that the body receives a sustained level of estrogen to effectively prevent fertilization.
27.
Estrogen progesterone combination post-coital contraception is administered...
Correct Answer
B. Within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later
Explanation
The correct answer is within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later. This is the correct administration schedule for the estrogen progesterone combination post-coital contraception. The initial dose should be taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse, followed by 2 more doses taken 12 hours apart. This schedule helps to effectively prevent pregnancy by providing a high dose of hormones that can inhibit ovulation and implantation of a fertilized egg.
28.
This class of drugs is used to prevent contractions of the uterus.
Correct Answer
B. Tocolytics
Explanation
Tocolytics are a class of drugs used to prevent contractions of the uterus. They work by relaxing the uterine muscles, thereby delaying or stopping premature labor. This can be beneficial in cases where the baby needs more time to develop or when there are complications that could be worsened by early delivery. Tocolytics are commonly used in obstetrics to help prolong pregnancy and improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
29.
These are types of tocolytics.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ritodrine
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Oxytocin receptor antagonists
Explanation
The given answer consists of three types of tocolytics: ritodrine, calcium channel blockers, and oxytocin receptor antagonists. Tocolytics are medications used to delay or inhibit premature labor. Ritodrine is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine muscles. Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, work by blocking the influx of calcium into smooth muscle cells, thereby reducing contractions. Oxytocin receptor antagonists, like atosiban, block the action of oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions. These three types of tocolytics are commonly used in the management of preterm labor.
30.
Inhibiting this G protein-coupled receptor would result in decreased cAMP in the intracellular fluid, decreased sequestering of calcium, and increased muscle contraction of the uterus?
Correct Answer
A. Gs
Explanation
Inhibiting the Gs protein-coupled receptor would result in decreased cAMP in the intracellular fluid, which would lead to decreased sequestering of calcium. This would ultimately result in increased muscle contraction of the uterus.