Pharmacology For Podiatrists Quiz! Exam
A Podiatrist is a medication practitioner who deals with issues that affect the parts of the leg. They diagnose such issues and give medicine. Being that you are an aspiring podiatrist, how well do you know the type of medication to prescribe to your patients? Take this pharmacology quiz that has perfect questions on that and get to find out.
- 1.
A type of diffusion that usually occurs is within larger body compartments (interstitial space, cytosol) and across epithelial membrane tight junctions and through pores in blood vessel endothelial lining.
- A.
Lipid effusion
- B.
Aqueous diffusion
- C.
Carrier-mediated
- D.
Endocytosis
- E.
Exocytosis
Correct Answer
B. Aqueous diffusionExplanation
The given statement mentions that the diffusion occurs within larger body compartments and across epithelial membrane tight junctions and through pores in blood vessel endothelial lining. This suggests that the diffusion is happening through aqueous channels or pathways, as lipid effusion would not occur through tight junctions and pores. Carrier-mediated transport involves specific proteins, which is not mentioned in the statement. Endocytosis and exocytosis involve the uptake and release of larger molecules or particles, which is not mentioned in the statement either. Therefore, the most appropriate explanation for the given statement is aqueous diffusion.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Pharmacodynamics is the study of the:
- A.
Toxic effects of drugs
- B.
Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
- C.
Mechanism of action of drugs
- D.
Formation of drugs
Correct Answer
C. Mechanism of action of drugsExplanation
Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs exert their effects on the body. It focuses on understanding the mechanisms by which drugs interact with specific targets in the body, such as receptors or enzymes, to produce a therapeutic or pharmacological response. This includes studying the molecular and cellular processes involved in drug action, as well as the relationship between drug concentration and the resulting pharmacological effect.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following drugs acts by a non-specific physicochemical mechanism?
- A.
A bulk laxative
- B.
A histamine H2-antagonist
- C.
A cyclooxygenase inhibitor
- D.
A B2-adrenoceptor agonist
Correct Answer
A. A bulk laxativeExplanation
A bulk laxative acts by a non-specific physicochemical mechanism. It works by increasing the water content in the stool, making it bulkier and easier to pass. Unlike the other options, which target specific receptors or enzymes in the body, a bulk laxative does not have a specific target and instead works through physical means to relieve constipation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The molecular target for sildenafil (viagra) is
- A.
Guanylate cyclase
- B.
Phosphodiesterase type 5
- C.
Angiotensim converting enzyme
- D.
Cyclooxygenase
Correct Answer
B. pHospHodiesterase type 5Explanation
Sildenafil, commonly known as Viagra, acts as an inhibitor for phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5). PDE5 is an enzyme that breaks down cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), which is responsible for smooth muscle relaxation in the blood vessels of the penis. By inhibiting PDE5, sildenafil increases the levels of cGMP, leading to enhanced blood flow and improved erectile function. Therefore, the correct answer is phosphodiesterase type 5.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Nifedipine can be used to lower systemic arterial hypertension because it blocks:
- A.
Potassium channels
- B.
Sodium channels
- C.
Calcium channels
- D.
Chloride channels
Correct Answer
C. Calcium channelsExplanation
Nifedipine can be used to lower systemic arterial hypertension because it blocks calcium channels. Calcium channels are responsible for allowing calcium ions to enter the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, leading to vasoconstriction. By blocking these channels, nifedipine inhibits the entry of calcium ions, resulting in relaxation and dilation of the blood vessels, thereby lowering blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following drugs are potassium channel openers?
- A.
Verapamil
- B.
Minoxidil
- C.
Indomethacin
- D.
Lidocaine
Correct Answer
B. MinoxidilExplanation
Minoxidil is a potassium channel opener. It works by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, which leads to increased blood flow. Minoxidil is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and stimulate hair growth. It opens potassium channels in smooth muscle cells, causing hyperpolarization and preventing calcium influx, leading to muscle relaxation. Verapamil, indomethacin, and lidocaine are not potassium channel openers and have different mechanisms of action.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of these is a sodium channel blocker?
- A.
Verapamil
- B.
Minoxidil
- C.
Indomethacin
- D.
Lidocaine
Correct Answer
D. LidocaineExplanation
Lidocaine is a sodium channel blocker. It works by blocking the voltage-gated sodium channels, preventing the influx of sodium ions into the cells. This action inhibits the generation and conduction of nerve impulses, leading to local anesthesia and numbing of the area where it is applied. Lidocaine is commonly used in medical procedures, such as dental work and minor surgeries, to provide pain relief. It can also be used as a cardiac antiarrhythmic medication to regulate abnormal heart rhythms.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Prazosin is a receptor anatagonist at the:
- A.
M2 muscarinic receptor
- B.
Alpha 1 adrenoceptor
- C.
Beta 2 bradykinin receptor
- D.
5-HT2a receptors
Correct Answer
B. AlpHa 1 adrenoceptorExplanation
Prazosin is a receptor antagonist at the alpha 1 adrenoceptor. This means that it blocks the action of alpha 1 adrenoceptors, which are found in smooth muscle tissue of blood vessels. By blocking these receptors, prazosin causes relaxation of the smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Captopril blocks the enzyme.
- A.
Tyrosine hydroxylase
- B.
Acetylcholinesterase
- C.
Angiotension converting enzyme
- D.
Renin
Correct Answer
C. Angiotension converting enzymeExplanation
Captopril is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the action of the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE). This enzyme is responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow and promotes the release of aldosterone, which leads to increased blood pressure. By blocking ACE, captopril helps to relax and widen blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. Therefore, the correct answer is angiotensin converting enzyme.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Bendrofluazide acts as:
- A.
A receptor anatagonist at the alpha 1 adrenoceptors
- B.
A receptor anatagonist at the acetylcholine nicotinic receptor
- C.
A diurectic
- D.
An ace inhibitor
Correct Answer
C. A diurecticExplanation
Bendrofluazide is classified as a diuretic, meaning it promotes the production of urine and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes from the body. Diuretics are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and edema. They work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidneys, which leads to increased urine production and subsequent reduction in fluid volume. This helps to lower blood pressure and relieve fluid retention. Therefore, the correct answer is that bendrofluazide acts as a diuretic.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Losartan is
- A.
An ACE inhibitor
- B.
An angiotensin 2 receptor antagonist
- C.
A Beta adrenoceptor anatagonist (beta blocker)
- D.
A calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer
B. An angiotensin 2 receptor antagonistExplanation
Losartan is an angiotensin 2 receptor antagonist. This means that it blocks the action of angiotensin 2, a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow and blood pressure to increase. By blocking the angiotensin 2 receptor, losartan helps to relax and widen blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. This makes it an effective medication for treating conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure) and heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Tirofiban is used to prevent the formation of an arterial white thrombus because it
- A.
Blocks the glycoprotein GP Ib on platelets
- B.
Blocks the enzyme cyclooxygenase in platelets to inhibit the production of thromboxane
- C.
Blocks the enzyme nitric oxide synthase on the endothelium to inhibit the production of nitric oxide
- D.
Blocks glycoprotein receptor GP IIa- IIIb on platelets
Correct Answer
D. Blocks glycoprotein receptor GP IIa- IIIb on plateletsExplanation
Tirofiban is used to prevent the formation of an arterial white thrombus by blocking the glycoprotein receptor GP IIa- IIIb on platelets. This receptor is responsible for platelet aggregation, and by blocking it, tirofiban prevents the formation of blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Streptokinase is used in the treatment of thrombosis because it
- A.
Inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
- B.
Increase the conversion of protein C to activated protein C
- C.
Increase the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
- D.
Inhibit the polymerization of fibrin
Correct Answer
C. Increase the conversion of plasminogen to plasminExplanation
Streptokinase is used in the treatment of thrombosis because it increases the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that helps in the breakdown of blood clots by degrading fibrin, the main component of blood clots. By increasing the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, streptokinase promotes the dissolution of blood clots and helps in the treatment of thrombosis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Heprin
- A.
Inhibit the formation of vit K dependent coagulation factors
- B.
Acts as a catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and thrombomodulin
- C.
Inhibits platlets
- D.
Acts as catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and antithrombin III
Correct Answer
D. Acts as catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and antithrombin IIIExplanation
Heparin acts as a catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and antithrombin III. This means that heparin enhances the ability of antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin, which is an important step in the regulation of blood clotting. By accelerating this reaction, heparin helps to prevent the formation of blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The coagulation cofactors (vIII & V) are important in fibrin formation because
- A.
They are proteolytic
- B.
They accelerate coagulation by more than 100,000 fold
- C.
They inactivate by ATIII
- D.
They are inactivated by heprin
Correct Answer
B. They accelerate coagulation by more than 100,000 foldExplanation
The coagulation cofactors (vIII & V) are important in fibrin formation because they accelerate coagulation by more than 100,000 fold. This means that they greatly speed up the process of blood clotting, allowing for the formation of a stable fibrin clot more quickly. This is crucial in preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Oral formulation
- A.
Are subject to first pass metabolism
- B.
May have delayed absorption due to presence of food
- C.
If acidic, are best absorbed from stomach
- D.
Are more slowly absorbed than rectal formulation
Correct Answer(s)
A. Are subject to first pass metabolism
B. May have delayed absorption due to presence of food
C. If acidic, are best absorbed from stomachExplanation
Oral formulations are subject to first-pass metabolism, which means that they are metabolized by the liver before entering the systemic circulation. This can result in a decrease in the concentration of the drug reaching the target site. Additionally, the presence of food in the stomach can delay the absorption of oral formulations, as it may interfere with the dissolution and absorption of the drug. If the oral formulation is acidic, it is best absorbed from the stomach rather than the intestines. Overall, oral formulations are generally absorbed more slowly than rectal formulations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is/are located in the cell?
- A.
Channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors
- B.
G-protein coupled (metabotropic) receptors
- C.
Kinase- linked receptors
- D.
Receptors for steriod hormones
Correct Answer(s)
A. Channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors
B. G-protein coupled (metabotropic) receptors
C. Kinase- linked receptorsExplanation
Channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors, G-protein coupled (metabotropic) receptors, and kinase-linked receptors are all located in the cell. These receptors play important roles in cellular signaling and response to various stimuli. Channel-linked receptors are directly linked to ion channels and allow the flow of ions across the cell membrane. G-protein coupled receptors activate intracellular signaling pathways through interactions with G-proteins. Kinase-linked receptors activate kinase enzymes, which in turn phosphorylate target proteins and initiate cellular responses. Receptors for steroid hormones are located inside the cell, specifically in the cytoplasm or nucleus, and mediate the effects of these hormones on gene expression.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The following are examples of inotropic receptors:
- A.
Insulin receptors
- B.
Acetylcholine muscarinic receptors
- C.
Beta- adrenoceptors
- D.
Acetylcholine nicotinic receptors
Correct Answer
D. Acetylcholine nicotinic receptorsExplanation
Acetylcholine nicotinic receptors are examples of inotropic receptors. Inotropic receptors are a type of receptor that are directly linked to ion channels. When acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors, it causes the ion channels to open, allowing the flow of ions across the cell membrane. This results in a change in the electrical potential of the cell, leading to various physiological effects. In contrast, insulin receptors, acetylcholine muscarinic receptors, and beta-adrenoceptors are not inotropic receptors and do not directly affect ion channels.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A reversible competitive antagonist can have the following effect on an agonist concentration-response curve:
- A.
Shift to the right
- B.
Shift to the left
- C.
No change in slope and maximum response
- D.
Reduction in slope and maximum response
Correct Answer(s)
A. Shift to the right
C. No change in slope and maximum responseExplanation
A reversible competitive antagonist can have the effect of shifting the agonist concentration-response curve to the right. This means that higher concentrations of the agonist are required to achieve the same response in the presence of the antagonist. However, the antagonist does not affect the slope or maximum response of the curve, meaning that the shape and overall efficacy of the agonist's response remains unchanged.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Cardiac ouput is
- A.
Approx 5.5l/min
- B.
Approx 70ml/min
- C.
HR X SV
- D.
HR/SV
Correct Answer(s)
A. Approx 5.5l/min
C. HR X SVExplanation
Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. It is calculated by multiplying the heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV). The given answer, "Approx 5.5l/min, HR X SV," correctly states that cardiac output is approximately 5.5 liters per minute, which is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. This indicates that the heart is pumping an adequate amount of blood to meet the body's demands.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Stroke volume =
- A.
EDV-ESV
- B.
ESV-EDV
- C.
CO/HR
- D.
HR/CO
Correct Answer(s)
A. EDV-ESV
C. CO/HRExplanation
The correct answer is EDV-ESV. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. EDV (end-diastolic volume) refers to the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (relaxation phase), while ESV (end-systolic volume) refers to the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole (contraction phase). Therefore, stroke volume is calculated by subtracting ESV from EDV. The other options, CO/HR and HR/CO, do not accurately represent the calculation for stroke volume.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The coagulation cofactors VIII & V.
- A.
Are activated by thrombin
- B.
Accelerated the activity of factor IXa and Xa
- C.
Are inactivated the APC system
- D.
Are inactivated by TFPI
Correct Answer(s)
A. Are activated by thrombin
B. Accelerated the activity of factor IXa and Xa
C. Are inactivated the APC systemExplanation
Coagulation cofactors VIII and V are activated by thrombin, which means that thrombin plays a role in activating these cofactors. Additionally, these cofactors also accelerate the activity of factor IXa and Xa, further contributing to the coagulation process. However, they are not inactivated by the APC (activated protein C) system, which is responsible for inhibiting coagulation. Therefore, the correct answer is that these cofactors are activated by thrombin, accelerate the activity of factor IXa and Xa, and are not inactivated by the APC system.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Noradrenaline can increase TPR by:
- A.
Constricting veins
- B.
Constricting arterioles
- C.
Acting on the beta-adrenoceptors
- D.
Acting on alpha-adrenoceptors
Correct Answer(s)
B. Constricting arterioles
D. Acting on alpHa-adrenoceptorsExplanation
Noradrenaline can increase TPR (total peripheral resistance) by constricting arterioles and acting on alpha-adrenoceptors. Constricting arterioles reduces the diameter of these blood vessels, leading to increased resistance to blood flow. Acting on alpha-adrenoceptors causes vasoconstriction, further increasing TPR. By constricting arterioles and acting on alpha-adrenoceptors, noradrenaline helps to regulate blood pressure and maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Warfarin
- A.
Is not used during pregnancy
- B.
Cannot be taken orally
- C.
In a vitamin K anatagonist
- D.
Is a fibrinolytic agent
Correct Answer(s)
A. Is not used during pregnancy
C. In a vitamin K anatagonistExplanation
Warfarin is not used during pregnancy because it can cross the placenta and potentially harm the developing fetus. It is also a vitamin K antagonist, meaning it interferes with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. This makes it an effective anticoagulant, but it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to avoid warfarin during pregnancy and use alternative medications that are safer for both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Diuretics are use in blood pressure control because they:
- A.
Increase cardiac output
- B.
Decrease cardiac output
- C.
Increase plamsa sodium
- D.
Decrease plasma sodium
Correct Answer(s)
B. Decrease cardiac output
D. Decrease plasma sodiumExplanation
Diuretics are used in blood pressure control because they decrease cardiac output and decrease plasma sodium. By decreasing cardiac output, diuretics reduce the amount of blood pumped by the heart, thereby lowering blood pressure. Additionally, by decreasing plasma sodium levels, diuretics help to reduce fluid volume in the body, which also contributes to lowering blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When the heart is fully contracted:
- A.
Systemic arterial pressure is 120mmHg
- B.
Systemic arterial pressure is 80mmHg
- C.
The mirtal valve is closed. the aotric valve in open
- D.
The mirtal valve is open. the aotric valve in closed
Correct Answer(s)
A. Systemic arterial pressure is 120mmHg
C. The mirtal valve is closed. the aotric valve in openExplanation
When the heart is fully contracted, the systemic arterial pressure is 120mmHg. This is because the contraction of the heart muscles during systole leads to the ejection of blood into the arteries, increasing the pressure within them. Additionally, the mitral valve is closed during this phase to prevent backflow of blood into the left atrium, while the aortic valve is open to allow blood to flow from the left ventricle into the aorta and subsequently to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following are true?
- A.
Arterial blood pressure is proportional to cardiac output x TPR
- B.
Most forms of systemic arterial hypertension are due to elevated TPR
- C.
Vasodilation of systemic arterial hypertension are not due to reduced TPR
- D.
Vasodilation of systemic arterial hypertension are not due to elevated TPR
Correct Answer(s)
A. Arterial blood pressure is proportional to cardiac output x TPR
B. Most forms of systemic arterial hypertension are due to elevated TPR
C. Vasodilation of systemic arterial hypertension are not due to reduced TPRExplanation
The first statement is true because arterial blood pressure is determined by the product of cardiac output (the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute) and total peripheral resistance (TPR, the resistance to blood flow in the arteries).
The second statement is also true because most forms of systemic arterial hypertension (high blood pressure) are caused by an increase in TPR, which leads to increased resistance to blood flow in the arteries.
The third and fourth statements are false because vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) in systemic arterial hypertension can be due to reduced TPR, as dilated blood vessels offer less resistance to blood flow.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Subcutaneous injections
- A.
May be used for irritant substance
- B.
Maybe used to administer high doses
- C.
Peak concentration schieved depends on rate of administration
- D.
Can be used for depot preparation
Correct Answer
D. Can be used for depot preparationExplanation
Subcutaneous injections can be used for depot preparation. Depot preparations are a type of medication that is slowly released over time from a specific site in the body. By injecting the medication subcutaneously, it forms a depot or reservoir under the skin, allowing for slow and sustained release of the medication into the bloodstream. This method is often used for medications that require long-term or continuous administration.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is a drug that has the potential for addiction and abuse?
- A.
Supplement
- B.
Narcotic
- C.
Controlled Substance
- D.
Bioassay
Correct Answer
C. Controlled SubstanceExplanation
A controlled substance is a drug that has the potential for addiction and abuse. These substances are regulated by the government and their use is restricted due to their potential for harm. They can include prescription medications, such as opioids and stimulants, as well as illegal drugs like heroin and cocaine. The classification of a drug as a controlled substance indicates that it has a high potential for abuse and addiction, and strict regulations are in place to control its distribution and use.Rate this question:
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- 30.
By combining various chemicals, scientists can produce compounds that are identical to a natural drug, or they can create an entirely new substance. These drugs are called?
- A.
Synthetic drugs
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Generic
- D.
Trade
Correct Answer
A. Synthetic drugsExplanation
By combining various chemicals, scientists have the ability to create compounds that mimic natural drugs or develop completely new substances. These artificially produced drugs are known as synthetic drugs. They are designed to have similar effects to their natural counterparts but are created through chemical synthesis rather than being derived from natural sources. Synthetic drugs offer the advantage of being more easily controlled in terms of purity and potency, allowing for standardized dosages and consistent effects.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Drugs that increase potassium conductance of vascular smooth muscle will:
- A.
Cause vasocontriction
- B.
Cause vasodilation
- C.
Depolarise the cell
- D.
Hyperpolarize the cell
Correct Answer(s)
B. Cause vasodilation
D. Hyperpolarize the cellExplanation
Drugs that increase potassium conductance of vascular smooth muscle will cause vasodilation and hyperpolarize the cell. This is because an increase in potassium conductance allows more potassium ions to flow out of the cell, leading to hyperpolarization. Hyperpolarization reduces the excitability of the cell and relaxes the smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
ACE inhibitors can be used to treat systemic arterial hypertension because they:
- A.
Increase plasma volume
- B.
Decrease plasma volume
- C.
Increase TPR
- D.
Decrease TPR
Correct Answer(s)
B. Decrease plasma volume
D. Decrease TPRExplanation
ACE inhibitors can be used to treat systemic arterial hypertension because they decrease plasma volume and decrease total peripheral resistance (TPR). By decreasing plasma volume, ACE inhibitors reduce the amount of fluid in the blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. Additionally, by decreasing TPR, ACE inhibitors relax and widen the blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily and reducing the resistance against which the heart has to pump. These combined effects help to lower blood pressure and manage hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The following drugs are used as anticoagulants.
- A.
Plasma
- B.
Streptokinase
- C.
Thrombib
- D.
Heprin
Correct Answer
D. HeprinExplanation
Heparin is a drug used as an anticoagulant. It works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to prevent and treat blood clots in conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and during certain medical procedures. Heparin acts by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, a natural protein in the body that inhibits blood clotting. This prevents the formation of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clot formation. Heparin is administered through injection and is closely monitored to ensure the appropriate dosage and prevent any potential side effects.Rate this question:
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- 34.
GTN can be used in the treatment of angina because it:
- A.
Dilates veins
- B.
Lowers end diastolic volume
- C.
Donates nitric oxide
- D.
Reduces atherosclerotic lesions
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dilates veins
B. Lowers end diastolic volume
C. Donates nitric oxideExplanation
GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) can be used in the treatment of angina because it dilates veins, lowers end diastolic volume, and donates nitric oxide. By dilating veins, GTN reduces the workload on the heart and decreases the amount of blood returning to the heart, thus reducing the oxygen demand of the heart. Lowering end diastolic volume helps to reduce the pressure on the heart by decreasing the amount of blood in the ventricles during diastole. Lastly, GTN donates nitric oxide, which is a potent vasodilator that helps to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing angina symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The synthesis of noradrenaline can be reduced using:
- A.
The tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor, metitosine
- B.
Lignocaine
- C.
The DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor, methyl-DOPA
- D.
Cocaine
Correct Answer(s)
A. The tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor, metitosine
C. The DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor, methyl-DOPAExplanation
The synthesis of noradrenaline can be reduced by inhibiting the enzymes involved in its production. Tyrosine hydroxylase is an enzyme that converts tyrosine to L-DOPA, which is a precursor for noradrenaline. Therefore, inhibiting tyrosine hydroxylase with metitosine can reduce the synthesis of noradrenaline. Additionally, DOPA decarboxylase is an enzyme that converts L-DOPA to dopamine, which is further converted to noradrenaline. Inhibiting DOPA decarboxylase with methyl-DOPA can also reduce the synthesis of noradrenaline. Lignocaine and cocaine are not known to have inhibitory effects on these enzymes, so they would not reduce the synthesis of noradrenaline.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Von willebrand factor
- A.
Is secreted from activated platlets
- B.
Is secreated from endothelial cells
- C.
Is required as a bridging protein from platelet adhesion to collagen
- D.
Is required as a bridging protein for platelet aggressation
Correct Answer(s)
A. Is secreted from activated platlets
B. Is secreated from endothelial cells
C. Is required as a bridging protein from platelet adhesion to collagen -
- 37.
Thrombin
- A.
Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
- B.
Converts VIII TO VIIIa
- C.
Activates TFPI
- D.
Inhibits platelet activation
Correct Answer(s)
A. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B. Converts VIII TO VIIIa
C. Activates TFPIExplanation
Thrombin is a crucial enzyme in the blood coagulation process. It plays multiple roles, including converting fibrinogen to fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to create blood clots. Thrombin also converts factor VIII to factor VIIIa, which is essential for the formation of blood clots. Additionally, thrombin activates tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI), which helps regulate the coagulation process by inhibiting excessive clot formation. Thrombin does not inhibit platelet activation; instead, it promotes platelet activation and aggregation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The inactivation of thrombin by antithrombin III is accelerated by:
- A.
Throbomodulin
- B.
Activated protein c
- C.
Thromboplastin
- D.
Heprin
Correct Answer
D. HeprinExplanation
Heparin accelerates the inactivation of thrombin by antithrombin III. Heparin acts as a cofactor for antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inhibit thrombin. This occurs through a conformational change in antithrombin III, which is facilitated by the binding of heparin. As a result, the inactivation of thrombin is accelerated, preventing excessive blood clotting. Thrombomodulin, activated protein C, and thromboplastin do not directly accelerate the inactivation of thrombin by antithrombin III.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Vitamin K
- A.
Is present in green vegatables
- B.
May be deficient when patients take antibiotics
- C.
Is required for production of some coagulation
- D.
Factors is produced by skin in the response to light
Correct Answer(s)
A. Is present in green vegatables
B. May be deficient when patients take antibiotics
C. Is required for production of some coagulationExplanation
Vitamin K is a nutrient that is found in green vegetables. It is important for the production of certain coagulation factors in the body. However, taking antibiotics can potentially lead to a deficiency in vitamin K.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Spirolactone
- A.
Decrease plasma volume
- B.
Increase plasma volume
- C.
Blocks the aldersterone receptors
- D.
Blocks the angiotension II receptors
Correct Answer(s)
A. Decrease plasma volume
C. Blocks the aldersterone receptorsExplanation
Spirolactone is a medication that is commonly used as a diuretic. It works by blocking the aldosterone receptors, which are responsible for reabsorbing sodium and water in the kidneys. By blocking these receptors, spirolactone prevents the reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to increased excretion of urine and a decrease in plasma volume. This decrease in plasma volume helps to reduce fluid retention and can be beneficial in conditions such as congestive heart failure and edema.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Thiazides are diuretics which act by:
- A.
Blocking the apical Na+ channel
- B.
Blocking the basolateral Na/K ATPase
- C.
Blocking the apical Na: K: Cl co-transproter
- D.
Blocking the apical Na: Cl co-transporter
Correct Answer
D. Blocking the apical Na: Cl co-transporterExplanation
Thiazides are diuretics that work by blocking the apical Na: Cl co-transporter. This transporter is responsible for reabsorbing sodium and chloride ions in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys. By blocking this transporter, thiazides prevent the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions, leading to increased excretion of these ions in the urine. This ultimately results in increased urine production and a decrease in blood volume, making thiazides an effective treatment for hypertension and edema.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is/are true?
- A.
Drugs metabolism mainly occurs in the kidneys
- B.
Drugs metabolism usually makes a drug more hydrophilic which hastens its excretion by the kidneys
- C.
Morphine is metabolised to codeine by the liver
- D.
Drugs metabolism usually leads to less active meatabolite
Correct Answer(s)
B. Drugs metabolism usually makes a drug more hydropHilic which hastens its excretion by the kidneys
D. Drugs metabolism usually leads to less active meataboliteExplanation
Drug metabolism refers to the process by which the body breaks down and transforms drugs into different substances. It typically occurs in the liver, not the kidneys. During metabolism, drugs are often converted into more hydrophilic (water-soluble) forms, which aids in their excretion through the kidneys. This is because hydrophilic substances are more easily eliminated from the body through urine. Additionally, drug metabolism can result in the formation of less active metabolites, which may contribute to the drug's overall effectiveness or potential side effects.Rate this question:
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- 43.
In our understanding of the mechanisms underlying epilepsy:
- A.
The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter is gamma amino butyric acid
- B.
The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter is glycine
- C.
The most important excitatory neurotransmitter is glutamate
- D.
The most important excitatory neurotransmitter is acetylcholine
Correct Answer(s)
A. The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter is gamma amino butyric acid
C. The most important excitatory neurotransmitter is glutamateExplanation
In epilepsy, the balance between inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitters is disrupted, leading to abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) is the most important inhibitory neurotransmitter, as it helps to regulate and reduce neuronal activity. Glutamate, on the other hand, is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter, as it stimulates and increases neuronal activity. Therefore, GABA acts to inhibit and calm down the brain, while glutamate acts to excite and activate the brain.Rate this question:
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- 44.
In the treatment of multiple sclerosis:
- A.
Acute attacks are usually treated using corticosteroids or ACTH
- B.
Co-polymer activates anti-inflammatory T-cells
- C.
Developement of neutralising antibodies limits activity of beta interferon 1b in up to 29% of patients after 2 years
- D.
Fampridine acts as a calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer(s)
A. Acute attacks are usually treated using corticosteroids or ACTH
B. Co-polymer activates anti-inflammatory T-cells
C. Developement of neutralising antibodies limits activity of beta interferon 1b in up to 29% of patients after 2 yearsExplanation
The treatment of multiple sclerosis involves various approaches. Acute attacks are commonly treated with corticosteroids or ACTH, which help reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms. Co-polymer activates anti-inflammatory T-cells, which can help modulate the immune response and reduce inflammation in the long term. However, the development of neutralizing antibodies can limit the effectiveness of beta interferon 1b in some patients, affecting its activity in up to 29% of patients after 2 years. Fampridine, on the other hand, acts as a calcium channel blocker and is not directly related to the treatment of acute attacks or the modulation of the immune response in multiple sclerosis.Rate this question:
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- 45.
In tuberculosis
- A.
Most cases arise from primary infection
- B.
A focus of primary infection including calcified lesion and an ipsilateral
- C.
Patients with Ghon compleax are always infectious
- D.
Miliary TB is most likely in the severly immuno-compromised patients
Correct Answer(s)
B. A focus of primary infection including calcified lesion and an ipsilateral
C. Patients with Ghon compleax are always infectious
D. Miliary TB is most likely in the severly immuno-compromised patientsExplanation
The correct answer suggests that most cases of tuberculosis arise from primary infection, which includes a focus of primary infection with a calcified lesion and an ipsilateral presentation. It also states that patients with Ghon complex are always infectious and that miliary TB is most likely to occur in severely immunocompromised patients.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Erythromycin:
- A.
Binds to and inhibits the A site on bacterial ribosomes
- B.
Binds to and inhibits the P site on bacterial ribosomes
- C.
Produces an abnormal codon
- D.
Inhibits translocation from the A site to the P site.
Correct Answer
B. Binds to and inhibits the P site on bacterial ribosomesExplanation
Erythromycin binds to and inhibits the P site on bacterial ribosomes. The P site is a specific location on the ribosome where the growing polypeptide chain is held during protein synthesis. By binding to and inhibiting the P site, erythromycin prevents the ribosome from properly functioning and inhibits the synthesis of proteins in bacteria. This mechanism of action is what makes erythromycin an effective antibiotic against bacterial infections.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In inflammation, prostanoids:
- A.
Are antipyretic
- B.
Cause “redness” by dilatation of pre-capillary venules
- C.
Directly stimulate C-fibres to cause pain
- D.
Increase vascular permeability
Correct Answer
D. Increase vascular permeabilityExplanation
Prostanoids are a group of lipid compounds that are involved in various physiological processes, including inflammation. One of their key roles in inflammation is to increase vascular permeability. This means that they cause the blood vessels to become more permeable, allowing fluid and immune cells to leak into the surrounding tissues. This increased permeability helps to facilitate the immune response by allowing immune cells to reach the site of inflammation more easily. Additionally, prostanoids can also cause other effects such as vasodilation and pain, but the specific statement in the question is about their role in increasing vascular permeability.Rate this question:
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- 48.
In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, disease-modifying antirheumatoid drugs (DMARDs)
- A.
Are second line drugs
- B.
Are usually preferred to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- C.
Are exemplified by the anti-malarial drug chloroquine
- D.
All produce a beneficial effect within days
Correct Answer(s)
A. Are second line drugs
C. Are exemplified by the anti-malarial drug chloroquineExplanation
DMARDs are considered second line drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, meaning they are used when first line treatments, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, are not effective. The use of DMARDs is usually preferred over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs due to their ability to modify the course of the disease and prevent joint damage. Chloroquine, an anti-malarial drug, is an example of a DMARD that is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. It is known to produce a beneficial effect within days of starting treatment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following conditions would most interfere with the pharmacokinetics of medication?
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Kidney disease
- C.
Angina pectoris
- D.
Brain tumor
Correct Answer
B. Kidney diseaseExplanation
Kidney disease would most interfere with the pharmacokinetics of medication. The kidneys play a crucial role in filtering and eliminating drugs from the body. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, the clearance of medications is impaired, leading to a buildup of drugs in the body. This can result in higher drug concentrations, increased risk of toxicity, and altered drug effectiveness. Therefore, kidney disease can significantly impact the pharmacokinetics of medication.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A patient has been on loratadine (Claritin) for 2 weeks. The nurse would know the drug is effective if the patient reports which of the following?
- A.
Increased ability o sleep through the night
- B.
Decreased sneezing and runny nose
- C.
Decreased nausea and vomiting
- D.
Decrease number of migraines
Correct Answer
B. Decreased sneezing and runny noseExplanation
Loratadine (Claritin) is an antihistamine commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergies such as sneezing and runny nose. If the patient reports a decrease in these symptoms, it indicates that the drug is effective in managing their allergy symptoms. The other options, including increased ability to sleep through the night, decreased nausea and vomiting, and decreased number of migraines, are not directly related to the action of loratadine and therefore do not indicate its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 26, 2011Quiz Created by
Littletough
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