Let's Test Your Pharmacology Knowledge With This Quiz
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This includes the 2009 Exam, quizzes, and some of the 2007 Exam. Each year had almost all repeats. . . So let's hope it stays that way
- 1.
Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by _________
- A.
Inhibiting aqueous formation by blocking beta2 receptors on nonpigmented ciliary epithelium
- B.
Contraction of the ciliary muscle and pupillary constriction, thus increase aqueous humor drainage
- C.
Vasoconstriction to blood vessels that increase aqueous humor production
- D.
Dilation of the pupil and cycloplegia
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Inhibiting aqueous formation by blocking beta2 receptors on nonpigmented ciliary epitheliumExplanation
Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by inhibiting aqueous formation. They do this by blocking beta2 receptors on the nonpigmented ciliary epithelium, which reduces the production of aqueous humor. By blocking these receptors, the beta-antagonists decrease the amount of fluid being produced in the eye, helping to lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. This mechanism of action is different from the other options listed, which involve different effects on the ciliary muscle, pupillary constriction, vasoconstriction, and pupil dilation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Hypertension treatment with an alpha2 agonist, such as clonidine, works by _______________
- A.
Decreasing vasular resistance by directly blocking adrenergic receptors
- B.
Acting at autoreceptors to decrease sympathetic outflow
- C.
Reducing heart rate and contractility
- D.
Displacement of NE from vesicular storage with a non-efficacious substitute
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Acting at autoreceptors to decrease sympathetic outflowExplanation
Clonidine, an alpha2 agonist, works by acting at autoreceptors to decrease sympathetic outflow. Autoreceptors are located on sympathetic nerve terminals and when activated, they inhibit the release of norepinephrine (NE), resulting in a decrease in sympathetic activity. By decreasing sympathetic outflow, clonidine helps to reduce vascular resistance and lower blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by ______________.
- A.
Relaxation of the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and urethra
- B.
Dilating bronchial airways
- C.
Increasing secretions of salivary and tear glands
- D.
Enhancing release of DA and NE
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Increasing secretions of salivary and tear glandsExplanation
Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by increasing secretions of salivary and tear glands. This is because cholinomimetics stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating glandular secretions. By enhancing the release of acetylcholine, cholinomimetics promote the production of saliva and tears, helping to alleviate the dryness and discomfort associated with Sjogrens syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The purpose of treating Alzheimer's Disease symptoms with cholinomimetics is to _______________.
- A.
Increase blood flow to cognitive brain areas
- B.
Block memory-inhibiting effects of sympathomimetics
- C.
Enhance ACh-associated memory processes
- D.
Prevent neuronal degeneration
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Enhance ACh-associated memory processesExplanation
Cholinomimetics are drugs that mimic the action of acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter involved in memory processes. By enhancing ACh-associated memory processes, these drugs can potentially improve cognitive function in individuals with Alzheimer's Disease. This explanation is supported by the fact that Alzheimer's Disease is characterized by a decrease in ACh levels in the brain, and cholinomimetics can help compensate for this deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcer by __________.
- A.
Reducing gastric motility and gastric acid secretion
- B.
Increasing secretions of gastric epithelium
- C.
Inhibition of cholinesterase enzymes in the stomach
- D.
Vasoconstriction to decrease blood flow to the esophagus
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Reducing gastric motility and gastric acid secretionExplanation
Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcers by reducing gastric motility and gastric acid secretion. These medications block the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors in the stomach, which leads to a decrease in gastric motility and a reduction in the production of gastric acid. By inhibiting these processes, muscarinic antagonists help to alleviate the symptoms of peptic ulcers and promote healing. The other options, increasing secretions of gastric epithelium and inhibition of cholinesterase enzymes in the stomach, are not correct explanations for the mechanism of action of muscarinic antagonists in treating peptic ulcers. Vasoconstriction to decrease blood flow to the esophagus is also not a mechanism of action for these medications.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Alpha-1 selective agonists include ________________.
- A.
Phenylephrine [Neosynephrine]
- B.
Mephentermine [Wyamine Sulfate]
- C.
Meteraminol [Aramine]
- D.
Methoxamine [Vasoxyl]
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Alpha-1 selective agonists are a class of drugs that specifically target and activate alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the body. These receptors are found in various tissues and organs, including blood vessels and smooth muscles. Phenylephrine, mephentermine, meteraminol, and methoxamine are all examples of alpha-1 selective agonists. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all of these drugs belong to the class of alpha-1 selective agonists.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Darifenacin is used to ________________.
- A.
Block cholinergic tachycardia
- B.
Treat COPD
- C.
Treat nerve gas poisoning
- D.
Enhance epithelial secretions
- E.
Decrease cholinergic drug side effects
Correct Answer
E. Decrease cholinergic drug side effectsExplanation
Darifenacin is a medication that is used to decrease cholinergic drug side effects. Cholinergic drugs stimulate the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to various side effects such as increased heart rate (tachycardia). Darifenacin works by blocking the effects of acetylcholine in certain parts of the body, helping to reduce the unwanted side effects of cholinergic drugs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Indirect-acting sympatholytics include:
- A.
Alpha-methyldopa
- B.
Guanadrel [Hylorel]
- C.
Carbidopa
- D.
Three of these is correct...
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Three of these is correct...Explanation
The correct answer is "three of these is correct..." because all three options listed - alpha-methyldopa, guanadrel, and carbidopa - are examples of indirect-acting sympatholytics. These medications work by inhibiting the release or uptake of norepinephrine, leading to a decrease in sympathetic nervous system activity.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The following drugs activate alpha2 receptors:
- A.
Apraclonidine [Iopidine] and Clonidine [Catapres]
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Terbutaline
- D.
Dobutamine
- E.
Two are correct
Correct Answer
E. Two are correctExplanation
Apraclonidine and Clonidine are both drugs that activate alpha2 receptors. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma (Apraclonidine) and hypertension (Clonidine). Activation of alpha2 receptors leads to a decrease in sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. Epinephrine, Terbutaline, and Dobutamine do not activate alpha2 receptors, but instead have different mechanisms of action.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics include _________
- A.
Bethanecol and cevimeline
- B.
Physostigmine and neostigmine
- C.
Pilocarpine and carbachol
- D.
Ecothiophate and isofluophate
- E.
Two of these choices is correct
Correct Answer
E. Two of these choices is correctExplanation
The correct answer is "two of these choices is correct." This means that there are two options among the given choices that are direct-acting cholinomimetics. The options listed are bethanecol, cevimeline, physostigmine, neostigmine, pilocarpine, carbachol, ecothiophate, and isofluophate. The explanation does not specify which two choices are correct, but it suggests that there are two direct-acting cholinomimetics among these options.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Biperidin [Akineton] is a ________________.
- A.
Indirect-acting sympathomimetic
- B.
M2 selective agonist
- C.
Reversible AChE inhibitor
- D.
Direct-acting adrenergic agonist
- E.
Muscarinic/nicotinic antagonist
Correct Answer
E. Muscarinic/nicotinic antagonistExplanation
Biperidin [Akineton] is classified as a muscarinic/nicotinic antagonist. This means that it blocks the action of acetylcholine (ACh) at both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. By inhibiting ACh from binding to these receptors, biperidin reduces the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to a decrease in cholinergic effects. This can be useful in treating conditions such as Parkinson's disease, where there is an excess of ACh activity.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Tolterodine tartrate [Detrol LA] is a ____________ used as a treatment for ______________.
- A.
Muscarinic antagonist; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B.
Reversible AChE inhibitor; secretions
- C.
Muscarinic antagonist; overactive bladder
- D.
Non-selective alpha-antagonist, hypertension
- E.
M1 selective antagonist; peptic ulcer
Correct Answer
C. Muscarinic antagonist; overactive bladderExplanation
Tolterodine tartrate is a muscarinic antagonist, which means it blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. It is used as a treatment for overactive bladder, as it helps to relax the bladder muscles and reduce urinary frequency and urgency.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Parathion and malathion are ______________.
- A.
Parasympatholytics
- B.
Irreversible AChE inhibitors
- C.
Indirect-acting cholinomimetics
- D.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics
- E.
Two of these choices is correct
Correct Answer
E. Two of these choices is correctExplanation
Parathion and malathion are two of these choices is correct. Both parathion and malathion are organophosphate insecticides that act as irreversible acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. This means that they inhibit the enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine, leading to an accumulation of acetylcholine at the synapses and overstimulation of cholinergic receptors. This results in symptoms of cholinergic poisoning. Therefore, they can be classified as indirect-acting cholinomimetics. Additionally, they can also be considered as parasympatholytics because they inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for rest and digest activities.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Non-selective beta-antagonists, such as ________ are used to treat __________.
- A.
Nadolol [Corgard] and Pindolol [Visken]; bradycardia
- B.
Timolol [Timoptic] and Levobunolol [Betagan]; glaucoma
- C.
Acebutolol [Sectral], Atenolol [Tenormin]; ADHD
- D.
Isoproterenol [Isuprel] and Dobutamine [Dobutrex]; hypertension
- E.
Apraclonidine [Iopidine] and Clonidine [Catapres]; intraocular pressure
Correct Answer
B. Timolol [Timoptic] and Levobunolol [Betagan]; glaucomaExplanation
Timolol and Levobunolol are non-selective beta-antagonists that are used to treat glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and these medications help to reduce the pressure by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Dextroamphetamine [Dexadrine] is a(n) ________________.
- A.
Non-selective beta-antagonist
- B.
Indirect-acting sympathomimetic
- C.
M1 selective antagonist
- D.
M3 selective antagonist
- E.
Direct-acting sympatholytic
Correct Answer
B. Indirect-acting sympathomimeticExplanation
Dextroamphetamine is classified as an indirect-acting sympathomimetic because it works by increasing the release and blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain. This leads to increased stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in increased alertness, focus, and energy.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Sarin, soman and tabun are ________________.
- A.
Parasympatholytics
- B.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics
- C.
Reversible AChE Inhibitors
- D.
Indirect-acting cholinomimetics
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Indirect-acting cholinomimeticsExplanation
Sarin, soman, and tabun are classified as indirect-acting cholinomimetics. This means that they do not directly bind to and activate cholinergic receptors, but instead inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting AChE, these substances increase the levels of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, leading to excessive stimulation of cholinergic receptors. This can result in a range of symptoms, including muscle twitching, convulsions, respiratory distress, and ultimately, paralysis.Rate this question:
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- 17.
_______would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist.
- A.
Propranolol
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Terbutaline [Brethine]
- D.
Isoproterenol
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Terbutaline [Brethine]Explanation
Terbutaline [Brethine] would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist. This means that it specifically targets and activates the Beta2 receptors in the body. Propranolol, epinephrine, and isoproterenol, on the other hand, are non-selective beta agonists, meaning they activate both Beta1 and Beta2 receptors. Therefore, terbutaline is the only option that fits the criteria of being a Beta2-selective agonist.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Methylphenidate [Ritalin] is an example of a(n) ________.
- A.
Indirect-acting sympathomimetic
- B.
Beta2 selective agonist
- C.
Direct-acting sympathomimetic
- D.
Alpha1-selective agonist
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Indirect-acting sympathomimeticExplanation
Methylphenidate, also known as Ritalin, is classified as an indirect-acting sympathomimetic. This means that it enhances the release and inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain. By increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters, methylphenidate can improve attention, focus, and impulse control in individuals with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). This classification distinguishes methylphenidate from direct-acting sympathomimetics, which directly stimulate adrenergic receptors, and other types of agonists such as beta2 selective agonists and alpha1-selective agonists.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Edophonium and ambenonium are _______________.
- A.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics
- B.
Indirect-acting cholinomimetics
- C.
Irreversible AChE inhibitors
- D.
Parasympatholytics
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Indirect-acting cholinomimeticsExplanation
Edophonium and ambenonium are indirect-acting cholinomimetics because they inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). By inhibiting AChE, these drugs increase the concentration of ACh in the synaptic cleft, leading to enhanced cholinergic neurotransmission and increased activation of cholinergic receptors. This results in various physiological effects, such as increased muscle strength and improved neuromuscular transmission in conditions like myasthenia gravis.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Propranolol [Inderal] is used to treat ___________.
- A.
COPD
- B.
Peptic ulcer
- C.
Stuff nose
- D.
Benign prostate hyperplasia
- E.
Hypertension
Correct Answer
E. HypertensionExplanation
Propranolol, also known as Inderal, is a medication commonly used to treat hypertension, which is high blood pressure. It works by blocking certain receptors in the body, resulting in decreased heart rate and blood pressure. By reducing blood pressure, propranolol helps to prevent complications associated with hypertension, such as heart attacks, strokes, and kidney problems. It is not used to treat COPD, peptic ulcer, stuffy nose, or benign prostate hyperplasia.Rate this question:
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- 21.
_______________ is an alpha2-selective antagonist.
- A.
Clonidine [Catapres]
- B.
Yohimbine [Yocon]
- C.
Metoprolol [Lopressor]
- D.
Esmolol [Brevibloc]
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Yohimbine [Yocon]Explanation
Yohimbine is an alpha2-selective antagonist. This means that it blocks the alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for inhibiting the release of norepinephrine. By blocking these receptors, yohimbine increases the release of norepinephrine, leading to increased sympathetic activity. This can have various effects on the body, including increased blood pressure and heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Tacrine is a _____________.
- A.
M3 selective antagonist
- B.
Direct-acting sympathomimetic
- C.
Indirect-acting cholinomimetic
- D.
Non-selective muscarinic agaonist
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Indirect-acting cholinomimeticExplanation
Tacrine is classified as an indirect-acting cholinomimetic. This means that it increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the brain by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, tacrine allows for increased levels of acetylcholine, which can improve cognitive function in patients with Alzheimer's disease.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Alpha1-selective antagonists include:
- A.
Timolol [Blocadren]
- B.
Carteolol [Occupress]
- C.
Yohimbine [Yocon]
- D.
Tamsulosin HCl [Flomax]
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Tamsulosin HCl [Flomax]Explanation
Tamsulosin HCl [Flomax] is the correct answer because it is an alpha1-selective antagonist. Alpha1-selective antagonists are a class of drugs that block the alpha1-adrenergic receptors, which are found primarily in smooth muscle in the prostate, bladder neck, and urethra. Tamsulosin specifically targets the alpha1A-adrenergic receptors in the prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle and improved urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Timolol, carteolol, and yohimbine are not alpha1-selective antagonists, so they are not correct answers.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Scopolamine is a ___________ and a(n) _____________ that is used for _____________.
- A.
M1; M3 selective antagonists, COPD treatment
- B.
M1; M4 selective antagonist; peptic ulcer
- C.
Muscarinic antagonist; antispasmodic; bladder-specific actions
- D.
Muscarinic antagonist; belladonna alkaloid; motion sickness
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Muscarinic antagonist; belladonna alkaloid; motion sicknessExplanation
Scopolamine is a muscarinic antagonist, which means it blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. It is derived from the belladonna alkaloid, which is a natural compound found in the belladonna plant. Scopolamine is used specifically for the treatment of motion sickness, as it helps to reduce nausea and dizziness associated with motion.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is an example of a(n)_________.
- A.
Direct-acting sympathomimetic
- B.
Alpha1-selective agonist
- C.
Non-selective alpha-agonist
- D.
M3-selective antagonist
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Direct-acting sympathomimeticExplanation
Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is classified as a direct-acting sympathomimetic because it directly stimulates the beta-adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system. This leads to various physiological effects such as increased heart rate, bronchodilation, and vasodilation. Isoproterenol does not have selectivity for specific adrenergic receptor subtypes, making it a non-selective agonist. Therefore, the correct answer is direct-acting sympathomimetic.Rate this question:
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- 26.
_________ is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug
- A.
Phenylephrine
- B.
Apraclonidine
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Mephentermine
- E.
Methoxamine
Correct Answer
C. EpinepHrineExplanation
Epinephrine is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug because it acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and bronchodilation. Epinephrine is commonly used in emergency situations to treat anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma attacks. Its non-selective action allows it to have a wide range of effects on various organ systems in the body.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Flavoxate hydrochoride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride [Bentyl] are _______________.
- A.
Beta-agonists
- B.
Muscarinic agonists
- C.
Indirect-acting cholinomimetics
- D.
Reversible AChE inhibitors
- E.
Muscarinic antagonists
Correct Answer
E. Muscarinic antagonistsExplanation
Flavoxate hydrochloride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride [Bentyl] are muscarinic antagonists. Muscarinic antagonists block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, which are found in various tissues in the body. By blocking these receptors, muscarinic antagonists can inhibit the effects of acetylcholine, such as smooth muscle contractions and secretions. Flavoxate hydrochloride and Dicyclomine hydrochloride are commonly used to treat conditions such as urinary bladder spasms and irritable bowel syndrome, where excessive smooth muscle contractions are present.Rate this question:
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- 28.
______________ is a(n) M2 selective antagonist.
- A.
Homatropine
- B.
Telenzepine
- C.
Pirenzepine
- D.
Darifenacine
- E.
Tripitamine
Correct Answer
E. Tripitamine -
- 29.
Irreversible AChE inhibitors include:
- A.
Isoflurophate and malathion
- B.
Ecothiophate and parathion
- C.
Darifenacine and tripitamine
- D.
Carbachol and cevimeline
- E.
Two of these choices is correct
Correct Answer
E. Two of these choices is correctExplanation
The correct answer is "two of these choices is correct". This means that out of the given options, two of them are irreversible AChE inhibitors. However, without knowing which specific options are correct, we cannot determine the exact choices.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a ___________ used as a treatment for _____________.
- A.
Muscarinic antagonist; eye examinations
- B.
Indirect-acting sympathomimetic; inattention
- C.
M1/M3 selective antagonist; cholinergic-induced bradycardia
- D.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics; Sjogren's syndrome
- E.
M1/M3 selective antagonist; COPD
Correct Answer
E. M1/M3 selective antagonist; COPDExplanation
Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used as a treatment for COPD. This medication works by blocking the M1 and M3 receptors, which are responsible for bronchoconstriction and mucus production. By blocking these receptors, tiotropium bromide helps to relax the airway muscles and reduce mucus production, improving breathing and reducing symptoms in patients with COPD.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Prazosin [Minipress] is a(n)_______________.
- A.
Alpha1-selective agonist
- B.
Non-selective beta-antagonist
- C.
Alpha1-selective antagonist
- D.
Beta-agonist
- E.
Parasympatholytic
Correct Answer
C. AlpHa1-selective antagonistExplanation
Prazosin, also known as Minipress, is classified as an alpha1-selective antagonist. This means that it specifically blocks the alpha1-adrenergic receptors, which are found in smooth muscle tissues of blood vessels and the prostate gland. By blocking these receptors, prazosin causes relaxation of the smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. It is commonly used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Carteolol [Occupress] is a(n) ________________.
- A.
Alpha1-selective antagonist
- B.
Alpha1-selective agonist
- C.
Non-selective beta-antagonist
- D.
Non-selective alpha-agonist
- E.
Alpha2-selective antagonist
Correct Answer
C. Non-selective beta-antagonistExplanation
Carteolol [Occupress] is classified as a non-selective beta-antagonist. This means that it blocks the beta receptors in the body, specifically the beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. By doing so, it reduces the effects of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart and blood vessels, leading to a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. This class of medications is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and certain heart rhythm disorders.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Ritodrine is a beta2-selective agonist
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Ritodrine is classified as a beta2-selective agonist because it specifically targets and activates beta2-adrenergic receptors. This means that it has a higher affinity for beta2 receptors compared to other subtypes, such as beta1 receptors. As a beta2 agonist, Ritodrine primarily acts on smooth muscles in the bronchioles and blood vessels, leading to bronchodilation and vasodilation. This makes it useful in medical settings for conditions such as asthma and premature labor.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist, meaning it specifically targets and blocks the M1 receptor subtype. This suggests that it has a high affinity for the M1 receptor and does not significantly interact with other receptor subtypes. Therefore, the statement "Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist" is true.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Fusaric acid is a neurotransmitter synthesis inhibitor
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Fusaric acid is a compound that has been found to inhibit the synthesis of neurotransmitters. This means that it interferes with the production of neurotransmitters in the brain, which are important for communication between nerve cells. As a result, the correct answer is true.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Albuterol [Ventolin, Proventil] treats bronchospasm by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Albuterol, also known as Ventolin or Proventil, is a medication used to treat bronchospasm. It works by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles, which helps to open up the airways and make breathing easier. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Alpha1-antagonists treat benign prostatic hyperplasia via relaxing smooth muscle in bladder neck, prostate and urethra, which result in increased urinary flow.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Alpha1-antagonists are indeed used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing the smooth muscle in the bladder neck, prostate, and urethra. This relaxation helps to relieve the symptoms of BPH, such as difficulty urinating and decreased urinary flow. By increasing urinary flow, alpha1-antagonists can improve the overall quality of life for individuals with BPH. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 38.
CLD 11090 is an example of a beta3-selective agonist
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
CLD 11090 is not an example of a beta3-selective agonist.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Physostigmine and revastigmine are both drugs that inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) in a reversible manner. AChE is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and by inhibiting this enzyme, the levels of acetylcholine in the brain are increased. This can be beneficial in certain conditions, such as Alzheimer's disease, where there is a deficiency of acetylcholine. Therefore, the statement that physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors is correct.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Nicotinic and/or muscarinic receptors are located in
- A.
Postganglionic parasympathetic nervous system
- B.
Sweat glands
- C.
Brain
- D.
Neuromuscular junction
- E.
All of these are correct
Correct Answer
E. All of these are correctExplanation
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are both types of cholinergic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are located in the postganglionic parasympathetic nervous system, sweat glands, and the neuromuscular junction. Muscarinic receptors are found in the brain and various other tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is that all of these locations have either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The acetylcholinesterase enzyme ____________________.
- A.
Is a very small molecule
- B.
Prolongs cholinergic signal transmission
- C.
Causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholine
- D.
Enters a gorge in the large ACh molecule
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholineExplanation
The acetylcholinesterase enzyme causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for transmitting signals between nerve cells. By rapidly breaking down acetylcholine, acetylcholinesterase helps to terminate the cholinergic signal transmission. This allows for precise control and regulation of nerve impulses in the body.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Muscarinic antagonists constrict pupils (miosis) and decrease heart rate
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Muscarinic antagonists actually dilate pupils (mydriasis) instead of constricting them, and they increase heart rate instead of decreasing it. Therefore, the correct answer is false.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Based on the Atropine Sensitivity Curve, ___________ are most sensitive to the effects of muscarinic antagonism, while the _____________ is least sensitive.
- A.
Salivary glands; gastrointestinal tract
- B.
Pupillary muscles, heart
- C.
Urinary tracts, lungs
- D.
Cardiac events, ciliary muscles
- E.
All
Correct Answer
A. Salivary glands; gastrointestinal tractExplanation
The Atropine Sensitivity Curve indicates that the salivary glands are most sensitive to the effects of muscarinic antagonism, while the gastrointestinal tract is least sensitive. This means that when muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands are blocked by atropine, it will have a stronger effect on reducing salivation compared to the gastrointestinal tract.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The actions of a1- antagonists that decrease hypertension include _____________.
- A.
Relaxing smooth muscle in bladder neck, prostate and urethra
- B.
Reducing peripheral resistance in vasculature
- C.
Slowing down heart rate
- D.
Intracavernous vasodilation
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Reducing peripHeral resistance in vasculatureExplanation
The actions of a1-antagonists that decrease hypertension include reducing peripheral resistance in the vasculature. This means that these drugs help to relax and widen the blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily and reducing the overall resistance to blood flow. By reducing peripheral resistance, the pressure on the walls of the blood vessels decreases, leading to a decrease in hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The alphas-antagonist, yohimbine, increases blood pressure and heart rate by an action on:
- A.
Pre-synaptic autoreceptors
- B.
Post-synaptic receptors on the heart muscle
- C.
Peripheral nicotinic receptors
- D.
Sympathetic uptake inhibitors
- E.
All are correct
Correct Answer
A. Pre-synaptic autoreceptorsExplanation
Yohimbine, an alpha-antagonist, increases blood pressure and heart rate by acting on pre-synaptic autoreceptors. Autoreceptors are located on the presynaptic neuron and regulate the release of neurotransmitters. By blocking these autoreceptors, yohimbine enhances the release of norepinephrine, leading to increased sympathetic activity, vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure and heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 46.
B1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located ________________.
- A.
In the respiratory system
- B.
On cardiac muscle
- C.
On lipid cells
- D.
In the liver
- E.
On muscle tissue
Correct Answer
B. On cardiac muscleExplanation
b1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located on cardiac muscle. This means that these antagonists specifically target and bind to the beta-1 adrenergic receptors found on the surface of cardiac muscle cells. By blocking these receptors, b1-antagonists can reduce the effects of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart, such as decreasing heart rate and blood pressure. This selective action on cardiac muscle makes b1-antagonists commonly used in the treatment of conditions like hypertension, angina, and heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Non-selective beta-antagonists have utility in treating _______________
- A.
Cardiac arrhythmias
- B.
Acute dissection aortic aneurysm
- C.
Migraine prevention
- D.
Hyperthyroidism
- E.
All are correct
Correct Answer
E. All are correctExplanation
Non-selective beta-antagonists are a class of drugs that block the action of beta receptors in the body. These receptors are found in various organs and tissues, including the heart, blood vessels, and thyroid gland. By blocking these receptors, non-selective beta-antagonists can be used to treat different conditions. In the case of cardiac arrhythmias, these drugs can help regulate the heart's rhythm. They can also be used in the treatment of acute dissection aortic aneurysm to reduce the force on the heart. Additionally, non-selective beta-antagonists can be effective in preventing migraines by reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. Lastly, they can be used in the management of hyperthyroidism to block the effects of excess thyroid hormones. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are correct uses for non-selective beta-antagonists.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Reversible AChE inhibitors include:
- A.
Physostigmine and rivastigmine
- B.
Pilocarpine and bethanecol
- C.
Tropicamide and homatropine
- D.
Carbachol and isoflurophate
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. pHysostigmine and rivastigmineExplanation
Physostigmine and rivastigmine are both reversible acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. AChE is an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and inhibiting this enzyme can increase the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. Physostigmine is a natural alkaloid derived from the Calabar bean and is used to treat conditions like glaucoma and Alzheimer's disease. Rivastigmine is a synthetic derivative of physostigmine and is also used for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. Both drugs work by reversibly inhibiting AChE, allowing for increased acetylcholine levels and improved cognitive function.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Fusaric acid is a(n) ____________.
- A.
M1 selective antagonist
- B.
M3 selective antagonist
- C.
Direct-acting sympatholytic
- D.
Non-selective beta-antagonist
- E.
Indirect-acting sympatholytic
Correct Answer
E. Indirect-acting sympatholyticExplanation
Fusaric acid is categorized as an indirect-acting sympatholytic. This means that it indirectly inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response in the body. It does so by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system. By preventing the reuptake of norepinephrine, fusaric acid prolongs its effects and reduces sympathetic activity, leading to a decrease in the "fight or flight" response.Rate this question:
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- 50.
___________ is an example of a b3-selective agonist.
- A.
ICI 118551
- B.
CGP 20712A
- C.
BRL 37344
- D.
CLD 11090
- E.
RAG 15192
Correct Answer
C. BRL 37344Explanation
BRL 37344 is an example of a b3-selective agonist.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Oct 23, 2024Quiz Edited by
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May 04, 2012Quiz Created by
Babo07
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