Plan Aid Academy Teacher Proficiency Test In Sciences
. Biology Chemistry Physics Combine in One paper
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In evolution, analogous structures are significant because they show?
- A.
Physiological diversity
- B.
Functional diversity
- C.
Genetic diversity
- D.
Structural diversity
Correct Answer
A. pHysiological diversityExplanation
Analogous structures in evolution are significant because they show physiological diversity. Analogous structures are structures that have similar functions but different origins, which suggests that different species have independently evolved similar adaptations to suit their specific environments or lifestyles. This indicates a wide range of physiological adaptations and diversity among species, allowing them to survive and thrive in different ecological niches.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which of the following statements reflects the mechanism of natural?
- A.
Organisms with selective advantages are less likely to survive
- B.
No organism in a species dies before sexual maturity
- C.
There are variations within every species
- D.
Individuals of every species are genetically identical
Correct Answer
C. There are variations within every speciesExplanation
The correct answer is "There are variations within every species." This statement reflects the mechanism of natural selection because it acknowledges that there is genetic diversity within a species. This genetic variation allows for some individuals to possess traits that give them a selective advantage in their environment. Through natural selection, individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their traits to future generations.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which of the following animals exhibits territoriality?
- A.
Rabbit
- B.
Earthworm
- C.
Toad
- D.
Lizard
Correct Answer
D. LizardExplanation
Lizards exhibit territoriality, which is the behavior of defending a specific area or territory against intruders. They mark their territory with scent markings or by displaying aggressive behaviors towards other lizards. This behavior helps them secure resources such as food, mates, and shelter within their territory, and also reduces competition with other individuals of the same species.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
The branch of Biology that deals with the principles of classification of organisms is known as ?
- A.
taxonomy
- B.
Ecology
- C.
Nomenclature
- D.
Biological index
Correct Answer
A. taxonomyExplanation
Taxonomy is the branch of biology that deals with the principles of classification of organisms. It involves the identification, naming, and categorization of organisms based on their characteristics and evolutionary relationships. Taxonomy helps in organizing and understanding the vast diversity of living organisms on Earth. Ecology is the study of the interactions between organisms and their environment, while nomenclature refers to the naming of organisms. Biological index is not a recognized branch of biology.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which of the following structures is a tissue?
- A.
Sieve tube element
- B.
Vessel element
- C.
Blood
- D.
Erythrocyte
Correct Answer
C. BloodExplanation
Blood is a tissue because it is composed of different types of cells suspended in a liquid matrix called plasma. These cells include red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets. Together, these cells perform various functions such as oxygen transport, immune response, and blood clotting. Therefore, blood meets the definition of a tissue, which is a group of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which of the following cells are not regarded as specialized?
- A.
Root up cells
- B.
Muscle cells
- C.
Somatic cells
- D.
Sperm cells
Correct Answer
C. Somatic cellsExplanation
Somatic cells are not regarded as specialized because they make up the majority of the body's cells and perform general functions such as growth, maintenance, and repair. In contrast, root up cells are specialized for absorbing water and nutrients, muscle cells are specialized for contraction and movement, and sperm cells are specialized for fertilization.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which of the following pairs of cells carry out the same function?
- A.
Spermatozoon and ovum
- B.
Check cell and red blood cell
- C.
Palisade cell and epidermal cell
- D.
Root tip cell and guard cell
Correct Answer
A. Spermatozoon and ovumExplanation
Spermatozoon and ovum are both reproductive cells involved in sexual reproduction. They carry out the same function of fertilization, where the spermatozoon fertilizes the ovum to form a zygote. Both cells have specialized structures and functions that enable them to participate in the process of reproduction.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
If Amoeba is placed in a salt solution. the contractile vacuoles would Options?
- A.
Be bursting more frequently
- B.
be more numerous
- C.
Grow bigger before they burst
- D.
Be formed less frequently
Correct Answer
D. Be formed less frequentlyExplanation
When an amoeba is placed in a salt solution, the concentration of salt outside the cell is higher than inside the cell. This creates a hypertonic environment, causing water to move out of the amoeba through osmosis. The contractile vacuoles in amoeba are responsible for regulating water balance by pumping out excess water. In a salt solution, there is less water entering the amoeba, so the contractile vacuoles would need to form less frequently to expel the smaller amount of water.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
In which of the following habitats is paramecium not fo
- A.
Pond
- B.
Aquarium
- C.
Lake
- D.
Puddle
Correct Answer
B. AquariumExplanation
Paramecium is a type of freshwater protozoan that is commonly found in ponds, lakes, and puddles. However, it is not typically found in aquariums. This is because aquariums are usually controlled environments with specific water conditions and limited food sources, which may not be suitable for the survival and growth of paramecium.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
The following processes are involved in water movement in the endo dermis except?
- A.
Osmosis
- B.
Vascular pathway
- C.
Diffusion
- D.
Active transport
Correct Answer
C. DiffusionExplanation
Water movement in the endodermis is primarily driven by osmosis, which is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. This process is facilitated by the presence of a selectively permeable Casparian strip in the endodermal cell walls. The vascular pathway refers to the movement of water through the xylem vessels. Active transport is the movement of ions or molecules against their concentration gradient, requiring the use of energy. Diffusion, on the other hand, is the passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. In the context of water movement in the endodermis, diffusion does not play a significant role.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which of the following sources of energy contributes to green-house effect ?
- A.
Natural gas
- B.
Nuclear
- C.
Wind
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Natural gasExplanation
Natural gas is a fossil fuel that releases greenhouse gases when burned, such as carbon dioxide and methane. These gases trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming. Therefore, natural gas is a source of energy that contributes to the greenhouse effect.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which one do you like?
- A.
Air pollution
- B.
A consequence of global warming is
- C.
Flooding
- D.
Increased humidity
Correct Answer
B. A consequence of global warming isExplanation
The correct answer is "A consequence of global warming is". This answer is correct because the question is asking for something that is a consequence of global warming, and both air pollution and flooding can be consequences of global warming. Increased humidity is not directly mentioned as a consequence of global warming, so it is not the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which of the following metals is common to both brass and bronze ?
- A.
Copper
- B.
Alluminium
- C.
Lead
- D.
Iron
Correct Answer
A. CopperExplanation
Brass and bronze are both alloys, which means they are made by combining multiple metals. Copper is common to both brass and bronze, as it is the main component in both alloys. Brass is made by combining copper and zinc, while bronze is made by combining copper and tin. Therefore, copper is the correct answer as it is the metal that is common to both brass and bronze.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is?
- A.
Dihydric Alkanol
- B.
Tri hydric Alkanol
- C.
Monohydric Alkanol
- D.
Tertiary Alkanol
Correct Answer
B. Tri hydric AlkanolExplanation
The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is a trihydric alkanol. Soap is typically made through a process called saponification, where a fat or oil reacts with an alkali, such as sodium hydroxide. During this reaction, glycerol is formed as a byproduct. Glycerol, also known as glycerin, is a trihydric alkanol because it contains three hydroxyl groups (-OH). Therefore, the correct answer is trihydric alkanol.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
When a compound X is heated with concentrated tetraoxosulphate(VI)acid, it produces an alkene. X is an ?
- A.
Alkane
- B.
Alkyne
- C.
Alkanoate
- D.
Alkanol
Correct Answer
D. AlkanolExplanation
When a compound X is heated with concentrated tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid, it produces an alkene. Alkanol is the correct answer because alkanols can undergo dehydration in the presence of a strong acid, such as concentrated tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid, to form alkenes. Alkanes, alkynes, and alkanoates do not undergo this reaction to produce alkenes.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Ripening of fruits is hastened by using?
- A.
Ethene
- B.
Ethyne
- C.
Ethane
- D.
Ethanol
Correct Answer
A. EtheneExplanation
Ethene is a plant hormone that plays a crucial role in the ripening process of fruits. It stimulates the production of enzymes that break down cell walls, leading to softening of the fruit. Ethene also promotes the conversion of starches into sugars, enhancing the sweetness and flavor of the fruit. By using ethene, the ripening process can be accelerated, allowing fruits to be harvested earlier and reach the market in a ripe state. Ethyne, ethane, and ethanol do not have the same ripening effects as ethene, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Which of the following compounds is/are secondary alkanols ? i) CH CH(CH)CH OH ii) CH CH CH(OH)CH iii) CH C(OH)(CH )CH
- A.
I only
- B.
II and III only
- C.
II only
- D.
I and III only
Correct Answer
C. II onlyExplanation
A secondary alkanol is an alcohol in which the hydroxyl group (-OH) is attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to two other carbon atoms. In option II, the hydroxyl group is attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to two other carbon atoms, making it a secondary alkanol. In option I, the hydroxyl group is attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to only one other carbon atom, making it a primary alkanol. In option III, the hydroxyl group is attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to three other carbon atoms, making it a tertiary alkanol. Therefore, the correct answer is II only.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Consider the following reaction equation: C H + 3O 2CO + 2H O . The volume of oxygen at s.t.p that will be required to burn 14g of ethene is [C H = 28; Molar volume of gas at s.t.p = 22.4dm ?
- A.
33.6dm 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 4(g) 2(g) → 2(g) 2 (l) 2 4 3 333 3
- B.
11.2dm
- C.
3.73dm 3
- D.
64.2dm
Correct Answer
A. 33.6dm 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 4(g) 2(g) → 2(g) 2 (l) 2 4 3 333 3Explanation
The given answer, 33.6dm^3, is the correct volume of oxygen at s.t.p that will be required to burn 14g of ethene. This can be determined by using the stoichiometry of the reaction equation. From the equation, we can see that 1 mole of ethene (C2H4) reacts with 3 moles of oxygen (O2) to produce 2 moles of carbon monoxide (CO) and 2 moles of water (H2O). The molar mass of ethene is 28g/mol, so 14g of ethene is equal to 0.5 moles. Therefore, we need 1.5 moles of oxygen to react with 0.5 moles of ethene. Since the molar volume of gas at s.t.p is 22.4dm^3/mol, we can calculate that 1.5 moles of oxygen will occupy 33.6dm^3 of volume.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Which of the following substances is a non-electrolytes ?
- A.
C 6 H 12 O 6
- B.
NH 4Cl
- C.
CH 3 COOH [C H = 28; Molar volume of gas at s.t.p = 22.4dm
- D.
H 2 SO 4
Correct Answer
A. C 6 H 12 O 6Explanation
C6H12O6 is a non-electrolyte because it does not dissociate into ions when dissolved in water. It is a covalent compound and does not conduct electricity in solution.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
The oxidation number of sulphur is +4 in ?
- A.
H 2 SO3
- B.
H 2 SO 43
- C.
Na 2 S 2 O3
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. H 2 SO3Explanation
The oxidation number of an element in a compound is a measure of the number of electrons that an atom gains or loses when it forms a compound. In H2SO3, the oxidation number of hydrogen is +1, and the oxidation number of oxygen is -2. By assigning x to the oxidation number of sulfur, the sum of the oxidation numbers in H2SO3 is 0. Therefore, the oxidation number of sulfur must be +4 to balance the equation.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
What determines the polarity at the ends of an electromagnet? The
- A.
Direction of current in the wire
- B.
Material of the coil
- C.
Material of the core of the magnet
- D.
Magnitude of the current passing through the wire
Correct Answer
A. Direction of current in the wireExplanation
The polarity at the ends of an electromagnet is determined by the direction of the current in the wire. When the current flows in one direction, it creates a magnetic field with a specific polarity. Reversing the direction of the current will result in a reversal of the magnetic field's polarity. Therefore, the direction of the current determines the polarity at the ends of the electromagnet.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
How many beta particle(s) are emitted in the radioactive decay of ?How many beta particle(s) are emitted in the radioactive decay of ?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
In the radioactive decay process, a beta particle is emitted when a neutron in the nucleus of an atom decays into a proton. The given question asks how many beta particles are emitted in the decay of an unknown radioactive substance. Since the question does not provide any specific information about the substance or the decay process, it can be assumed that only one beta particle is emitted based on the fact that a single beta decay event typically involves the emission of one beta particle.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
The phenomenon by which two light atomic nuclear combine to form a heavy nuclide with the release of energy is known as?
- A.
Radioactivity
- B.
Nuclear fusion
- C.
nuclear fission
- D.
chain reaction
Correct Answer
B. Nuclear fusionExplanation
Nuclear fusion is the correct answer because it is the process in which two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nuclide, releasing a large amount of energy in the process. This process is responsible for the energy production in stars, including our sun.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
In a p-type semiconductor, the ?
- A.
Number of holes are equal to the number of electrons
- B.
Electrical resistivity increases
- C.
Holes are the majority charge carriers
- D.
Electrons are the majority charge carriers
Correct Answer
C. Holes are the majority charge carriersExplanation
In a p-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are holes. In p-type semiconductors, impurities are added to the pure semiconductor material, creating extra positively charged holes. These holes are considered as the majority charge carriers because they are more abundant than the electrons. The presence of these holes allows for the conduction of electric current in p-type semiconductors.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Let Δx be the uncertainty in the measurements of position and Δp the uncertainty in measurement of momentum. The uncertainty principle relation is given as ?
- A.
Δx . Δp ≥h
- B.
Δx . Δp > h
- C.
Δx . Δp ≤ h
- D.
Δx . Δp = h
Correct Answer
A. Δx . Δp ≥hExplanation
The uncertainty principle states that the product of the uncertainty in position (Δx) and the uncertainty in momentum (Δp) must be greater than or equal to Planck's constant (h). This means that it is impossible to simultaneously know the exact position and momentum of a particle with complete certainty. The correct answer, Δx . Δp ≥ h, reflects this principle.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Two objects of masses 80kg and 50kg are separated by a distance of 0.2m. If the gravitational constant is 6.6 x 10 Nm kg, calculate the gravitational attraction between them. ?
- A.
4.9 × 10 N
- B.
1.3 × 10 N
- C.
2.6 × 10 N
- D.
6.6 × 10 N
Correct Answer
D. 6.6 × 10 NExplanation
The gravitational attraction between two objects can be calculated using the formula:
F = (G * m1 * m2) / r^2
Where F is the gravitational force, G is the gravitational constant, m1 and m2 are the masses of the objects, and r is the distance between them.
In this case, the masses of the objects are given as 80kg and 50kg, and the distance between them is given as 0.2m. The value of the gravitational constant is given as 6.6 x 10 Nm kg.
Plugging in the given values into the formula:
F = (6.6 x 10 Nm kg * 80kg * 50kg) / (0.2m)^2
Simplifying the equation:
F = (6.6 x 10 Nm kg * 4000kg) / 0.04m^2
F = (26,400 Nm kg) / 0.04m^2
F = 660,000 N
Therefore, the gravitational attraction between the two objects is 6.6 x 10 N.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Which of the following products of biotechnology can be used as a fuel in place of petrol ?
- A.
Butane
- B.
Ethanol
- C.
Ethene
- D.
Propanol
Correct Answer
A. ButaneExplanation
Butane can be used as a fuel in place of petrol. It is a product of biotechnology that can be produced from renewable resources such as biomass and algae. Butane is a hydrocarbon that can be used as a fuel in internal combustion engines, similar to petrol. It has a high energy density and can be easily transported and stored. Additionally, butane combustion produces fewer emissions compared to petrol, making it a more environmentally friendly fuel option.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
.Which of the following metals is the strongest reducing agent? ?
- A.
Silver
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Copper
- D.
Sodium
Correct Answer
B. PotassiumExplanation
Potassium is the strongest reducing agent among the given options. This is because it has the lowest ionization energy and is highly reactive. It readily donates its outermost electron to other elements or compounds, making it an effective reducing agent. Silver, copper, and sodium have higher ionization energies and are less likely to donate electrons, making them weaker reducing agents compared to potassium.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The complete hydrogenation of benzene gives ?
- A.
Hexene
- B.
Cyclohexene
- C.
Cyclohexane
- D.
Hexane
Correct Answer
C. CyclohexaneExplanation
The complete hydrogenation of benzene involves the addition of six hydrogen atoms to the benzene ring, resulting in the formation of cyclohexane. This reaction is catalyzed by a metal catalyst, such as platinum or palladium, and occurs under high pressure and temperature conditions. Cyclohexane is a saturated hydrocarbon with a six-membered ring, and it is the fully hydrogenated form of benzene.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
A compound has an empirical formular CH2O and molecular mass of 90.[H = 1.00, C = 12.0, O = 16.0] ?
- A.
C3H6O3
- B.
C2H2O4
- C.
C3H10O2
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. C3H6O3Explanation
The empirical formula CH2O indicates that the compound contains one carbon atom, two hydrogen atoms, and one oxygen atom. The molecular mass of 90 can be calculated by adding the atomic masses of each element in the empirical formula (12 + 2 + 16 = 30) and multiplying it by a whole number. The only option that satisfies this condition is C3H6O3, which has a molecular mass of 90 (3 * 12 + 6 * 1 + 3 * 16 = 90).Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 13, 2020Quiz Created by
Ilyas Ismailawa
Plan Aid Academy Teacher Proficiency Examination (Education)
Plan Aid Academy Teacher Proficiency Examination (Education)
Copy of Copy of Understanding the Self (Final Exam)
Copy of Copy of Understanding the Self (Final Exam)
- AED Exam Quizzes
- Art Exam Quizzes
- BISC Exam Quizzes
- CADET Exam Quizzes
- CAE Listening Quizzes
- CHS Exam Quizzes
- Computer Operator Exam Quizzes
- Cosmetology State Board Quizzes
- CSAT Quizzes
- CVS Exam Quizzes
- EHR Exam Quizzes
- Engineering Exam Quizzes
- English Exam Quizzes
- Entrance Exam Quizzes
- FSHN Exam Quizzes
- GATE Quizzes
- IGCSE Quizzes
- IT Certification Quizzes
- JEE Exam Quizzes
- Management Exam Quizzes
- Ministerial Exam Quizzes
- OCA Exam Quizzes
- Online Test Quizzes
- Physical Exam Quizzes
- Police Exam Quizzes
- Practice Exam Quizzes
- Prelim Exam Quizzes
- Professional Certification Quizzes
- SNAP Quizzes
- SSC Quizzes
- SSC CGL Quizzes
- UGC NET Exam Quizzes
- UPSC Quizzes
Back to top