Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Q & A Part-2
Post Basic B. SC Nursing Q & A Medial Surgical Nursing
Questions and Answers
- 1.
An old woman was hit by motor cycle while crossing road as a nurse the first intervention that she will do is:
- A.
ABC Analysis
- B.
Reduce the fracture
- C.
Call for help
- D.
Immobilize the leg
Correct Answer
A. ABC AnalysisExplanation
The correct answer is ABC Analysis. When a nurse is presented with an emergency situation, it is important for them to quickly assess the situation and prioritize the actions that need to be taken. ABC Analysis stands for Airway, Breathing, and Circulation. It is a systematic approach to assess and address the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation, which are the most critical components for survival. By performing an ABC Analysis, the nurse can determine if the patient's airway is open, if they are breathing adequately, and if there is proper circulation. This allows the nurse to identify and address any life-threatening issues first before moving on to other interventions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the two hormone promote gluconeogesis and lipolysis?
- A.
Cortisol and epinephrine
- B.
Thyroxine and cortisol
- C.
Glucagon and thyroxin
- D.
Insulin nad Glugagon
Correct Answer
B. Thyroxine and cortisolExplanation
Thyroxine and cortisol are the two hormones that promote gluconeogenesis and lipolysis. Gluconeogenesis is the process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis by increasing the breakdown of protein and fat to provide substrates for glucose production. Lipolysis is the breakdown of stored fats into fatty acids and glycerol. Thyroxine increases lipolysis by enhancing the activity of enzymes involved in this process. Therefore, both thyroxine and cortisol play important roles in promoting the production of glucose and the breakdown of fats for energy.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is a feature of peterson kelly syndrome?
- A.
Situs inversus
- B.
Iron deficiency anemia
- C.
Sinusitis
- D.
Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer
B. Iron deficiency anemiaExplanation
Peterson Kelly syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by iron deficiency anemia. This means that individuals with this syndrome have lower than normal levels of iron in their blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and pale skin. Iron deficiency anemia occurs when the body does not have enough iron to produce adequate amounts of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. Other symptoms of Peterson Kelly syndrome may include developmental delays, facial abnormalities, and intellectual disability.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The nurse needs to carefully assess the complaint of pain of the elderly because older people
- A.
Have altered mental function
- B.
Experience reduced sensory perception
- C.
Have a decreased pain threshould
- D.
Are expected to experience chronic pain
Correct Answer
B. Experience reduced sensory perceptionExplanation
As people age, their sensory perception tends to decrease. This means that they may have difficulty sensing and interpreting pain signals accurately. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to carefully assess the complaint of pain in the elderly to ensure that they receive appropriate treatment and pain management.Rate this question:
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- 5.
During the first 24 hours after thyroid surgery, the nurse should include in her care
- A.
Advising the client that she can resume her normal activities immediately
- B.
Encouraging the client to ventilate her feeling about the surgery
- C.
Supporting the head during mild range of motion exercise
- D.
Checking the back and slides of the operating dressing
Correct Answer
D. Checking the back and slides of the operating dressingExplanation
After thyroid surgery, it is important for the nurse to check the back and sides of the operating dressing during the first 24 hours. This is necessary to ensure that the dressing is intact and that there is no bleeding or drainage from the surgical site. Checking the dressing regularly allows the nurse to monitor for any signs of complications and take appropriate action if needed. It is crucial to maintain the integrity of the dressing to promote proper wound healing and prevent infection.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Most commonly used and effective treatment of vaginal trichomoniasis is
- A.
Azithromycin
- B.
Metronidazole
- C.
Use of oral contraceptives
- D.
Cefixine
Correct Answer
B. MetronidazoleExplanation
Metronidazole is the most commonly used and effective treatment for vaginal trichomoniasis. It is an antibiotic that specifically targets and kills the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite responsible for the infection. Azithromycin is not the preferred treatment for trichomoniasis, although it may be used in certain cases. The use of oral contraceptives and cefixime are not effective in treating trichomoniasis. Therefore, Metronidazole is the correct answer for the most effective treatment of vaginal trichomoniasis.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In how many cause total infertility, males are responsiable
- A.
30-40% of total cases
- B.
50-60% of total cases
- C.
20-25% of total cases
- D.
8-10% of total cases
Correct Answer
A. 30-40% of total casesExplanation
Males are responsible for causing infertility in approximately 30-40% of total cases. This means that in a significant number of infertility cases, the issue lies with the male partner. It is important to recognize that infertility is not solely a female problem and that both partners should be evaluated when experiencing difficulties conceiving. Identifying the male factor in infertility cases is crucial for appropriate diagnosis and treatment planning.Rate this question:
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- 8.
pH of normal semen is
- A.
8.5-9.3
- B.
7.2-7.8
- C.
5.5-6.5
- D.
3.5-4.5
Correct Answer
B. 7.2-7.8Explanation
The pH of normal semen is 7.2-7.8. This range is considered normal for semen pH. The pH level of semen is important because it affects the survival and motility of sperm. The slightly alkaline pH of semen helps to neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina, allowing the sperm to survive and swim more effectively. If the pH of semen is outside of the normal range, it could indicate an underlying issue with fertility or sperm health.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Failure of formation of semen is known as
- A.
Tetratozoopermia
- B.
Asthenospermia
- C.
Azoospermia
- D.
Aspermia
Correct Answer
D. AspermiaExplanation
Aspermia refers to the failure of the formation of semen. It is a condition where a male is unable to produce any semen during ejaculation. This can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, blockages in the reproductive system, or genetic abnormalities. Aspermia can result in infertility as there are no sperm cells present in the ejaculate.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Fibroid uterus is more common in
- A.
After 35 years of age
- B.
Multiparity
- C.
Postmenopausal woman
- D.
Nulliparous woman
Correct Answer
D. Nulliparous womanExplanation
Nulliparous woman refers to a woman who has never given birth to a child. The correct answer suggests that fibroid uterus is more common in nulliparous women. This can be explained by the fact that pregnancy and childbirth have a protective effect against the development of fibroids. Hormonal changes during pregnancy and the stretching of the uterus during childbirth may help prevent the growth of fibroids. Therefore, women who have never been pregnant are more likely to develop fibroid uterus.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Cause of primary amenorrhoea include,except
- A.
Turner's syndrome
- B.
Transverse vaginal fistula
- C.
Hypersecretion of FSh
- D.
Hypogonadotrotrophic hypogonadism.
Correct Answer
C. Hypersecretion of FShExplanation
The cause of primary amenorrhoea can be attributed to various factors such as Turner's syndrome, transverse vaginal fistula, and hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. However, hypersecretion of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is not a cause of primary amenorrhoea. FSH is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of ovarian follicles, and hypersecretion of FSH would actually result in increased ovarian activity and potentially lead to early puberty or irregular menstrual cycles, rather than amenorrhoea.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant calls the clinic because she is experiencing pink-tinged discharge for the first time. The nurse should advise the patient to __________.
- A.
Call back if she experiences an increase in pelvic pressure
- B.
Make an appointment to be seen tomorrow
- C.
Seek medical attention immediately
- D.
Call back if the symptoms have not subsided in 24 hours
Correct Answer
C. Seek medical attention immediatelyExplanation
The woman is 20 weeks pregnant and experiencing pink-tinged discharge for the first time. Pink-tinged discharge during pregnancy can be a sign of potential complications such as placenta previa or placental abruption. These conditions can be serious and require immediate medical attention to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to seek medical attention immediately.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the commonest cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage?
- A.
Atonicity of uterus.
- B.
Subinvolution.
- C.
Birth Injury.
- D.
Puerperal sepsis.
Correct Answer
A. Atonicity of uterus.Explanation
Postpartum hemorrhage refers to excessive bleeding after childbirth. Atonicity of the uterus refers to the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively, leading to inadequate compression of the blood vessels. This can result in the commonest cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Subinvolution, which is the delayed return of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy state, and birth injury can also contribute to postpartum hemorrhage but are not as common as atonicity of the uterus. Puerperal sepsis, which is an infection of the reproductive tract after childbirth, is not directly related to the commonest cause of postpartum hemorrhage.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How much amount of total weight gain during pregnancy?
- A.
6kg
- B.
8Kg
- C.
11Kg
- D.
14Kg
Correct Answer
C. 11KgExplanation
During pregnancy, it is normal for a woman to gain weight due to the growth of the baby, increased blood volume, and changes in the body. The average recommended weight gain during pregnancy is around 11 kg. This weight gain is important for the healthy development of the baby and to provide necessary nutrients. However, it is important to note that the actual weight gain can vary depending on factors such as pre-pregnancy weight, overall health, and individual circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is the management of partial placenta previa?
- A.
Cesarean section.
- B.
Blood transfusion.
- C.
D & C.
- D.
Complete bed rest.
Correct Answer
D. Complete bed rest.Explanation
Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix during pregnancy. This can lead to bleeding and complications during labor. The management of partial placenta previa typically involves conservative measures to minimize the risk of bleeding and promote a healthy pregnancy. Complete bed rest is often recommended to reduce physical activity and pressure on the placenta, which can help prevent further complications. Cesarean section may be necessary if bleeding becomes severe or if there are other complications, but it is not the initial management approach. Blood transfusion may be required if there is significant bleeding, but it is not the primary management strategy. D&C (dilation and curettage) is a procedure used to remove tissue from the uterus and is not relevant for the management of placenta previa.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following vaccine commonly given to pregnant mothers?
- A.
Measles
- B.
B.C.G.
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
D.P.T.
Correct Answer
C. TetanusExplanation
Tetanus is commonly given to pregnant mothers as a vaccine. Tetanus is a serious bacterial infection that can cause muscle stiffness and spasms, and it can be life-threatening for both the mother and the baby. By vaccinating pregnant mothers against tetanus, it helps protect them and their newborns from this infection. Measles, B.C.G., and D.P.T. are not typically given to pregnant mothers.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Primary features of cervical cancer include—–?
- A.
Polyurea
- B.
Irregular menstruation.
- C.
Anorexia
- D.
Headache
Correct Answer
B. Irregular menstruation.Explanation
The primary features of cervical cancer include irregular menstruation. Cervical cancer can cause changes in the cervix that affect the normal menstrual cycle. This can result in irregular periods, such as heavier or lighter bleeding, longer or shorter cycles, or missed periods. Other symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, pelvic pain, pain during intercourse, and unusual discharge. However, irregular menstruation is a common and significant feature of cervical cancer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the expected weight gain of antenatal mothers during the first 20 weeks?
- A.
0.5 to 1 kg.
- B.
2 to 3 kg.
- C.
3 to 4 kg.
- D.
4 to 5 kg.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 3 kg.Explanation
During the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, it is expected for antenatal mothers to gain 2 to 3 kg of weight. This weight gain is considered normal and healthy for the development of the baby and the changes happening in the mother's body. It is important for pregnant women to gain weight within this range to ensure proper nutrition and growth for both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which test is commonly used to find out the number of motility and activity of sperm?
- A.
Protein electrophoresis.
- B.
CMP test.
- C.
PCR test.
- D.
Hohner test.
Correct Answer
D. Hohner test.Explanation
The Hohner test is commonly used to find out the number of motility and activity of sperm. This test involves collecting a semen sample and observing the movement and activity of the sperm under a microscope. It helps in assessing the fertility potential of the sperm by determining the percentage of motile and actively swimming sperm. Protein electrophoresis, CMP test, and PCR test are not used for assessing sperm motility and activity.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When will the uterus normally reaches the level of xiphisternum?
- A.
32 weeks.
- B.
36 weeks.
- C.
40 weeks
- D.
42 weeks.
Correct Answer
B. 36 weeks.Explanation
The uterus normally reaches the level of the xiphisternum at 36 weeks. This is because as the pregnancy progresses, the uterus grows and expands to accommodate the growing fetus. By 36 weeks, the uterus has typically reached the level of the xiphisternum, which is the lower tip of the sternum or breastbone. This milestone is important as it indicates that the uterus has reached its maximum size and is preparing for labor and delivery.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What do you mean by fetal macrosomia?
- A.
Birth weight less than 1.5 kg.
- B.
Large size head of a newborn.
- C.
Fetal distress.
- D.
Birth weight more than 4.5kg.
Correct Answer
D. Birth weight more than 4.5kg.Explanation
Fetal macrosomia refers to a condition where a baby is born with a birth weight of more than 4.5kg. This condition can occur due to factors such as maternal diabetes, genetics, or maternal obesity. Fetal macrosomia can pose risks during delivery, such as shoulder dystocia or birth injuries. It may also increase the likelihood of long-term health problems for the baby, such as obesity or diabetes. Therefore, identifying and managing fetal macrosomia is important for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which pituitary hormone is to stimulate the secretion of breast milk from the mammary gland?
- A.
Prolactin.
- B.
Vasopressin.
- C.
L.H.
- D.
H.C.G.
Correct Answer
A. Prolactin.Explanation
Prolactin is the pituitary hormone responsible for stimulating the secretion of breast milk from the mammary gland. It is produced and released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to the suckling stimulus. Prolactin promotes the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and initiates milk production after childbirth. It also helps in maintaining milk production as long as breastfeeding continues.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which is the main source of estrogen and progesterone after the 3 months of pregnancy?
- A.
Hypothalamus
- B.
Pituitary gland.
- C.
Placenta.
- D.
Ovary.
Correct Answer
C. Placenta.Explanation
During the first three months of pregnancy, the main source of estrogen and progesterone is the ovary. However, after this period, the placenta takes over as the main source of these hormones. The placenta is a temporary organ that develops during pregnancy and is responsible for supplying oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. It also produces hormones, including estrogen and progesterone, which are crucial for maintaining the pregnancy and supporting fetal development. Therefore, the correct answer is placenta.Rate this question:
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- 24.
During labour, station +1 indicates that the presenting part is?
- A.
High in the false pelvis
- B.
On the perineum
- C.
Slightly below the ischial spine
- D.
Slightly above the ischial spine
Correct Answer
C. Slightly below the ischial spineExplanation
During labor, the term "station +1" refers to the position of the presenting part of the baby in relation to the ischial spine. In this case, the correct answer is "slightly below the ischial spine." This means that the baby's head or presenting part is not yet engaged in the pelvis but is descending and getting closer to the ischial spine. As labor progresses, the presenting part will continue to descend further until it reaches the ischial spine (station 0) and eventually moves below it (station -1, -2, etc.).Rate this question:
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- 25.
Oral contraceptives are prescribed for a client. What side effect should the nurse inform the client might occur?
- A.
Cervicitis
- B.
Ovarian cysts
- C.
Breakthrough bleeding
- D.
Fibrocystic breast disease
Correct Answer
C. Breakthrough bleedingExplanation
When a client is prescribed oral contraceptives, one possible side effect is breakthrough bleeding. This refers to the occurrence of bleeding or spotting between menstrual periods. This can happen when the body is adjusting to the hormones in the contraceptive pill. It is important for the nurse to inform the client about this potential side effect so that they are aware and not alarmed if it occurs.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Menorrhagia means?
- A.
Excessive bleeding during menstruation
- B.
Bleeding between menstrual periods
- C.
Painful menstruation
- D.
Irregular menstruation
Correct Answer
A. Excessive bleeding during menstruationExplanation
Menorrhagia refers to excessive bleeding during menstruation. This condition is characterized by abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual periods, which can lead to the need for frequent pad or tampon changes, the passing of blood clots, and anemia. Menorrhagia can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, uterine fibroids, polyps, or certain medical conditions. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if experiencing excessive bleeding during menstruation to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A histogram (hysterosalpingography [HSG]) is performed to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. The nurse concludes that infertility caused by a defect in the tube
- A.
Tubal injury
- B.
Past infection.
- C.
Fibroid tumor.
- D.
Congenital anomaly.
Correct Answer
B. Past infection.Explanation
The nurse concludes that past infection is the cause of infertility because a hysterosalpingography (HSG) is performed to determine if there is a tubal obstruction. Tubal obstruction can occur as a result of past infections, such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can cause scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes. This can prevent the sperm from reaching the egg, leading to infertility. Therefore, past infection is the most likely explanation for the tubal obstruction observed in the HSG.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The nurse, collecting data on the reproductive system from a female patient, is told that the patient has a vaginal discharge that is cottage cheese-like in appearance. The nurse recognizes this as a common sign of?
- A.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
- B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
- C.
Atrophic vaginitis
- D.
Candida albicans infections
Correct Answer
D. Candida albicans infectionsExplanation
The patient's description of a cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge is indicative of a Candida albicans infection. Candida albicans is a type of yeast that commonly causes vaginal yeast infections. Symptoms of a Candida infection include itching, burning, and a thick, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the reproductive organs that typically causes lower abdominal pain and fever. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that causes a frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge. Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that occurs due to decreased estrogen levels and causes thinning and inflammation of the vaginal walls, but it does not typically cause a cottage cheese-like discharge.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Following hysterectomy, the nurse assessing for abnormal bleeding would?
- A.
Record the number of perineal pads used
- B.
Assess the vital signs every 8 hours
- C.
Place the patient’s bed in a high Fowler’s position
- D.
Apply an abdominal binder
Correct Answer
A. Record the number of perineal pads usedExplanation
After a hysterectomy, it is important for the nurse to assess for abnormal bleeding. By recording the number of perineal pads used, the nurse can monitor the amount of bleeding and identify any excessive or abnormal bleeding. This information is crucial in determining the patient's postoperative condition and ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented if necessary. Assessing vital signs every 8 hours, placing the patient's bed in a high Fowler's position, and applying an abdominal binder may be important for other aspects of postoperative care, but they do not specifically address the assessment of abnormal bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The pad of subcutaneous adipose tissues lying In front of the pubis in females is known as?
- A.
Labia majora
- B.
Mons veneris or Mons pubis
- C.
Clitoris
- D.
Labia minora
Correct Answer
B. Mons veneris or Mons pubisExplanation
The correct answer is Mons veneris or Mons pubis. The pad of subcutaneous adipose tissues in front of the pubis in females is commonly referred to as the Mons veneris or Mons pubis. This area is located above the labia majora and is typically covered with pubic hair. It serves as a protective cushion for the pubic bone and also plays a role in sexual arousal.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is the largest paraurethral gland?
- A.
Prostate gland
- B.
Bartholin’s gland
- C.
Clitoris
- D.
Skene’s glands
Correct Answer
D. Skene’s glandsExplanation
Skene's glands, also known as the paraurethral glands, are the largest paraurethral gland. These glands are located on either side of the urethral opening in females. They are responsible for producing and secreting fluid that helps lubricate the urethra and provide moisture during sexual arousal. The other options listed, such as the prostate gland, Bartholin's gland, and clitoris, are not paraurethral glands and do not fulfill the criteria of being the largest paraurethral gland.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The vaginal pH from puberty to menopause is acidic mainly because of the presence of which microorganism?
- A.
Acidophilus bacillus
- B.
Doderlein’s bacilli
- C.
E.Coli
- D.
Klebsiella
Correct Answer
A. AcidopHilus bacillusExplanation
The correct answer is Acidophilus bacillus. Acidophilus bacillus is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the vagina. It helps to maintain the acidic pH of the vagina, which is important for preventing the growth of harmful bacteria and maintaining a healthy vaginal environment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The pouch of Douglas is related to the vaginal canal by?
- A.
Superiorly
- B.
Laterally
- C.
Posteriorly
- D.
Anteriorly
Correct Answer
C. PosteriorlyExplanation
The pouch of Douglas, also known as the rectouterine pouch, is a space located between the rectum and the back wall of the uterus in females. It is the deepest point in the pelvic cavity and is located posteriorly, which means it is situated towards the back of the body. This anatomical relationship allows the pouch of Douglas to be easily accessed during certain medical procedures, such as during a pelvic examination or during the drainage of fluid or blood from the pelvis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The accessory reproductive organ formed by modified sebaceous gland is?
- A.
Breast
- B.
Ovary
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Vagina
Correct Answer
A. BreastExplanation
The breast is the correct answer because it is an accessory reproductive organ that is formed by modified sebaceous glands. These glands produce milk during lactation, which is essential for nourishing newborns. The breast also plays a role in sexual attraction and arousal, making it an important reproductive organ in females.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which ligaments mainly support the breast?
- A.
Broad ligaments
- B.
Cooper’s ligaments
- C.
Ligamentum fascia
- D.
Ovarian ligaments
Correct Answer
B. Cooper’s ligamentsExplanation
Cooper's ligaments mainly support the breast. These ligaments are fibrous bands that extend from the skin to the deeper tissues of the breast. They provide structural support and help maintain the shape and position of the breast.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Menstruation is unrelated with ovulation and anovular menstruation is quite common during adolescence, following child birth and in women approaching menopause.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Menstruation and ovulation are two separate processes in the female reproductive system. Menstruation refers to the shedding of the uterine lining, while ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary. It is possible for a woman to have a menstrual period without ovulating, which is known as anovular menstruation. This can occur during adolescence when the menstrual cycle is still regulating, after childbirth when the body is recovering, and in women approaching menopause when hormonal changes can disrupt ovulation. Therefore, it is true that anovular menstruation is quite common during these stages.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The endometrium of the pregnant uterus is known as?
- A.
Chorionic villi
- B.
Decidua
- C.
Trophoblast
- D.
Morula
Correct Answer
B. DeciduaExplanation
The endometrium of the pregnant uterus is known as decidua. Decidua refers to the specialized lining of the uterus that develops during pregnancy. It is formed from the modified endometrial tissue and plays a crucial role in supporting the implantation and development of the embryo. The decidua provides nourishment and protection to the growing fetus and undergoes various changes throughout pregnancy to accommodate the developing placenta.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The fetal blood flow through placenta is about?
- A.
100ml/minute
- B.
200ml/minute
- C.
400ml/minute
- D.
700ml/minute
Correct Answer
C. 400ml/minuteExplanation
During pregnancy, the placenta acts as a connection between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products. The fetal blood flow through the placenta is crucial for the fetus's development and survival. The correct answer of 400ml/minute indicates that the fetal blood flow through the placenta is approximately 400 milliliters per minute. This blood flow ensures an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients to support the growing fetus, while also facilitating the removal of waste products.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In Intra Uterine Death or I.U.D. the colour of amniotic fluid is become?
- A.
Golden colour
- B.
Meconium stained
- C.
Greenish yellow
- D.
Dark brown or tobacco juice
Correct Answer
D. Dark brown or tobacco juiceExplanation
In Intra Uterine Death or I.U.D., the color of the amniotic fluid becomes dark brown or tobacco juice. This can occur when the fetus passes meconium, which is the first stool of a newborn, while still in the uterus. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates fetal distress or anoxia, as it is usually expelled after birth. The dark brown or tobacco juice color is due to the mixture of meconium with the amniotic fluid.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The two umbilical arteries carry venous blood from the fetus to placenta. The umbilical arteries derived from?
- A.
Internal iliac arteries of fetus
- B.
Superior venacava
- C.
Femoral arteries of fetus
- D.
Internal jugular veins of fetus
Correct Answer
D. Internal jugular veins of fetus -
- 41.
Which of the following test has highest sensitivity in diagnosis of pregnancy?
- A.
Direct agglutination test
- B.
ELISA
- C.
Radioimmunoassay or RIA
- D.
Fluoroimmuno assay or FIA
Correct Answer
C. Radioimmunoassay or RIAExplanation
Radioimmunoassay (RIA) has the highest sensitivity in the diagnosis of pregnancy. RIA is a highly sensitive and specific test that measures the levels of specific hormones or substances in the blood. In the case of pregnancy, RIA can detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone, which is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. RIA can detect even very low levels of hCG in the blood, making it a highly sensitive test for pregnancy diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The process of stimulation of uterine contractions (both in frequency and intensity) that are already present but found to be inadequate is known as?
- A.
Induction of labour
- B.
Augmentation of labour
- C.
Stripping the membrane
- D.
Cervical ripening
Correct Answer
B. Augmentation of labourExplanation
Augmentation of labor refers to the process of stimulating uterine contractions that are already present but are found to be inadequate. This can be done by various methods such as administering oxytocin or rupturing the membranes. The goal is to strengthen and increase the frequency of contractions in order to progress labor and facilitate the delivery of the baby. Induction of labor, on the other hand, refers to initiating labor when it has not yet started spontaneously. Stripping the membranes and cervical ripening are also methods used to induce labor.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following condition is not an indication for induction of labour?
- A.
Postmaturity
- B.
Intrauterine fetal death
- C.
Premature rupture of the membrane
- D.
Umbilical cord prolapse.
Correct Answer
D. Umbilical cord prolapse.Explanation
Umbilical cord prolapse is not an indication for induction of labor. Induction of labor is typically done for medical reasons when it is safer for the mother or baby to deliver the baby earlier than waiting for natural labor to begin. Postmaturity, intrauterine fetal death, and premature rupture of the membrane are all conditions that may require induction of labor to prevent complications or ensure the health and safety of the mother and baby. Umbilical cord prolapse, on the other hand, is a rare emergency situation that occurs when the umbilical cord slips through the cervix ahead of the baby, potentially cutting off the baby's oxygen supply. It requires immediate medical attention, but induction of labor is not the appropriate treatment for this condition.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which route of administration of prostaglandins for induction of labour having fewer side effects?
- A.
Oral
- B.
Intravenous
- C.
Intramuscular
- D.
Transvaginal
Correct Answer
D. TransvaginalExplanation
Transvaginal administration of prostaglandins for induction of labor is considered to have fewer side effects compared to other routes of administration. This is because transvaginal administration allows for direct delivery of the medication to the cervix, resulting in a more targeted effect. It also reduces the systemic absorption of the drug, minimizing the risk of systemic side effects. Therefore, transvaginal administration is preferred over oral, intravenous, and intramuscular routes for inducing labor with fewer side effects.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The use of Femidom (Female condom) is an example of which kind of contraception?
- A.
Barrier method
- B.
Natural contraception
- C.
IUDs
- D.
Steroidal contraception
Correct Answer
A. Barrier methodExplanation
The use of Femidom (Female condom) is considered a barrier method of contraception. Barrier methods work by creating a physical barrier between the sperm and the egg, preventing fertilization. In the case of the Femidom, it is a barrier that is inserted into the vagina before intercourse, covering the cervix and preventing sperm from entering the uterus. This method is effective in preventing pregnancy and also provides some protection against sexually transmitted infections.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The indication for withdrawal of the pill are following except?
- A.
Protection against unwanted pregnancy
- B.
Severe migraine
- C.
Visual or speech disturbances
- D.
Sudden chest pain
Correct Answer
A. Protection against unwanted pregnancyExplanation
The question asks for an exception among the listed indications for withdrawal of the pill. The correct answer, "Protection against unwanted pregnancy," is the only option that is not an indication for withdrawal. The other options, severe migraine, visual or speech disturbances, and sudden chest pain, are all potential side effects or symptoms that may require discontinuation of the pill.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following reflex is the gentle tap over the fore head and the eyes will blink?
- A.
Grasp reflex
- B.
Moro reflex
- C.
Rooting reflex
- D.
Glabellar reflex
Correct Answer
D. Glabellar reflexExplanation
The glabellar reflex is the gentle tap over the forehead and the eyes will blink. This reflex is characterized by a repetitive blink response when the forehead is tapped. It is a normal reflex that occurs in most individuals and is thought to be a protective mechanism to prevent injury to the eyes. The other options listed are different reflexes that are not associated with the specific tapping of the forehead.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The nitrogen base which is not present in DNA is?
- A.
Adenine
- B.
Thymine
- C.
Guanine
- D.
Uracil
Correct Answer
D. UracilExplanation
Uracil is the correct answer because it is a nitrogen base that is present in RNA but not in DNA. DNA contains the nitrogen bases adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine, while RNA contains adenine, uracil, guanine, and cytosine. Uracil replaces thymine in RNA, making it the nitrogen base that is not present in DNA.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Gamma rays can cause?
- A.
Gene mutation
- B.
Sneezing
- C.
Burning
- D.
Fever
Correct Answer
A. Gene mutationExplanation
Gamma rays are a form of high-energy radiation that can penetrate through the body and interact with the DNA in cells. This interaction can lead to changes in the genetic material, causing mutations in the genes. Gene mutations can have various effects, including altering the function of proteins, disrupting normal cell processes, and potentially leading to the development of diseases such as cancer. Therefore, exposure to gamma rays can cause gene mutations.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 27, 2020Quiz Created by
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