The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test

In case of a supracondylar fracture of the femur, the popliteal artery is in danger. This is because the fracture occurs just above the condyles of the femur, which can cause displacement of bone fragments and potential damage to the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower leg and foot, so any injury to it can lead to significant complications such as ischemia or even limb-threatening conditions.

Piriformis syndrome is a condition that occurs when the sciatic nerve is compressed or irritated by the piriformis muscle in the buttocks. The piriformis muscle can become tight or inflamed due to activities such as long-distance walking or running, which can then put pressure on the sciatic nerve. This can result in pain, tingling, or numbness in the buttocks and down the leg. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sciatic Nerve.

The sural nerve is commonly used for nerve biopsy. It is a sensory nerve located in the lower leg and foot. It is easily accessible and relatively superficial, making it an ideal choice for biopsy procedures. Biopsies of the sural nerve can provide valuable information about nerve damage or disease, helping to diagnose conditions such as peripheral neuropathy.

The tarsal tunnel is a narrow space in the ankle where several structures pass through. These structures include the posterior tibial artery, tibialis posterior tendon, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus muscle. The fibularis longus tendon, however, does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Therefore, it is the only structure listed that is not a content of the tarsal tunnel.

The posterior tibial pulse can usually be palpated between the posterior surface of the medial malleolus (the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle) and the medial border of the calcaneal tendon (the tendon that connects the calf muscles to the heel bone).

The lower end of the tibia articulates with the talus bone. The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones in the foot and is located between the tibia and the calcaneus (heel bone). It forms a joint called the talocrural joint, which allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot. The articulation between the tibia and talus is important for weight-bearing and movement of the ankle joint.

Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the ankle joint where the foot is flexed upward towards the shin. This position allows for greater stability in the ankle joint as the bones of the foot are aligned in a way that provides better support. In contrast, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion involve movements that can potentially compromise the stability of the ankle joint. Therefore, dorsiflexion is the most stable position for the ankle joint.

The acromial process is the most lateral bony prominence in shoulder dislocation. The acromion is a part of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. In shoulder dislocation, the humeral head usually moves inferiorly and anteriorly, causing it to come into contact with the acromion. This can result in a dislocation of the shoulder joint. The other options listed are not the most lateral bony prominences in shoulder dislocation.

The trapezius muscle is a large, triangular muscle that extends from the base of the skull down to the thoracic vertebrae and laterally to the spine of the scapula and acromion of the scapula. It also attaches to the clavicle. However, it does not attach to the humerus at the greater tubercle. The greater tubercle is a bony prominence on the lateral side of the humerus where other muscles, such as the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, attach. Therefore, the correct answer is the humerus (greater tubercle).

The pectoralis major muscle is innervated by both the medial and lateral pectoral nerves. This means that these nerves supply the muscle with the necessary motor and sensory information for its function. The medial pectoral nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, while the lateral pectoral nerve arises from the lateral cord. Together, these nerves ensure the proper innervation of the pectoralis major muscle, allowing it to perform its actions, such as adduction and medial rotation of the shoulder joint.

The long thoracic nerve is responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, which plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula. Damage to the long thoracic nerve can result in winged scapula, where the scapula protrudes from the back and causes weakness in shoulder movement. This condition can occur due to trauma, repetitive strain, or nerve compression. Therefore, the long thoracic nerve is the most likely culprit for the development of winged scapula.

The rotator cuff muscles are responsible for stabilizing and moving the shoulder joint. The axillary, suprascapular, and subscapular nerves innervate these muscles, allowing them to contract and perform their functions. These nerves provide the necessary signals for the rotator cuff muscles to strengthen the shoulder fibrous capsule. The other options listed do not include all three of these nerves, making them incorrect choices.

The correct answer is "Deep to acromion process." The supraspinatus muscle is one of the rotator cuff muscles located in the shoulder. As it reaches its distal attachment, it runs deep to the acromion process, which is a bony projection of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. This positioning allows the supraspinatus tendon to pass underneath the acromion process and attach to the greater tuberosity of the humerus, contributing to shoulder movement and stability.

The Musculocutaneous nerve is closely related to the brachial artery, not the profound brachii artery.

Fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus can result in injury to the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve runs along the inner side of the arm and passes through the elbow joint. A fracture in this area can cause compression or damage to the ulnar nerve, leading to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or weakness in the hand and fingers.

Erb-Duchenne palsy, also known as Erb's palsy, is a condition that affects the nerves in the brachial plexus, a network of nerves that control movement and sensation in the arm. It typically occurs due to injury during childbirth. In Erb-Duchenne palsy, the nerves that may be affected include the suprascapular nerve, nerve to subclavius, musculocutaneous nerve, and axillary nerve. However, the ulnar nerve is not typically affected in this condition.

The radial artery can be palpated just lateral to the tendon of the Flexor carpi radialis. This is because the Flexor carpi radialis muscle runs along the radial side of the forearm and its tendon can be used as a landmark to locate the radial artery. Palpating the radial artery in this location is commonly done to assess the pulse and blood flow in the wrist.

The correct answer is Ulnar & Radial Ns. The ulnar and radial nerves are responsible for the movement of the hand at the wrist level. The ulnar nerve innervates the muscles that control adduction of the hand, while the radial nerve innervates the muscles that control extension and abduction of the hand. Therefore, the combined action of both nerves is required for the hand to be adducted at the wrist level.

The recurrent branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar muscles of the hand, including the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis. These muscles are responsible for the opposition of the thumb to the other digits. Therefore, if the recurrent branch of the median nerve is lacerated, it would result in an inability to oppose the thumb to the other digits, which is the neurological deficit observed in Joe's case.

The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway located on the palm side of the wrist. It contains the median nerve, which is responsible for providing sensation to the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger. Additionally, the carpal tunnel also contains the tendons of the flexor muscles that allow for movement of the fingers and wrist. Therefore, the statement that the carpal tunnel contains all the nerves that enter the hand is most accurate.

The correct answer is Ulnar N. The ulnar nerve is responsible for innervating the dorsal interossei muscles in the hand. These muscles are located between the metacarpal bones and are involved in various movements of the hand, such as spreading the fingers apart. The radial and median nerves also innervate different muscles in the hand, but they are not specifically responsible for innervating the dorsal interossei muscles.

The correct answer is the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. The adductor pollicis muscle is responsible for adducting the thumb, bringing it towards the palm. The deep branch of the ulnar nerve innervates this muscle, providing the necessary nerve supply for its function.

The polio virus damages the ventral horn neurons in poliomyelitis. These neurons are located in the spinal cord and are responsible for transmitting motor signals from the central nervous system to the muscles. Damage to these neurons can lead to muscle weakness, paralysis, and other motor impairments associated with polio.

The Trendelenberg sign is a clinical test used to assess the strength of the hip abductor muscles. When the sign is positive, it indicates weakness or damage to the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve innervates the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles, which are responsible for abducting the hip. Damage to the superior gluteal nerve can result in a weakened or paralyzed hip abductor muscles, leading to a positive Trendelenberg sign.

The correct answer is S1, S2. The ankle jerk reflex, also known as the Achilles reflex, is used to test the integrity of the S1 and S2 spinal nerve roots. These nerve roots are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the ankle to the spinal cord and coordinating the reflexive response of the muscles involved in the ankle jerk. By testing the ankle jerk reflex, healthcare professionals can assess the functioning of these specific nerve roots and identify any potential abnormalities or injuries.

The thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information to the appropriate areas of the brain. It acts as a relay station for various modalities of senses, including fine touch, vision, and proprioception. However, the thalamus does not relay information related to smell. Smell is processed by the olfactory system, which sends signals directly to the olfactory cortex without passing through the thalamus.

The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for medially rotating the hip.

The acromial process is the most lateral bony prominence in shoulder dislocation. This is the lateral extension of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. When the shoulder is dislocated, the humerus bone comes out of its socket, and the acromial process can be easily felt as a prominent bump on the outer side of the shoulder.

Winged scapula is a condition where the scapula protrudes from the back, giving it a wing-like appearance. This condition is caused by damage to the long thoracic nerve. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for stabilizing the scapula against the thoracic wall. When the long thoracic nerve is damaged, the serratus anterior muscle weakens, leading to winging of the scapula. Damage to the axillary, thoracodorsal, ulnar, or musculocutaneous nerves would not cause winged scapula.

After Sam fractured her humerus, she developed wrist drop, which is a condition characterized by the inability to extend the wrist and fingers. The radial nerve is responsible for the extension of the wrist and fingers, so it is likely that this nerve was damaged during the accident. The other nerves listed are not typically associated with wrist drop.

The rotator cuff muscles are responsible for stabilizing and rotating the shoulder joint. The axillary, suprascapular, and subscapular nerves innervate these muscles, providing the necessary motor control for their function. The radial, accessory, dorsal scapular, and medial and lateral pectoral nerves do not directly innervate the rotator cuff muscles, making them incorrect choices.

In the anatomical snuff box, you can palpate the radial artery and scaphoid bone. The anatomical snuff box is a triangular depression located on the back of the hand, between the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. Palpating the radial artery in this area can help assess the pulse and blood flow to the hand. The scaphoid bone is also palpable in this region, and tenderness or pain in this area may indicate a fracture or injury to the bone.

In traffic accidents, the common site for ribs to be fractured is the posterior angle. The posterior angle refers to the back corner of the rib where it meets the spine. This area is particularly vulnerable to fractures due to the forceful impact and compression that can occur during a traffic accident. Fractures at the posterior angle can cause significant pain and discomfort, and may require medical intervention for proper healing.

The shape of the rib can affect the transverse diameter of the thoracic cavity. If the ribs are curved or have a greater angle, it can increase the transverse diameter of the thoracic cavity. This allows for more space for the lungs to expand during inhalation, increasing the efficiency of respiration.

The correct answer is C4. The diaphragm, which is the main muscle involved in breathing, is innervated by the phrenic nerve. The phrenic nerve arises from the cervical nerves C3, C4, and C5. However, the main root value for diaphragm innervation is C4. This means that the majority of the nerve fibers that control the diaphragm originate from the fourth cervical spinal nerve.

The opening of the IVC is located at the level of T8.

The neurovascular structures of the thoracic wall are located between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. These structures include the intercostal nerves, arteries, and veins. The internal intercostal muscles are located deep to the external intercostal muscles, while the innermost intercostal muscles are even deeper. Therefore, the neurovascular structures are situated between these two muscle layers.

When tapping pleural fluid, the needle should be inserted at the 8th intercostal space. The intercostal spaces are the spaces between the ribs, and the 8th intercostal space is the space between the 8th and 9th ribs. This location is chosen because it allows for the most direct access to the pleural cavity, where the pleural fluid is located. Inserting the needle at this specific intercostal space ensures that the fluid can be safely and effectively drained.

The right lung is the usual site for inhaled foreign bodies because it has a larger and more vertical bronchus compared to the left lung. This makes it easier for foreign objects to enter the right lung and become lodged in its bronchial passages. Additionally, the right lung is divided into three lobes, providing more space for foreign bodies to get trapped.

The main structure closely related to the pulmonary ligament in the hilum of both lungs is the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura that attaches the lungs to the mediastinum, and it contains the structures that enter and exit the lungs, including the pulmonary veins. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart, and they are closely associated with the pulmonary ligament in the hilum of the lungs.

Gas exchange occurs in the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. These structures are located at the end of the bronchial tree and are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the bloodstream. The respiratory bronchioles are the smallest airways in the lungs and contain alveoli, which are tiny sacs where gas exchange takes place. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream through the thin walls of the alveoli, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, diffuses out of the bloodstream and into the alveoli to be exhaled.

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the thoracic cavity. When it contracts, it moves downwards, causing the vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity to increase. This allows for more space for the lungs to expand and fill with air during inhalation. The diaphragm is innervated by the 7th through T12 intercostal nerves, which control its movement. It has a tendinous peripheral portion, which provides stability and support. However, it does not have any attachment to the fibrous pericardium, which is the tough outer layer of the heart.

The esophagus in the posterior mediastinum is closely related to the left atrium of the heart. The esophagus is located behind the heart in the thoracic cavity, and the left atrium is the upper chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. The close proximity of the esophagus to the left atrium can have clinical implications, such as the potential for compression or obstruction of the esophagus by an enlarged left atrium.

The apex of the heart in normal healthy adults is located at the left 5th intercostal space. This is the point where the heartbeat can be felt most strongly and is commonly used to listen to the heart sounds during a physical examination.

The explanation for the given correct answer is that all the statements mentioned are true. Semilunar valves are indeed found at the root of the pulmonary trunk and aorta. They do not have chordae tendineae, which are fibrous strings that anchor the valves to the heart wall. Semilunar valves have three cusps, which are leaf-like flaps that open and close to regulate blood flow. Additionally, each cusp contains a nodule, which helps to support and reinforce the valve. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the question are correct.

The left vagus nerve is not the 11th cranial nerve (CN). The vagus nerve is actually the 10th CN. The 11th CN is the accessory nerve.

The diaphragmatic surface of the heart is mainly related to the left ventricle. The left ventricle is the largest and strongest chamber of the heart, responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. The diaphragmatic surface refers to the portion of the heart that lies against the diaphragm, which separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. As the left ventricle is located towards the bottom of the heart, it is in direct contact with the diaphragm, making it primarily associated with the diaphragmatic surface.

The correct answer is the Anterior interventricular A. The interventricular septum is mainly supplied by the Anterior interventricular A, which is a branch of the left coronary artery. This artery supplies oxygenated blood to the septum, allowing for proper functioning of the heart.

The neurovascular plane in the anterolateral abdominal wall runs between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This plane contains the neurovascular structures such as the nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics that supply the abdominal wall. The internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles are located deep to the external oblique muscle and superficial to the fascia transversalis, peritoneum, and other structures mentioned in the options. Therefore, the correct answer is Internal & transversus abdominis.

The given question asks for the option that does not participate in the arterial supply to the diaphragm. The options provided are the thoracic aorta through intercostal arteries, the subclavian through the internal thoracic artery, the musculophrenic artery (a branch of the internal thoracic artery), and the axillary through the lateral thoracic artery. The correct answer is "Axillary, through lateral thoracic artery" because the axillary artery does not directly supply the diaphragm. The other options mentioned all contribute to the arterial supply of the diaphragm.

The rectus abdominis muscle is responsible for flexing the trunk and compressing the abdominal viscera. It also stabilizes and controls the tilt of the pelvis. Additionally, it is innervated by the anterior rami of the inferior 6 thoracic nerves. However, the statement that the superior and inferior epigastric arteries run anterior to it is incorrect. The superior and inferior epigastric arteries actually run posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle.

The pleural cavity is a space between the two layers of the pleura, which are thin membranes that line the lungs and chest cavity. This cavity contains pleural fluid, a lubricating fluid that helps reduce friction between the two layers of the pleura during breathing movements. The presence of pleural fluid is essential for the proper functioning of the lungs and allows for smooth and painless movement of the lungs during respiration.

The vertebra prominans, also known as the seventh cervical vertebra or C7, is located at the base of the neck. It is the most prominent vertebra in the cervical spine and can be easily felt as a bony prominence at the back of the neck.

The stylohyoid ligament connects the hyoid bone to various structures in the neck and shoulder region. It attaches to the tongue, mandible, sternum, larynx, pharynx, and scapula. However, it does not connect to the clavicle.

It's due to the thyroid gland NOT lymph nodes

The conjoined tendon is located posterior to the inguinal canal. This means that it is situated behind or towards the back of the inguinal canal.

The bit-fit spinous processes is a unique feature of the cervical vertebrae. The spinous processes are the bony projections that extend from the back of each vertebra. In the cervical vertebrae, these spinous processes are bifid or split into two parts, resembling a "bit" shape. This feature is not present in the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral vertebrae. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical vertebrae.

The correct answer is Esophagus. The esophagus is the deepest structure in the root of the neck. It is a muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach, allowing food and liquids to pass through. The other options, IVS and SVC, are not structures in the root of the neck.

The hypoglossal nerve provides motor function to the tongue. This nerve controls the movement of the tongue during speech, swallowing, and chewing. Damage to the hypoglossal nerve can lead to difficulties in these functions, such as slurred speech or difficulty swallowing. The trigeminal nerve provides sensory function to the face, while the facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression. The vagus nerve has various functions, including regulating the heart rate and gastrointestinal activity.

The correct answer is "Bone forming cell named osteoclast." This statement is incorrect because osteoclasts are actually bone-resorbing cells, not bone-forming cells. Osteoblasts are the cells responsible for bone formation.

The correct answer is smell. The question asks for the modality of senses that do not relay in the thalamus. While thermal senses, fine touch, vision, and proprioception all relay in the thalamus, smell is an exception. Smell signals bypass the thalamus and instead travel directly to the olfactory cortex in the brain.

The polio virus damages the ventral horn neurons in poliomyelitis. Poliomyelitis is a viral infection that affects the nervous system, specifically the motor neurons in the spinal cord. The virus primarily targets and destroys the ventral horn neurons, which are responsible for transmitting motor signals from the spinal cord to the muscles. This damage leads to muscle weakness, paralysis, and other symptoms associated with polio.

The dorsal root ganglia are involved in sensory function. These ganglia are located along the dorsal root of the spinal nerve and contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. These neurons receive sensory information from various parts of the body and transmit it to the central nervous system for processing and interpretation. Therefore, the correct answer is sensory function.

The lymphatic drainage of the anal region goes to the lateral inguinal lymph nodes. The lateral inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin area and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, genitalia, and anal region. These lymph nodes play a role in filtering and draining lymph fluid from the anal region, helping to remove waste products and pathogens from the area.

The great saphenous vein is a long vein that runs along the medial side of the leg. It starts from the dorsal venous arch of the foot and terminates in the femoral vein. It contains a series of valves that prevent backflow of blood. However, it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus, which is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle. Hence, the correct answer is that it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus.

The lateral boundary of the femoral ring is the femoral vein. The femoral ring is a passageway in the lower abdomen through which the femoral artery, femoral vein, and other structures pass. The femoral vein is located on the lateral side of the femoral ring, along with the femoral artery. The inguinal ligament forms the superior boundary of the femoral ring, while the lacunar ligament and pectineus muscle are not directly related to the boundaries of the femoral ring.

The knee jerk, or patellar reflex, tests the spinal cord levels L2, L3, and L4. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon, which stretches the quadriceps muscle. The sensory information from the stretch receptors in the muscle is transmitted to the spinal cord through the femoral nerve, and the motor response is generated by the spinal cord, causing contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the leg. The involvement of L2, L3, and L4 spinal cord levels in this reflex is well-established in medical literature.

Adductor magnus is the correct answer because it is innervated by both the obturator nerve and the sciatic nerve. The obturator nerve supplies the anterior part of the muscle, while the sciatic nerve supplies the posterior part. This dual innervation allows for more precise control and coordination of the muscle's actions. The other muscles listed, such as Gracilis, Sartorius, Adductor longus, and Biceps femoris, do not have dual innervation.

The rectus femoris muscle is responsible for flexing the hip and extending the knee. It is one of the four quadriceps muscles located in the front of the thigh. When the rectus femoris contracts, it helps to lift the leg at the hip joint and straighten the knee joint. This muscle is important for movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

The muscle that flexes the hip, flexes the knee, and laterally rotates the thigh to bring the lower limbs into the cross-legged sitting position is the Sartorius muscle.

The gluteus maximus muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the knee joint. It is the largest muscle in the buttocks and is responsible for extending the hip joint and providing stability to the knee during activities such as walking, running, and jumping. Weakness or dysfunction of the gluteus maximus can lead to poor knee stability, which may increase the risk of knee injuries or pain.

The tensor fascia latae muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, not the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve innervates other muscles in the thigh, but not the tensor fascia latae. The tensor fascia latae muscle is located in the upper lateral side of the thigh, attached to the iliotibial band, and is completely surrounded by deep fascia.

The lesser trochanter of the femur is the site of distal attachment for the iliopsoas muscle. The iliopsoas muscle is a combination of two muscles, the psoas major and the iliacus, which work together to flex the hip joint. The lesser trochanter is a bony prominence located on the posterior aspect of the femur, and it serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments. In this case, the iliopsoas muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter to assist in hip flexion.

The artery of the head of the femur is normally a branch of the obturator artery.

The fibular collateral ligament is a ligament that connects the fibular head to the medial tibial condyle. It is a flat extracapsular thickening and the tendon of the popliteus muscle runs superficial to it. However, it does not have any connection to the lateral meniscus. Instead, it is blended or fused with the medial meniscus.

The correct answer is S1, S2. The ankle jerk reflex, also known as the Achilles reflex, is a deep tendon reflex that tests the integrity of the S1 and S2 spinal nerve roots. When the Achilles tendon is tapped, it stimulates sensory receptors in the muscle spindle, which then activates the S1 and S2 nerve roots. The resulting reflex contraction of the calf muscles indicates the normal functioning of these nerve roots.

The correct answer is C & D because inside the knee joint cavity, both the medial meniscus and lateral meniscus are present. The menisci are crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that act as shock absorbers and help to distribute weight evenly across the knee joint. The ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament) are also important structures within the knee joint, but they are not located inside the joint cavity itself.

The talus bone is unique because it does not have any muscle attachments. It is located in the ankle joint and acts as a connector between the leg and foot bones. While other bones in the foot, such as the navicular, medial cuneiform, cuboid, and calcaneus, have various muscle attachments that contribute to foot movement and stability, the talus bone's main function is to transmit weight from the leg to the foot.

Marathon runners often experience stress fractures in the metatarsal bones of their feet due to the repetitive impact and pressure placed on their feet during long-distance running. The 2nd metatarsal bone is the most commonly affected bone in the foot for this type of fracture. This is because it is longer and thinner compared to the other metatarsal bones, making it more susceptible to stress and fatigue fractures.

In case of a fracture femur, all the following statements are correct except for "Limb is medially rotated."

The cuboideonavicular joint is not a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial fluid-filled cavity between the articulating surfaces, allowing for smooth movement. The talocalcneal, talonavicular, calcaneocuboid, and naviculocuneiform joints are all synovial joints found in the foot. However, the cuboideonavicular joint is a fibrous joint, which means it is connected by fibrous tissue rather than a synovial cavity.

The gastrocnemius muscle is not participating in the dynamic support of the foot arches. The foot arches are primarily supported by the tibialis anterior, flexor hallucis longus, fibularis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles. The gastrocnemius muscle is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot, not for providing support to the arches.

The bones that maintain the medial longitudinal arch of the foot are the calcaneus, talus, navicular, three metatarsals, and three cuneiforms. These bones work together to provide support and stability to the arch, allowing for proper weight distribution and shock absorption during walking and running.