1.
All the following are correct regarding the BONE, EXCEPT?
Correct Answer
C. Bone forming cell named osteoclast
Explanation
The correct answer is "Bone forming cell named osteoclast." This statement is incorrect because osteoclasts are actually bone-resorbing cells, not bone-forming cells. Osteoblasts are the cells responsible for bone formation.
2.
All modality of senses relay in thalamus EXCEP?
Correct Answer
D. Smell
Explanation
The correct answer is smell. The question asks for the modality of senses that do not relay in the thalamus. While thermal senses, fine touch, vision, and proprioception all relay in the thalamus, smell is an exception. Smell signals bypass the thalamus and instead travel directly to the olfactory cortex in the brain.
3.
In poliomyelitis, which of the followings get damaged by the polio virus
Correct Answer
C. Ventral horn neurons
Explanation
The polio virus damages the ventral horn neurons in poliomyelitis. Poliomyelitis is a viral infection that affects the nervous system, specifically the motor neurons in the spinal cord. The virus primarily targets and destroys the ventral horn neurons, which are responsible for transmitting motor signals from the spinal cord to the muscles. This damage leads to muscle weakness, paralysis, and other symptoms associated with polio.
4.
Dermatomal level of umbilicus is
Correct Answer
A. T10
Explanation
The correct answer is T10. The dermatomal level of the umbilicus refers to the specific spinal nerve that innervates the skin around the umbilicus. In this case, T10 refers to the 10th thoracic spinal nerve, which is responsible for providing sensation to the area around the umbilicus.
5.
Dorsal root ganglia involved in
Correct Answer
B. Sensory function
Explanation
The dorsal root ganglia are involved in sensory function. These ganglia are located along the dorsal root of the spinal nerve and contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. These neurons receive sensory information from various parts of the body and transmit it to the central nervous system for processing and interpretation. Therefore, the correct answer is sensory function.
6.
Lymphatic drainage of anal region goes to?
Correct Answer
C. Lateral inguinal LN
Explanation
The lymphatic drainage of the anal region goes to the lateral inguinal lymph nodes. The lateral inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin area and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, genitalia, and anal region. These lymph nodes play a role in filtering and draining lymph fluid from the anal region, helping to remove waste products and pathogens from the area.
7.
All the following are correct regarding great saphenous vein EXCEPT
Correct Answer
E. Runs posterior to medial malleolus
Explanation
The great saphenous vein is a long vein that runs along the medial side of the leg. It starts from the dorsal venous arch of the foot and terminates in the femoral vein. It contains a series of valves that prevent backflow of blood. However, it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus, which is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle. Hence, the correct answer is that it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus.
8.
Lateral boundary of the femoral ring is?
Correct Answer
A. Femoral vein
Explanation
The lateral boundary of the femoral ring is the femoral vein. The femoral ring is a passageway in the lower abdomen through which the femoral artery, femoral vein, and other structures pass. The femoral vein is located on the lateral side of the femoral ring, along with the femoral artery. The inguinal ligament forms the superior boundary of the femoral ring, while the lacunar ligament and pectineus muscle are not directly related to the boundaries of the femoral ring.
9.
In knee jerk, or patellar reflex you are testing spinal cord levels?
Correct Answer
A. L2, L3, L4
Explanation
The knee jerk, or patellar reflex, tests the spinal cord levels L2, L3, and L4. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon, which stretches the quadriceps muscle. The sensory information from the stretch receptors in the muscle is transmitted to the spinal cord through the femoral nerve, and the motor response is generated by the spinal cord, causing contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the leg. The involvement of L2, L3, and L4 spinal cord levels in this reflex is well-established in medical literature.
10.
Which of the following muscles have a dual innervation
Correct Answer
D. Adductor magnus
Explanation
Adductor magnus is the correct answer because it is innervated by both the obturator nerve and the sciatic nerve. The obturator nerve supplies the anterior part of the muscle, while the sciatic nerve supplies the posterior part. This dual innervation allows for more precise control and coordination of the muscle's actions. The other muscles listed, such as Gracilis, Sartorius, Adductor longus, and Biceps femoris, do not have dual innervation.
11.
Which of the following muscles flex hip & extend knee
Correct Answer
A. Rectus femoris
Explanation
The rectus femoris muscle is responsible for flexing the hip and extending the knee. It is one of the four quadriceps muscles located in the front of the thigh. When the rectus femoris contracts, it helps to lift the leg at the hip joint and straighten the knee joint. This muscle is important for movements such as walking, running, and jumping.
12.
All the following are the contain of the subsartorial canal EXCEPT
Correct Answer
C. Long sapHenous V
Explanation
The subsartorial canal contains the femoral vein, femoral artery, saphenous nerve, and nerve to vastus medialis. However, the long saphenous vein is not found in the subsartorial canal.
13.
Muscle that flex hip, flex knee, & lateral rotate your thigh bring the lower limbs into the cross legged sitting position is?
Correct Answer
B. Sartorius
Explanation
The muscle that flexes the hip, flexes the knee, and laterally rotates the thigh to bring the lower limbs into the cross-legged sitting position is the Sartorius muscle.
14.
Oblique popliteal ligament is the reflected part of a muscle operated by?
Correct Answer
A. Sciatic N
Explanation
The oblique popliteal ligament is a ligament located in the knee joint. It is not operated by a muscle, but rather it helps to stabilize the joint. The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that runs down the back of the leg and is closely associated with the knee joint. Therefore, it is possible that the sciatic nerve may have some influence on the oblique popliteal ligament, hence it is the most likely answer.
15.
All the following passes through greater sciatic foramina EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. Tendon of obturator internus muscle
Explanation
The greater sciatic foramen is a large opening in the pelvic bone through which several structures pass. The piriformis muscle, sciatic nerve, inferior gluteal artery, and superior gluteal nerve all pass through the greater sciatic foramen. However, the tendon of the obturator internus muscle does not pass through this opening. Therefore, the correct answer is the tendon of the obturator internus muscle.
16.
Perfect site for lumbar puncture (spinal tap) between
Correct Answer
D. L4 & L5
Explanation
The correct answer is L4 & L5. This is the ideal site for a lumbar puncture because the spinal cord ends at the level of L1-L2, so there is no risk of damaging the spinal cord during the procedure. The L4-L5 intervertebral space is also wide enough to allow for easy access to the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid is collected. Additionally, the spinous processes at this level are less prominent, making it easier to insert the needle without hitting bone.
17.
Sacroiliac joint is
Correct Answer
B. Synovial
Explanation
The sacroiliac joint is a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity, which contains synovial fluid that lubricates and nourishes the joint. These joints allow for a wide range of movement and are found in various parts of the body, including the hips, knees, and shoulders. In the case of the sacroiliac joint, it is located between the sacrum and the ilium bones of the pelvis, and it allows for a small amount of movement to occur, primarily for shock absorption and stability during activities such as walking or running.
18.
In case of posterior hip dislocation, which of the following in danger?
Correct Answer
C. Sciatic N
Explanation
In case of posterior hip dislocation, the sciatic nerve is in danger. Posterior hip dislocation occurs when the femoral head is forced out of the socket towards the back of the hip joint. This can result in compression or stretching of the sciatic nerve, which runs through the back of the hip joint. Damage to the sciatic nerve can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the leg and foot. Therefore, it is important to be cautious of the sciatic nerve when dealing with posterior hip dislocations.
19.
The strongest ligament in your hip is?
Correct Answer
C. Iliofemoral
Explanation
The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament in the hip. It is located on the front of the hip joint and is responsible for preventing excessive extension and hyperextension of the hip. This ligament plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and preventing dislocation of the hip joint.
20.
Which of the following muscles affected stability of knee joint?
Correct Answer
D. Gluteus max M
Explanation
The gluteus maximus muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the knee joint. It is the largest muscle in the buttocks and is responsible for extending the hip joint and providing stability to the knee during activities such as walking, running, and jumping. Weakness or dysfunction of the gluteus maximus can lead to poor knee stability, which may increase the risk of knee injuries or pain.
21.
All the following are correct regarding tensor fascia latae muscle EXCEPT?
Correct Answer
A. Innervated by femoral nerve
Explanation
The tensor fascia latae muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, not the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve innervates other muscles in the thigh, but not the tensor fascia latae. The tensor fascia latae muscle is located in the upper lateral side of the thigh, attached to the iliotibial band, and is completely surrounded by deep fascia.
22.
Trendelenberg sign positive indicates damage to?
Correct Answer
D. Superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The Trendelenberg sign is a clinical test used to assess the function of the hip abductor muscles. A positive Trendelenberg sign indicates weakness or paralysis of the hip abductors. The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles, which are responsible for hip abduction. Therefore, damage to the superior gluteal nerve would result in a positive Trendelenberg sign.
23.
Your hip is medially rotated mainly by?
Correct Answer
C. Superior Gluteal N
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for medially rotating the hip.
24.
In case of supracondylar fracture of the femur, which of the following in danger?
Correct Answer
C. Popliteal A
Explanation
In case of a supracondylar fracture of the femur, the popliteal artery is in danger. This is because the fracture occurs just above the condyles of the femur, which can cause displacement of bone fragments and potential damage to the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower leg and foot, so any injury to it can lead to significant complications such as ischemia or even limb-threatening conditions.
25.
Piriformis syndrome resulted from nerve compression due to long-distance walking or running or by direct compression to?
Correct Answer
D. Sciatic N
Explanation
Piriformis syndrome is a condition that occurs when the sciatic nerve is compressed or irritated by the piriformis muscle in the buttocks. The piriformis muscle can become tight or inflamed due to activities such as long-distance walking or running, which can then put pressure on the sciatic nerve. This can result in pain, tingling, or numbness in the buttocks and down the leg. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sciatic Nerve.
26.
Hanna, likes to wear tight knee-high boots when she goes out. Lately she has noticed that anterolateral surface of her legs is numb while wearing them and she also has some difficulty doesiflexing her foot. Which nerve do you suspect is being compressed?
Correct Answer
C. Common fibular N
Explanation
The common fibular nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that dorsiflex the foot and the sensation on the anterolateral surface of the leg. In this case, Hanna's symptoms of numbness and difficulty dorsiflexing her foot suggest that the common fibular nerve is being compressed while wearing the tight knee-high boots.
27.
Lesser trochanter of femur is the site of distal attachment of?
Correct Answer
C. Iliopsoas muscle
Explanation
The lesser trochanter of the femur is the site of distal attachment for the iliopsoas muscle. The iliopsoas muscle is a combination of two muscles, the psoas major and the iliacus, which work together to flex the hip joint. The lesser trochanter is a bony prominence located on the posterior aspect of the femur, and it serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments. In this case, the iliopsoas muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter to assist in hip flexion.
28.
Artery of head of femur normally is a branch of
Correct Answer
E. Obturator artery
Explanation
The artery of the head of the femur is normally a branch of the obturator artery.
29.
All the following are correct regarding popliteus muscle EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. Attached to medial meniscus
Explanation
The popliteus muscle is not attached to the medial meniscus. It is a small muscle located at the back of the knee joint and is responsible for unlocking the knee by rotating the tibia. It is innervated by the tibial nerve and is not directly attached to the lateral meniscus or the femoral lateral epicondyle.
30.
Fibular collateral ligament
Correct Answer
D. Has no connection lateral meniscus
Explanation
The fibular collateral ligament is a ligament that connects the fibular head to the medial tibial condyle. It is a flat extracapsular thickening and the tendon of the popliteus muscle runs superficial to it. However, it does not have any connection to the lateral meniscus. Instead, it is blended or fused with the medial meniscus.
31.
Dr. Ali is subjected to traffic accident as crossing 5th Ave, Shadyside hospital diagnosed him as fracture fibular neck, after recovery period he notice inability to dorsi flex his foot on fractured side, which of the following nerve injured?
Correct Answer
D. Common fibular N
Explanation
The correct answer is the Common fibular N. The Common fibular nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that control dorsi flexion of the foot. In this case, the fracture of the fibular neck likely caused damage to the Common fibular nerve, resulting in the inability to dorsi flex the foot on the fractured side.
32.
Which of the following nerves used usually for nerve biopsy?
Correct Answer
E. Sural N
Explanation
The sural nerve is commonly used for nerve biopsy. It is a sensory nerve located in the lower leg and foot. It is easily accessible and relatively superficial, making it an ideal choice for biopsy procedures. Biopsies of the sural nerve can provide valuable information about nerve damage or disease, helping to diagnose conditions such as peripheral neuropathy.
33.
Lower tibiofibular joint is
Correct Answer
A. Fibrous
Explanation
The lower tibiofibular joint is classified as fibrous because it is connected by fibrous connective tissue. Fibrous joints are immovable or slightly movable joints that are held together by dense regular connective tissue, such as collagen fibers. In the case of the lower tibiofibular joint, the tibia and fibula bones are connected by a fibrous ligament, which allows for minimal movement between the two bones. This type of joint provides stability and support to the lower leg.
34.
In ankle jerk you are testing the integrity of
Correct Answer
D. S1, S2
Explanation
The correct answer is S1, S2. The ankle jerk reflex, also known as the Achilles reflex, is a deep tendon reflex that tests the integrity of the S1 and S2 spinal nerve roots. When the Achilles tendon is tapped, it stimulates sensory receptors in the muscle spindle, which then activates the S1 and S2 nerve roots. The resulting reflex contraction of the calf muscles indicates the normal functioning of these nerve roots.
35.
All the following are correct regarding the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), EXCEPT
Correct Answer
C. The ACL has a relatively rich blood supply
Explanation
The correct answer is that the ACL has a relatively poor blood supply. This means that the ACL does not receive as much blood flow compared to other ligaments in the body. This is significant because a poor blood supply can hinder the ACL's ability to heal and recover from injury.
36.
Inability in walking downhill, means damage to?
Correct Answer
A. Posterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
Inability in walking downhill suggests damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is one of the major ligaments in the knee that helps stabilize the joint. It prevents the tibia (shinbone) from moving too far backward in relation to the femur (thighbone). When the PCL is damaged, it can cause instability in the knee, making it difficult to walk downhill.
37.
Inside the knee joint cavity is
Correct Answer
E. C & D
Explanation
The correct answer is C & D because inside the knee joint cavity, both the medial meniscus and lateral meniscus are present. The menisci are crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that act as shock absorbers and help to distribute weight evenly across the knee joint. The ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament) are also important structures within the knee joint, but they are not located inside the joint cavity itself.
38.
Which of the following bones have no muscle attachments
Correct Answer
B. Talus
Explanation
The talus bone is unique because it does not have any muscle attachments. It is located in the ankle joint and acts as a connector between the leg and foot bones. While other bones in the foot, such as the navicular, medial cuneiform, cuboid, and calcaneus, have various muscle attachments that contribute to foot movement and stability, the talus bone's main function is to transmit weight from the leg to the foot.
39.
All the following are the contents of tarsal tunnel EXCEPT
Correct Answer
C. Fibularis longus tendon
Explanation
The tarsal tunnel is a narrow space in the ankle where several structures pass through. These structures include the posterior tibial artery, tibialis posterior tendon, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus muscle. The fibularis longus tendon, however, does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Therefore, it is the only structure listed that is not a content of the tarsal tunnel.
40.
Which of the metatarsal bone might be fatigue fractured in marathon runners
Correct Answer
B. 2nd
Explanation
Marathon runners often experience stress fractures in the metatarsal bones of their feet due to the repetitive impact and pressure placed on their feet during long-distance running. The 2nd metatarsal bone is the most commonly affected bone in the foot for this type of fracture. This is because it is longer and thinner compared to the other metatarsal bones, making it more susceptible to stress and fatigue fractures.
41.
Posterior Tibial Pulse can usually be palpated between?
Correct Answer
B. Posterior surface of the medial malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon
Explanation
The posterior tibial pulse can usually be palpated between the posterior surface of the medial malleolus (the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle) and the medial border of the calcaneal tendon (the tendon that connects the calf muscles to the heel bone).
42.
All the following are correct regarding Popliteal artery EXCEPT
Correct Answer
A. Deep to popliteus muscle
Explanation
The popliteal artery is deep to the popliteus muscle, which means it is located beneath it. This statement is incorrect because the popliteal artery is actually deep to the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, not the popliteus muscle. The popliteal artery gives rise to both anterior and posterior arteries, and its fibular branch typically arises from the posterior tibial artery.
43.
In case of fracture femur all the following are correct EXCEPT
Correct Answer
D. Limb is medially rotated
Explanation
In case of a fracture femur, all the following statements are correct except for "Limb is medially rotated."
44.
Lower end of tibia, articulates with?
Correct Answer
B. Talus
Explanation
The lower end of the tibia articulates with the talus bone. The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones in the foot and is located between the tibia and the calcaneus (heel bone). It forms a joint called the talocrural joint, which allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot. The articulation between the tibia and talus is important for weight-bearing and movement of the ankle joint.
45.
Your ankle joint is more stable in?
Correct Answer
D. Dorsiflexion
Explanation
Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the ankle joint where the foot is flexed upward towards the shin. This position allows for greater stability in the ankle joint as the bones of the foot are aligned in a way that provides better support. In contrast, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion involve movements that can potentially compromise the stability of the ankle joint. Therefore, dorsiflexion is the most stable position for the ankle joint.
46.
All the following joints in your foot are synovial EXCEPT
Correct Answer
D. Cuboideonavicular
Explanation
The cuboideonavicular joint is not a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial fluid-filled cavity between the articulating surfaces, allowing for smooth movement. The talocalcneal, talonavicular, calcaneocuboid, and naviculocuneiform joints are all synovial joints found in the foot. However, the cuboideonavicular joint is a fibrous joint, which means it is connected by fibrous tissue rather than a synovial cavity.
47.
All the following muscles are participating in dynamic support of your foot arches EXCEPT
Correct Answer
B. Gastrocnemius
Explanation
The gastrocnemius muscle is not participating in the dynamic support of the foot arches. The foot arches are primarily supported by the tibialis anterior, flexor hallucis longus, fibularis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles. The gastrocnemius muscle is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot, not for providing support to the arches.
48.
Muscle that inverts your foot & dorsiflex your ankle?
Correct Answer
B. Tibialis anterior M
Explanation
The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for both inversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the ankle. Inversion refers to the movement of the foot towards the midline of the body, while dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the foot towards the shin. The tibialis anterior muscle is located on the front of the lower leg and plays a crucial role in stabilizing the ankle and foot during walking and running.
49.
Bone's that maintain medial longitudinal arch of your foot?
Correct Answer
F. All the above
Explanation
The bones that maintain the medial longitudinal arch of the foot are the calcaneus, talus, navicular, three metatarsals, and three cuneiforms. These bones work together to provide support and stability to the arch, allowing for proper weight distribution and shock absorption during walking and running.
50.
Nerve cause Plantarflex your foot & flex your knee
Correct Answer
B. Tibial N
Explanation
The tibial nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that plantarflex the foot and flex the knee. It is a major branch of the sciatic nerve and provides motor and sensory innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and foot. Plantarflexion is the movement of pointing the foot downwards, while knee flexion is the movement of bending the knee. Therefore, the tibial nerve is the correct answer as it is directly involved in these movements.