1.
Goserelin and Triptorelin has 100 fold of relative potency to GnRH
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Goserelin and Triptorelin do not have a 100 fold relative potency to GnRH. Therefore, the statement is false.
2.
In Fujii et al. Leuprolide and goserelin resulted in similar mean testosterone levels in men with prostate cancer
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement suggests that both leuprolide and goserelin have similar effects on testosterone levels in men with prostate cancer. This implies that both drugs are equally effective in reducing testosterone levels, which is important in the treatment of prostate cancer. Therefore, the answer is true.
3.
In Breul J et al. trial the number of patients was:
Correct Answer
C. 920
Explanation
The correct answer is 920.
4.
In Lebret et al. trial:
Correct Answer(s)
B. It is a multicenter , open-label, single arm study.
D. The investigational drug was triptorelin 11.25mg
Explanation
The given answer states that the trial is a multicenter, open-label, single arm study and the investigational drug used in the trial was triptorelin 11.25mg. This means that the trial was conducted at multiple centers, the participants and researchers were aware of the treatment being administered, and there was only one group receiving the investigational drug.
5.
After IM administration of treptorelin the most common TEAEs is:
Correct Answer
A. Hot flushes
Explanation
After intramuscular administration of treptorelin, the most common treatment-emergent adverse events (TEAEs) reported are hot flushes. This means that patients who received treptorelin experienced a higher incidence of hot flushes compared to other potential side effects such as erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, or weight loss. Hot flushes are a known side effect of treptorelin, which is a medication used to treat conditions such as prostate cancer and endometriosis.
6.
Decapeptyl is a
Correct Answer(s)
A. GnRH analogue
C. Differs from GnRH in the number of amino acids it contains
Explanation
Decapeptyl is classified as a GnRH analogue because it shares the same affinity to receptors as GnRH. However, it differs from GnRH in the number of amino acids it contains. This means that while Decapeptyl mimics the action of GnRH, it is structurally different due to the variation in the number of amino acids.
7.
Decapeptyl half-life is
Correct Answer
C. 7.6 hours
Explanation
The correct answer is 7.6 hours because half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In this case, it would take approximately 7.6 hours for half of the Decapeptyl to be eliminated.
8.
After surgical castration triptorelin does not induce any further decrease in serum testosterone levels
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
After surgical castration, the testicles are removed, resulting in a significant decrease in testosterone production. Triptorelin is a medication that works by suppressing the production of testosterone in the body. Since surgical castration already eliminates testosterone production, triptorelin would not have any further effect on reducing serum testosterone levels. Therefore, the statement that triptorelin does not induce any further decrease in serum testosterone levels after surgical castration is true.
9.
Choose the correct answers about Prostate cancer epidemiology:
Correct Answer(s)
A. It is the most common cancer in men
B. It represents more than 10% of new cancers
C. Its Incidence is decreasing due to changes in lifestyle
Explanation
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men and represents more than 10% of new cancers. Additionally, its incidence is decreasing due to changes in lifestyle.
10.
Risk Factors of prostate cancer all are true except:
Correct Answer
A. More common before 40 years old
Explanation
Prostate cancer is generally more common in older individuals, with the risk increasing as age advances. This is because prostate cells tend to undergo changes over time, making them more susceptible to cancer development. Therefore, it is less common for prostate cancer to occur before the age of 40.
11.
Prostate cancer initial detection signs all are true except
Correct Answer
B. Lower right quadrant abdominal pain.
Explanation
Lower right quadrant abdominal pain is not a typical initial detection sign of prostate cancer. Prostate cancer is a condition that primarily affects the prostate gland, which is located in the pelvis, not the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. Therefore, this symptom is not associated with prostate cancer and is not considered a reliable indicator for its initial detection. On the other hand, acute urine retention, nodule on digital rectal examination, and elevated PSA levels are all potential signs that can be observed in the early stages of prostate cancer.
12.
The most common test used for Prostate cancer diagnosis is:
Correct Answer
C. DRE and PSA test
Explanation
The most common test used for Prostate cancer diagnosis is DRE (Digital Rectal Exam) and PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) test. DRE involves a doctor manually examining the prostate gland through the rectum to check for any abnormalities. PSA test measures the levels of PSA, a protein produced by the prostate gland, in the blood. Elevated PSA levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. These tests are commonly used together as they provide valuable information for diagnosing prostate cancer and determining the need for further investigations or treatment.
13.
The Grading system followed for prostate cancer histological evaluation is:
Correct Answer
D. Gleason Grading system
Explanation
The Gleason Grading system is used for histological evaluation of prostate cancer. It is a method of grading the tumor based on its microscopic appearance. The system assigns a score ranging from 2 to 10, with higher scores indicating a more aggressive and poorly differentiated tumor. The Gleason score is determined by evaluating the two most prevalent patterns observed in the tumor sample. This grading system helps in predicting the prognosis and guiding treatment decisions for prostate cancer patients.
14.
RTOG and EORTC data indicate that there is an advantage to start immediately after diagnosis hormonal treatment for cancer of prostate with metastases
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that both RTOG (Radiation Therapy Oncology Group) and EORTC (European Organisation for Research and Treatment of Cancer) have provided data that shows starting hormonal treatment immediately after diagnosis for prostate cancer with metastases has an advantage. This suggests that early hormonal treatment can be beneficial in managing the cancer and its spread.
15.
In castration resistance Prostate cancer, all are true except
Correct Answer(s)
C. Increase testosterone level >50% ng/dl.
D. Androgenic treatment should be stopped.
Explanation
In castration-resistant prostate cancer, all the given options are true except for "Increase testosterone level >50% ng/dl" and "Androgenic treatment should be stopped." In castration-resistant prostate cancer, the cancer cells have become resistant to the effects of androgen deprivation therapy (ADT). This means that despite the reduction in testosterone levels, the cancer cells continue to grow. Therefore, PSA levels are increased and androgenic treatment should be continued, rather than stopped. Additionally, the increase in testosterone level >50% ng/dl is not a characteristic feature of castration-resistant prostate cancer.
16.
Traditional and recommended castrate levels of testosterone is:
Correct Answer
B. <50
Explanation
The traditional and recommended castrate levels of testosterone are indicated by the value "<50". This means that the testosterone level should be below 50 units in order to achieve castration. This is a commonly accepted threshold for testosterone suppression in medical practice.
17.
Lower levels of castrate testosterone are associated with an increase in progression-free survival (PFS)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Lower levels of castrate testosterone are associated with an increase in progression-free survival (PFS) because testosterone plays a crucial role in the growth and proliferation of prostate cancer cells. By reducing the levels of testosterone through castration or hormone therapy, the growth of cancer cells can be slowed down or halted, leading to an increase in progression-free survival. This association has been supported by various studies and is an important factor to consider in the management of prostate cancer.
18.
50 ng/dL testosterone lcut-off is associated with increased time to CRPC
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
A testosterone cut-off of 50 ng/dL is not associated with increased time to CRPC. This means that having a testosterone level below 50 ng/dL does not necessarily lead to a longer time before developing castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). The statement implies that there is no correlation between the testosterone cut-off and the time it takes for CRPC to develop.
19.
Failure to maintain castration levels of testosterone is generally low across GnRH agonists
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
GnRH agonists are medications used to lower testosterone levels in individuals, often as a treatment for conditions such as prostate cancer or endometriosis. These medications work by suppressing the production of testosterone in the body. Therefore, it is expected that the failure to maintain castration levels of testosterone would be low across GnRH agonists. In other words, these medications are generally effective in reducing testosterone levels to the desired castration levels. Hence, the statement "Failure to maintain castration levels of testosterone is generally low across GnRH agonists" is true.