About To Become A Doctor? You Gotta Pass This Quiz!
(282).jpg "About To Become A Doctor? You Gotta Pass This Quiz! - Quiz")
A physician, medical practitioner, medical doctor, or simply doctor, is a professional who practices medicine, which is concerned with promoting, maintaining or restoring health through the study, diagnosis, prognosis and treatment of disease, injury, and other physical and mental impairments.
About to become a Doctor? You gotta pass this quiz!
- 1.
What is the dosage for Epi?
- 2.
What dose is correct for Acetaminophen?
- A.
324mg POx1
- B.
15mg/kg POx1
- C.
4mg IV/IO x1 q 4-6hr
- D.
Auto injector into lateral thigh
Correct Answer
B. 15mg/kg POx1Explanation
The correct dose for Acetaminophen is 15mg/kg POx1. This means that the recommended dose is 15 milligrams per kilogram of body weight, taken orally once. This dosage is commonly used for pain relief and fever reduction in both children and adults.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What dose is correct for Acetazolamide?
- A.
250mg (IR) POx1, may repeat in 12 hr
- B.
1mg of 1:10,000 IV/IO q 3-5 min
- C.
400mcg OFTC buccal x1
- D.
100mcg INx1
Correct Answer
A. 250mg (IR) POx1, may repeat in 12 hr -
- 4.
What dose is correct for Albuterol Sulfate?
- A.
2mg IM, repeat x1 in 15 min prn till BGL>80mg/dL
- B.
Auto injector to the thigh
- C.
25mg IV/IM, repeat 15 min prn
- D.
5mg nebulizer, max 15mg (can repeat x3)
Correct Answer
D. 5mg nebulizer, max 15mg (can repeat x3)Explanation
The correct answer is 5mg nebulizer, max 15mg (can repeat x3). This is the correct dose for Albuterol Sulfate. Nebulizer administration is a common route for delivering this medication, and the recommended dose is 5mg. It can be repeated up to three times, with a maximum total dose of 15mg. This dosing regimen allows for flexibility in providing the medication based on the patient's response and needs.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What dose is correct for Aspirin?
- A.
325mg POx1
- B.
324mg POx1
- C.
81mg POx2, prn after 15 min
- D.
200mL over 2 min, may repeat x1
Correct Answer
B. 324mg POx1Explanation
The correct dose for Aspirin is 324mg POx1. This means that the recommended dose is to take 324mg of Aspirin orally once.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What dose is correct for Atropine Pralidoxime?
- A.
250mL Bolus
- B.
250mg INx2
- C.
2mg IM, may repeat in 1 min
- D.
Auto injector to the lateral thigh, repeat q 3-5min
Correct Answer
D. Auto injector to the lateral thigh, repeat q 3-5minExplanation
The correct answer is "Auto injector to the lateral thigh, repeat q 3-5min." This answer suggests that Atropine Pralidoxime should be administered using an auto injector to the lateral thigh and can be repeated every 3-5 minutes. This method is commonly used for the administration of certain medications in emergency situations, such as in cases of nerve agent poisoning.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Is the dose for Hypertonic solution 250mL Bolus IV/IO and may repeat in 1 min with OLMD approval to a max dose of 600mL true or false?
- A.
True
- B.
False (500mL)
Correct Answer
B. False (500mL)Explanation
The correct answer is False (500mL). The given statement is incorrect as the dose for Hypertonic solution is 500mL Bolus IV/IO, not 250mL. It can be repeated in 1 minute with OLMD approval, but the maximum dose is 500mL, not 600mL.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Is the dose for Dexamethasone 4mg IV/IO x1 q 4-6hr true or false?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true. The dose for Dexamethasone is 4mg IV/IO (intravenous or intraosseous) and can be given once every 4-6 hours.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
How many mL IV/IO over 2 min of Dextrose 10% do administer
Correct Answer
250Explanation
The question asks how many mL of Dextrose 10% should be administered intravenously or intraosseously over a period of 2 minutes. The answer is 250 mL, which means that 250 mL of Dextrose 10% should be given within the specified time frame.Rate this question:
- 10.
What dose is correct for Diazepam?
- A.
2mg IN x1
- B.
Auto injector into outer thigh x1
- C.
15mg POx1
- D.
30mg (ER tablet)
Correct Answer
B. Auto injector into outer thigh x1Explanation
The correct dose for Diazepam is to administer an auto injector into the outer thigh once.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
What dose is correct for diphenhydramine?
- A.
15 mg IV x1
- B.
0.50mg/3mL nebulized
- C.
25 mg IV/IM repeat in 15 min prn
- D.
2mg IM
Correct Answer
C. 25 mg IV/IM repeat in 15 min prnExplanation
The correct dose for diphenhydramine is 25 mg IV/IM repeat in 15 min prn. This means that the initial dose of diphenhydramine is 25 mg given either intravenously or intramuscularly. If necessary, this dose can be repeated after 15 minutes as needed. This dosing regimen allows for flexibility in adjusting the dose based on the patient's response to the medication.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What dose is correct for Meloxicam?
Correct Answer
15mg POx1Explanation
The correct dose for Meloxicam is 15mg taken orally once.Rate this question:
- 13.
What is the dosage for Oxytocin?
Correct Answer
10IU IMx1Explanation
The correct dosage for Oxytocin is 10IU administered intramuscularly once.Rate this question:
- 14.
What dose is correct for Naloxone? (can repeat q3-5 min till RR >8)
Correct Answer
0.4mg IV/IM/IN till RR is >8Explanation
The correct dose for Naloxone is 0.4mg, which can be administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or intranasally. The administration should be repeated every 3-5 minutes until the respiratory rate (RR) is greater than 8. This dose and frequency are recommended to effectively reverse the effects of opioid overdose and restore normal breathing.Rate this question:
- 15.
Is the correct dosage for Ertapenem 1g IV/IO in 100mL NS over 30 min true or false?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The correct dosage for Ertapenem is indeed 1g IV/IO in 100mL NS over 30 minutes. This means that the medication should be administered intravenously or intraosseously at a dose of 1 gram, diluted in 100 milliliters of normal saline, and infused over a period of 30 minutes. This dosage and administration method are appropriate for Ertapenem, an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What dose is correct for Fentanyl?
- A.
400mcg OFTC buccal x1 or 100mcg INx1
- B.
15g or 1 tube by mouth
- C.
.50/3mg nebulizer
- D.
Cardiac Lidocaine Bristol jet, Injury 40mg IOx1
Correct Answer
A. 400mcg OFTC buccal x1 or 100mcg INx1Explanation
The correct answer is 400mcg OFTC buccal x1 or 100mcg INx1. This answer suggests that the correct dose for Fentanyl can be either 400mcg OFTC buccal (oral transmucosal fentanyl citrate) administered once or 100mcg IN (intranasal) administered once.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What dose is correct for Glucagon?
- A.
2mg IM, repeat x1 in 15 min to BLG >80mg/dL or normal mentation
- B.
50mg IN repeat q 20min PRN x1
- C.
15mg POx1
- D.
10IU IMx1
Correct Answer
A. 2mg IM, repeat x1 in 15 min to BLG >80mg/dL or normal mentationExplanation
The correct answer is 2mg IM, repeat x1 in 15 min to BLG >80mg/dL or normal mentation. This dose and administration route is appropriate for Glucagon. The repeat dose is given to ensure that blood glucose levels are raised to a safe level. The criteria for repeating the dose are either a blood glucose level greater than 80mg/dL or the patient exhibiting normal mentation.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
What dose is correct for Ipratropium Bromide
- A.
30 mg ER tablet
- B.
Two sprays in the affected nostril
- C.
250mL Bolus
- D.
.50mg/3mL nebulized x1 (peds dose=adult)
Correct Answer
D. .50mg/3mL nebulized x1 (peds dose=adult)Explanation
The correct dose for Ipratropium Bromide is .50mg/3mL nebulized x1 (peds dose=adult). This means that 0.50mg of Ipratropium Bromide should be mixed with 3mL of solution and administered via nebulization once. The pediatric dose is the same as the adult dose.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What dose is correct for Oxymetazoline?
- A.
15mg POx1
- B.
.4mg IV/IO/IN
- C.
Two sprays in the affected nostril
- D.
IO Analgesia b4 fluid infusion
Correct Answer
C. Two sprays in the affected nostrilExplanation
The correct answer is "Two sprays in the affected nostril." This is the correct dose for Oxymetazoline, which is a nasal decongestant. It is typically administered as two sprays in the affected nostril to provide relief from nasal congestion. The other options, such as 15mg POx1 (oral dose), .4mg IV/IO/IN (intravenous/intraosseous/intranasal dose), and IO Analgesia b4 fluid infusion (intravenous analgesia before fluid infusion), are not appropriate doses for Oxymetazoline.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What dose is correct for Nifedipine?
- A.
15g or 1 tube POx1 prn in 10 min or till BGL >80mg/dL
- B.
250mL bolus
- C.
400mcg OFTC x1
- D.
30mg ER Tablet POx1repeat q4-6hr
Correct Answer
D. 30mg ER Tablet POx1repeat q4-6hrExplanation
The correct answer is 30mg ER Tablet POx1repeat q4-6hr. This is the correct dose for Nifedipine as it specifies taking a 30mg extended-release tablet orally once and then repeating the dose every 4 to 6 hours. This dosing regimen ensures that the medication is released slowly over time, maintaining a consistent level of the drug in the body.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Is true or false that the dose for Ondanestran is 4mg IV/IO/ODT POx1 in 15-20 min pro max of 8mg dose?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The correct answer is true. The dose for Ondanestran is 4mg IV/IO/ODT POx1 in 15-20 minutes, with a maximum dose of 8mg. This means that a single dose of Ondanestran can be administered intravenously, intraosseously, or orally, and it should be given within a timeframe of 15 to 20 minutes. The maximum dose allowed is 8mg.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What dose is correct for Lidocaine?
- A.
15mg POx1
- B.
2% cardiac lidocaine Bristol jet, injury 40mg IOx1
- C.
Reconstitution for Ertapenem: 3.2mL of 1% Lidocaine without epi, after reconstitution, Ertapenem is administered into the vests lateralis
- D.
4mg IV/IO/ODT POx1
Correct Answer(s)
B. 2% cardiac lidocaine Bristol jet, injury 40mg IOx1
C. Reconstitution for Ertapenem: 3.2mL of 1% Lidocaine without epi, after reconstitution, Ertapenem is administered into the vests lateralisExplanation
The correct answer is the administration of 2% cardiac lidocaine Bristol jet, 40mg IOx1 for the treatment of injury. Additionally, the reconstitution of Ertapenem with 3.2mL of 1% Lidocaine without epi is also correct, followed by the administration of Ertapenem into the vastus lateralis muscle.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Is true or false that when administering Ketamine its 50mg IN repeat q20 min prn x1 (max dose of 100)?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true. When administering Ketamine, a repeat dose of 50mg IN (intranasal) is given every 20 minutes as needed, with a maximum dose of 100mg. This means that if the initial dose of 50mg does not provide the desired effect, it can be repeated after 20 minutes. However, the total dose should not exceed 100mg.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 20, 2021Quiz Created by
Themes
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiography Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top