Pqg4 Part 1 Of 4
PQG4 Part 1 of 4
- 1.
A physical therapist is treating a six month-old infant with spina bifida. The infant suddenly begins to act strangely at the conclusion of the treatment session. A primary survey reveals the infant is not breathing but does have a pulse. The most immediate response would be to
- A.
Begin chest compressions
- B.
Begin mouth to mouth breathing
- C.
Begin mouth to nose breathing
- D.
Begin mouth to mouth and nose breathing
Correct Answer
D. Begin mouth to mouth and nose breathingExplanation
The most immediate response would be to begin mouth to mouth and nose breathing because the infant is not breathing but does have a pulse. This indicates that there is a problem with the infant's airway, and providing both mouth to mouth and nose breathing can help ensure that air is being delivered to the lungs effectively. This approach can help to restore the infant's breathing and oxygenation while waiting for further medical assistance.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A physical therapy treatment plan for a patient rehabilitation from an anterior shoulder dislocation includes progressive resistive exercises. Which muscle groups should be emphasized during rehabilitation?
- A.
Abductors, external rotators
- B.
Adductors, external rotators
- C.
Abductors, internal rotators
- D.
Adductors, internal rotators
Correct Answer
D. Adductors, internal rotatorsExplanation
During rehabilitation for an anterior shoulder dislocation, the emphasis should be on strengthening the adductors and internal rotators. This is because these muscle groups help stabilize the shoulder joint and prevent further dislocations. Strengthening the adductors helps in bringing the arm back towards the body, while strengthening the internal rotators helps in rotating the arm inward. By targeting these muscle groups, the patient can regain strength and stability in the shoulder joint, reducing the risk of future dislocations.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A physical therapist is treating a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. The physician referral specifies closed kinetic chain rehabilitation. Which exercise would not be appropriate based on the physician order?
- A.
Exercise on a stair machine
- B.
Limited squats to 45 degrees
- C.
Walking backwards on a treadmill
- D.
Isokinetic knee extension and flexion
Correct Answer
D. Isokinetic knee extension and flexionExplanation
Based on the physician order for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation, exercises that involve weight-bearing and multiple joints are preferred. The stair machine, limited squats to 45 degrees, and walking backwards on a treadmill all involve weight-bearing and multiple joints, making them appropriate for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation. On the other hand, isokinetic knee extension and flexion exercises are typically performed in an open kinetic chain where the foot is not in contact with a surface. Therefore, isokinetic knee extension and flexion would not be appropriate based on the physician order for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A 65 year-old female reports to physical therapy diagnosed with degenerative joint disease of the right hip. Which of the following clinical findings would you not expect to identify?
- A.
Tendency to stand with the hip and knee extended and the lumbar spine flexed
- B.
Painful limitation of hip motion in a capsular pattern
- C.
Marked limitation of hip internal rotation and abduction
- D.
Tendency to incline the trunk toward the involved side during the stance phase of gait.
Correct Answer
A. Tendency to stand with the hip and knee extended and the lumbar spine flexedExplanation
In degenerative joint disease of the right hip, the patient would typically exhibit a tendency to stand with the hip and knee extended and the lumbar spine flexed. This posture is known as the Trendelenburg gait and is a compensatory mechanism to shift the body weight away from the affected hip joint. Therefore, it would be expected to identify this clinical finding in a patient with degenerative joint disease of the right hip.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Physical therapy clinics should have a detailed infection control program. Which of the following is not an example of effective infection control?
- A.
Universal precautions shall be observed to prevent contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials
- B.
Infectious waste must be placed in closable, labeled waste containers after use.
- C.
Equipment and working surfaces must be decontaminated after contact with potentially infectious material
- D.
Employees shall purchase, maintain, repair and lauder their personal protective clothing.
Correct Answer
D. Employees shall purchase, maintain, repair and lauder their personal protective clothing.Explanation
The correct answer is "Employees shall purchase, maintain, repair and launder their personal protective clothing." This is not an example of effective infection control because it puts the responsibility solely on the employees to purchase and maintain their own protective clothing. In an effective infection control program, the responsibility for providing and maintaining protective clothing should lie with the employer or the clinic.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A study designed to determine if different therapists can be expected to measure an identical joint angle, on the same patient, and obtain similar results would be
- A.
Intertester reliability
- B.
Intratester reliability
- C.
Intertester validity
- D.
Intratester validity
Correct Answer
A. Intertester reliabilityExplanation
Intertester reliability refers to the consistency and agreement between different therapists when measuring the same joint angle on the same patient. This study aims to assess whether different therapists can obtain similar results when measuring an identical joint angle, indicating the reliability of the measurement across different testers. Intratester reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency and agreement within the same therapist when measuring the joint angle multiple times. Intertester validity and intratester validity are not relevant in this context as they pertain to the accuracy and appropriateness of the measurement in relation to a specific criterion or gold standard.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Patients are often placed on diuretics to control high blood pressure and fluid retention. Which of the following side effects of diuretics can require immediate medical attention?
- A.
Elevated cholesterol and lipoprotein levels
- B.
Nausea
- C.
Drowsiness
- D.
Dizziness
Correct Answer
D. DizzinessExplanation
Dizziness can require immediate medical attention as it may be a sign of low blood pressure or dehydration, which can be serious. It is important to monitor and manage blood pressure levels while on diuretics, and any sudden onset of dizziness should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A physical therapist is palpating along the lateral portion of the hamstring musculature. The therapist continues to palpate the muscle to its tendinous attachment on the fibular head. The hamstring muscle should be identified as the
- A.
Biceps femoris
- B.
Gracilis
- C.
Sartorius
- D.
Semitendinosus
Correct Answer
A. Biceps femorisExplanation
The correct answer is biceps femoris. In this scenario, the physical therapist is palpating along the lateral portion of the hamstring musculature and continues to palpate the muscle to its tendinous attachment on the fibular head. The biceps femoris is one of the muscles that make up the hamstring group and has a tendinous attachment on the fibular head. Therefore, it is the muscle that should be identified in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A physical therapist instructs a patient to reach behind their head and touch the superior medial angle of the opposite scapula. Which shoulder motions are necessary in order to follow this command?
- A.
Flexion and external rotation
- B.
Flexion and internal rotation
- C.
Abduction and external rotation
- D.
Abduction and internal rotation
Correct Answer
C. Abduction and external rotationExplanation
To follow the command of reaching behind their head and touching the superior medial angle of the opposite scapula, the patient would need to perform abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Abduction refers to moving the arm away from the body, while external rotation involves rotating the arm away from the midline of the body. These motions would allow the patient to position their hand behind their head and touch the specific area of the scapula mentioned in the command.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A 65 year-old female is referred to physical therapy two weeks after surgical repair of the rotator cuff. Which of the following exercises would not be appropriate for the patient?
- A.
Shoulder setting exercises
- B.
Gentle manual resistive exercises
- C.
Codman’s pendulum exercises
- D.
Passive range of motion in a pain-free range emphasizing forward flexion, abduction, and external rotation
Correct Answer
B. Gentle manual resistive exercisesExplanation
Gentle manual resistive exercises would not be appropriate for the patient. After surgical repair of the rotator cuff, it is important to avoid excessive strain on the shoulder joint. Gentle manual resistive exercises involve applying external resistance to the shoulder, which could potentially cause further damage or strain to the healing tissues. Therefore, this exercise would not be suitable for the patient at this stage of their recovery.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A high school basketball player is treated in physical therapy after spraining her ankle. Palpation reveals an extremely painful area extending from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of the talar neck. The ligament most likely associated with the discomfort is the
- A.
Deltoid
- B.
Calcaneofibular
- C.
Posterior talofibular
- D.
Anterior talofibular
Correct Answer
D. Anterior talofibularExplanation
The correct answer is the anterior talofibular ligament. The description of the painful area extending from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of the talar neck suggests an injury to the ligament on the front and outside of the ankle. The anterior talofibular ligament is located in this area and is commonly injured in ankle sprains.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Ultrasound using the stationary technique is not recommended by most physical therapists because of all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
It is difficult for the therapist to hold the transducer in a fixed position for the duration of the treatment
- B.
The treatment area can only be as large as the radiating surface of the transducer
- C.
Thermal effects are not possible using the stationary technique
- D.
The patient must be relaxed and not move the involved area during treatment
Correct Answer
C. Thermal effects are not possible using the stationary techniqueExplanation
Ultrasound using the stationary technique is not recommended by most physical therapists because it is difficult for the therapist to hold the transducer in a fixed position for the duration of the treatment, the treatment area can only be as large as the radiating surface of the transducer, and the patient must be relaxed and not move the involved area during treatment. However, thermal effects are possible using the stationary technique, which means that it is not an exception for not recommending this technique.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In designing a wheelchair for a bilateral above knee amputee, the wheels should be moved in what direction?
- A.
Two inches laterally
- B.
Two inches backward
- C.
Two inches forward
- D.
Normal standardized position is appropriate
Correct Answer
B. Two inches backwardExplanation
In designing a wheelchair for a bilateral above knee amputee, moving the wheels two inches backward would be the appropriate direction. This adjustment helps to ensure better stability and balance for the user, as it positions the center of gravity slightly further back. By moving the wheels backward, the wheelchair is less likely to tip forward and provides a more comfortable and secure seating position for the amputee.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A manager is responsible for motivating staff members to take on the organization’s goals as their own goals. Useful guidelines for a successful manager would include all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Managing by results with emphasis on upward communication
- B.
Maintaining morale with emphasis on productivity and revenue generated
- C.
Negotiating and maintaining a mutual commitment to goals
- D.
Using performance appraisals for setting future goals
Correct Answer
B. Maintaining morale with empHasis on productivity and revenue generatedExplanation
The correct answer is maintaining morale with emphasis on productivity and revenue generated. This is because while maintaining morale is important for a successful manager, it is not directly related to productivity and revenue generation. The other options, such as managing by results, negotiating and maintaining mutual commitment to goals, and using performance appraisals for setting future goals, are all useful guidelines for a successful manager as they focus on achieving organizational goals and improving performance.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A patient reports pain radiating down his posterior leg into the foot. She also exhibits weakness in plantarflexion and an absent Achilles reflex. What spinal level would you expect to be involved?
- A.
L4
- B.
L5
- C.
S1
- D.
S2
Correct Answer
C. S1Explanation
Based on the symptoms described, including pain radiating down the posterior leg into the foot, weakness in plantarflexion, and an absent Achilles reflex, the spinal level that would most likely be involved is S1. The S1 spinal level is responsible for innervating the muscles involved in plantarflexion and the Achilles reflex. Therefore, the patient's symptoms suggest a problem at the S1 level.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve in the volar aspect of the wrist. This syndrome may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Anterior dislocation of the lunate
- B.
Inflammation of the extensor retinaculum
- C.
Tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons
- D.
Direct trauma
Correct Answer
B. Inflammation of the extensor retinaculumExplanation
Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve in the volar aspect of the wrist. This compression can be caused by various factors such as anterior dislocation of the lunate, tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons, and direct trauma. However, inflammation of the extensor retinaculum is not a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Weakness in this muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches.
- A.
Medial deltoid
- B.
Erector spinae
- C.
Latissimus dorsi
- D.
Rhomboids
Correct Answer
C. Latissimus dorsiExplanation
The latissimus dorsi is a large muscle in the back that helps with various movements of the upper body, including pulling and extending the arms. If there is weakness in the latissimus dorsi muscle, it would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches. This is because the latissimus dorsi is involved in the movement of the arms and shoulders, which are crucial for maintaining balance and stability while using crutches. Therefore, weakness in this muscle would significantly impair the ability to walk with crutches.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Transverse friction massage is a valuable treatment technique in a variety of common musculoskeletal disorders. Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the application technique of transverse friction massage?
- A.
The therapist moves the skin back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the normal orientation of the fibers
- B.
A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin friction
- C.
Fingers that are not involved directly in the massage are used to provide stabilization
- D.
The rate of movement is 2-3 cycles per second and rhythmical
Correct Answer
B. A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin frictionExplanation
Transverse friction massage is a technique used in treating musculoskeletal disorders. It involves moving the skin back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the normal orientation of the fibers. A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin friction, ensuring smooth movement and reducing discomfort. Fingers that are not directly involved in the massage are used to provide stabilization, improving control and accuracy. The rate of movement is typically 2-3 cycles per second and rhythmical, allowing for effective treatment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A patient’s right shoulder is immobilized in a sling following a fall two days ago. The referring physician indicates that x-rays of the involved shoulder were negative, however he expresses concern about the patient developing secondary upper extremity problems during the two-week immobilization period. Which of the following activities would not be recommended during this two week period?
- A.
Active range of motion to the elbow, forearm, wrist and fingers several times a day
- B.
Repetitive squeezing of a soft object with the hand
- C.
Position the hand below the level of the heart when edema is noted in the hand
- D.
Instruct the patient in the importance of keeping all distal joints as active as possible
Correct Answer
C. Position the hand below the level of the heart when edema is noted in the handExplanation
Positioning the hand below the level of the heart when edema is noted in the hand would not be recommended during the two-week immobilization period. This position can increase swelling and fluid accumulation in the hand, which can worsen the edema. It is important to elevate the hand above the level of the heart to reduce swelling and promote proper circulation.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Mobilization is often indicated with a loss of accessory joint movement. It is however important to determine the exact cause for the loss of accessory motion. Which of the following would be an acceptable condition for joint mobilization?
- A.
Capsuloligamentous adherence
- B.
Internal derangement
- C.
Reflex muscle guarding
- D.
Bony blockage
Correct Answer
A. Capsuloligamentous adherenceExplanation
An acceptable condition for joint mobilization would be capsuloligamentous adherence. This refers to a condition where the joint capsule and ligaments become adhered or stuck together, limiting the normal movement of the joint. Mobilization techniques can help to break up the adhesions and restore proper joint movement. Internal derangement refers to structural abnormalities within the joint, reflex muscle guarding is a protective response where muscles tighten to protect a joint from further injury, and bony blockage refers to an obstruction caused by bone growth or fracture that restricts joint movement.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle, what motion of the elbow joint is impossible?
- A.
Flexion
- B.
Extension
- C.
Pronation
- D.
Supination
Correct Answer
B. ExtensionExplanation
If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle, extension of the elbow joint would be impossible. The radial nerve innervates the triceps muscle, which is responsible for extending the elbow joint. Therefore, if the nerve is severed above the point of origin, the triceps muscle would be paralyzed and unable to contract, resulting in the inability to extend the elbow joint.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Isokinetic training and testing are becoming increasingly popular in both clinical settings and research. Advantages of isokinetic testing include all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Provides decreased joint compressive forces at high speeds
- B.
Provides maximal resistance throughout the velocity spectrum
- C.
Provides increased reciprocal innervation time of agonist/antagonist contractions
- D.
Provides objective permanent recording
Correct Answer
C. Provides increased reciprocal innervation time of agonist/antagonist contractionsExplanation
Isokinetic training and testing have several advantages, including providing decreased joint compressive forces at high speeds, providing maximal resistance throughout the velocity spectrum, and providing objective permanent recording. However, it does not provide increased reciprocal innervation time of agonist/antagonist contractions. This means that isokinetic training and testing do not improve the coordination and timing between the muscles involved in a movement.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A caesarian section might be indicated for all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Cephalopelvic disproportion
- B.
Prolonged labor
- C.
Transverse lie of the baby
- D.
Full effacement and dilation of the cervix
Correct Answer
D. Full effacement and dilation of the cervixExplanation
A caesarian section might be indicated for all of the given conditions except for full effacement and dilation of the cervix. Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. Prolonged labor can be a sign of distress for the baby or the mother, and a caesarian section may be necessary to ensure a safe delivery. A transverse lie of the baby means that the baby is positioned sideways in the uterus, making a vaginal delivery difficult or impossible. However, full effacement and dilation of the cervix indicate that the mother's body is ready for a vaginal delivery and a caesarian section is not necessary.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The most effective strengthening exercise for muscles with disuse atrophy is
- A.
Passive motion
- B.
Active assistive motion
- C.
Active motion
- D.
Resistive motion
Correct Answer
D. Resistive motionExplanation
Resistive motion exercises involve the use of resistance, such as weights or resistance bands, to strengthen muscles. This type of exercise is particularly effective for muscles with disuse atrophy because it requires the muscles to work against resistance, which helps to build strength and promote muscle growth. Passive motion exercises involve moving a joint or limb without using any muscle effort, while active assistive motion exercises involve using some muscle effort with assistance from another person or device. Active motion exercises involve using the muscles without any assistance or resistance. However, resistive motion exercises provide the greatest challenge and stimulus for muscle growth in the case of disuse atrophy.Rate this question:
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- 25.
All of the following are used frequently by a physical therapist to treat temporomandibular joint disorders EXCEPT
- A.
Postural training
- B.
Diathermy
- C.
Electrical stimulation
- D.
Ultrasound
Correct Answer
B. DiathermyExplanation
Physical therapists commonly use postural training, electrical stimulation, and ultrasound to treat temporomandibular joint disorders. However, diathermy is not typically used in the treatment of these disorders. Diathermy is a therapeutic technique that uses high-frequency electromagnetic currents to generate heat in the body tissues. While it may be used in other areas of physical therapy, it is not a commonly used modality for temporomandibular joint disorders.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A 47 year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA, left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic evaluation. Significant results of manual muscle testing include: hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee flexion 3+/5, knee extension 2/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intact and no abnormal tone is noted. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a
- A.
Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee
- B.
Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis
- C.
Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis
- D.
Prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis
Correct Answer
B. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosisExplanation
Based on the significant results of manual muscle testing, it is evident that the patient has varying degrees of muscle weakness in different muscle groups. A knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee would not be suitable as it would restrict the patient's knee movement. A metal upright ankle-foot orthosis may also not be appropriate as it may not provide enough support for the patient's weak ankle muscles. A prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis may not provide the necessary articulation and support for the patient's ankle. Therefore, the most appropriate orthosis for this patient would be a plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis, which can provide the necessary support and allow for ankle movement.Rate this question:
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- 27.
All of the following can be used clinically in the treatment of a hemiplegic’s flaccid subluxed shoulder EXCEPT
- A.
Progressive resistive exercises
- B.
Weight bearing/facilitation
- C.
Functional electrical stimulation
- D.
Approximation
Correct Answer
A. Progressive resistive exercisesExplanation
Progressive resistive exercises involve the use of resistance to strengthen muscles. In the case of a hemiplegic's flaccid subluxed shoulder, progressive resistive exercises may not be suitable as they can further destabilize the shoulder joint. Weight bearing/facilitation, functional electrical stimulation, and approximation are all techniques that can be used to treat a hemiplegic's flaccid subluxed shoulder by providing support, stimulation, and stability to the joint.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A physical therapist observes that a patient’s medial longitudinal arch is extremely depressed. What ligament helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch?
- A.
Talonavicular
- B.
Anterior talofibular
- C.
Calcaneofibular
- D.
Posterior talofibular
Correct Answer
C. CalcaneofibularExplanation
The calcaneofibular ligament helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch. The medial longitudinal arch is the arch on the inner side of the foot, and it is supported by various ligaments and tendons. The calcaneofibular ligament is located on the outside of the ankle and helps to stabilize the foot and maintain the arch. When this ligament is weak or damaged, it can lead to a depressed or flattened arch.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Tests for the length of the hamstring muscles typically involve stabilization of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be tested. It is important to stabilize the uninvolved leg because it
- A.
Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine
- B.
Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of the lumbar spine
- C.
Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine
- D.
Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of the lumbar spine
Correct Answer
A. Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spineExplanation
Stabilizing the uninvolved leg during hamstring muscle tests helps prevent excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine. This is important because these movements can put strain on the lower back and potentially lead to injury. By stabilizing the uninvolved leg, the focus can be solely on testing the length of the hamstring muscles without compromising the stability of the pelvis and spine.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A physical therapist is conducting an initial evaluation on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following clinical findings would you expect the therapist to identify?
- A.
Aphasia
- B.
Ballistic movements
- C.
Severe muscle atrophy
- D.
Cogwheel rigidity
Correct Answer
D. Cogwheel rigidityExplanation
In a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, cogwheel rigidity is a common clinical finding that a physical therapist would expect to identify during an initial evaluation. Cogwheel rigidity refers to a jerky resistance to passive movement in the muscles, which is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. This finding is caused by a combination of muscular stiffness and tremors, which can significantly impact a patient's mobility and movement control. Therefore, it is crucial for a physical therapist to assess and address cogwheel rigidity in order to develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A physical training program applied over a sufficient period of time can lead to improved physical performance. Which statement describing the effects of physical training is not accurate?
- A.
Training effects can be maintained by one or two days of exercise per week
- B.
The changes resulting from training are influenced by the frequency, duration, and intensity of training.
- C.
Training induces physiological changes in the skeletal muscles and the cardiorespiratory system
- D.
Prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from subsequent training programs
Correct Answer
D. Prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from subsequent training programsExplanation
The statement "Prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from subsequent training programs" is not accurate. While prior training can provide a foundation and make it easier to build upon in subsequent training programs, it does not necessarily guarantee that the rate and magnitude of training benefits will increase. The effects of training are influenced by various factors such as frequency, duration, and intensity, rather than solely relying on prior training.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What percentage of physical therapy students taking their state board examination would you expect to score within plus and minus one standard deviation of the mean?
- A.
48%
- B.
58%
- C.
68%
- D.
88%
Correct Answer
C. 68%Explanation
According to the empirical rule, approximately 68% of the data falls within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution. Therefore, we would expect that 68% of physical therapy students taking their state board examination would score within plus and minus one standard deviation of the mean.Rate this question:
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- 33.
According to the “Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy” as written by the American Physical Therapy Association, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT
- A.
The physical therapist shall render care within the scope of his or her education and experience
- B.
The physical therapist utilizes subjective measures to establish a baseline at the time of the initial evaluation
- C.
The physical therapist establishes and records a plan of care for the individual, based on the results of the evaluation
- D.
The physical therapist involves the individual in the plan, implementation and revision of the treatment program
Correct Answer
B. The pHysical therapist utilizes subjective measures to establish a baseline at the time of the initial evaluationExplanation
According to the "Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy," the physical therapist does not utilize subjective measures to establish a baseline at the time of the initial evaluation. Subjective measures refer to information provided by the patient, such as their symptoms, pain levels, and personal experiences. Instead, the physical therapist relies on objective measures, such as physical tests and assessments, to establish a baseline and evaluate the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which aquatic exercise would be the most effective in reducing tone in a spinal cord injured patient?
- A.
Slow passive movements of the neck and upper extremities with the patient floating in supine
- B.
Passive abduction and adduction of the upper extremities with the patient in short sitting
- C.
Approximation of the trunk with the patient floating in supine
- D.
Gentle rocking of the trunk with the patient in short sitting
Correct Answer
A. Slow passive movements of the neck and upper extremities with the patient floating in supineExplanation
Slow passive movements of the neck and upper extremities with the patient floating in supine would be the most effective aquatic exercise in reducing tone in a spinal cord injured patient. This exercise helps to stretch and relax the muscles, promoting flexibility and reducing spasticity. The buoyancy of the water provides support and reduces the impact on the joints, making it a safe and effective option for patients with limited mobility. Additionally, the supine position allows for better control and stability during the exercise.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A two year-old male with infectious meningitis is referred to physical therapy for respiratory therapy. Which treatment precaution would not be accurate?
- A.
Avoid undue oblique stress on any bone
- B.
Use only prone postural drainage positions
- C.
Maintain activities below the point of fatigue
- D.
Elevate the patient toward the vertical position slowly
Correct Answer
B. Use only prone postural drainage positionsExplanation
Using only prone postural drainage positions would not be an accurate treatment precaution for a two year-old male with infectious meningitis referred to physical therapy for respiratory therapy. Prone postural drainage positions involve positioning the patient face down to facilitate drainage of secretions from the lungs. However, in this case, it is important to consider the patient's age and condition. The patient may not tolerate or benefit from being in a prone position for extended periods of time due to their young age and the potential discomfort caused by meningitis. Therefore, using only prone postural drainage positions may not be appropriate and other positions should be considered.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A therapist prepares to treat a patient in isolation by donning a mask. Which of the following isolation categories would require the use of a mask?
- A.
Strict isolation
- B.
Contact isolation
- C.
Respiratory isolation
- D.
Enteric precautions
Correct Answer
C. Respiratory isolationExplanation
Respiratory isolation is the correct answer because it involves the prevention of transmission of respiratory droplets, which can occur through coughing, sneezing, or talking. Wearing a mask is necessary in this category to protect the therapist and prevent the spread of any respiratory infections to the patient. Strict isolation refers to the prevention of all types of infections, contact isolation focuses on preventing the spread of infections through direct contact, and enteric precautions are specifically for preventing the transmission of infections through the gastrointestinal tract.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A physical therapist is evaluating a 15 year-old female distance runner for foot pain of unknown etiology. As the therapist palpates along the medial aspect of the foot and ankle, she palpates the head of the first metatarsal bone and the metatarsophalangeal joint. Immediately proximal to this she identifies the first cuneiform. What large bony prominence would you expect the therapist to identify next if she continues to move in a proximal direction?
- A.
Talar head
- B.
Navicular
- C.
Medial malleolus
- D.
Cuboid
Correct Answer
B. NavicularExplanation
If the therapist continues to move in a proximal direction, the next large bony prominence that she would expect to identify is the navicular bone. The navicular bone is located on the medial side of the foot, just proximal to the first cuneiform bone. It is one of the tarsal bones and plays a key role in maintaining the arch of the foot.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A 14 year-old girl presents with a twenty degree left thoracic scoliotic curvature. All of the following are appropriate immediate forms of treatment EXCEPT
- A.
Use of corset/bracing
- B.
Postural exercises
- C.
Deep breathing
- D.
Surgical intervention
Correct Answer
D. Surgical interventionExplanation
Surgical intervention is not an appropriate immediate form of treatment for a 14-year-old girl with a twenty-degree left thoracic scoliotic curvature. In most cases, surgical intervention is considered when the curvature progresses beyond a certain degree (usually 40-50 degrees) or when other conservative treatments have failed to halt the progression of the curve. At this stage, the curvature can still be effectively managed with the use of corset/bracing, postural exercises, and deep breathing techniques.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A physical therapist receives an order for lumbar traction on a 61 year-old female diagnosed with chronic lumbar pain. During the history the patient states that she sustained a compression fracture at the L4 level three months ago. Recognizing that an unstable spine is a contraindication to lumbar traction you decide to
- A.
Initiate lumbar traction in a prone position only
- B.
Initiate lumbar traction since the compression fracture was three months ago
- C.
Contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the treatment orders
- D.
Contact the physician and relay that the treatment order showed poor judgment
Correct Answer
C. Contact the pHysician and discuss your concerns about the treatment ordersExplanation
The correct answer is to contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the treatment orders. This is because the patient has a history of a compression fracture, which indicates an unstable spine. Lumbar traction is contraindicated in patients with an unstable spine, so it is important to communicate with the physician to ensure the appropriate treatment plan is followed.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A fracture of the femoral neck which disrupts the blood supply causing the femur to degenerate is termed
- A.
Congenital dislocating hip
- B.
Aseptic necrosis
- C.
Hip pointer
- D.
Myositis ossificans
Correct Answer
B. Aseptic necrosisExplanation
Aseptic necrosis refers to the death of bone tissue due to interruption of blood supply. In the given question, it is stated that a fracture of the femoral neck disrupts the blood supply, leading to degeneration of the femur. This aligns with the definition of aseptic necrosis, making it the correct answer. Congenital dislocating hip refers to a condition present at birth where the hip joint is partially or completely dislocated. Hip pointer is a term used to describe a bruise or contusion on the hip bone. Myositis ossificans is the formation of bone tissue within muscle due to trauma or injury.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A cardiac rehabilitation phase I program should begin 3-6 days after the patient’s infarct and should consist of all of the following prior to discharge EXCEPT
- A.
Progressive resistive exercise program for the upper and lower extremities
- B.
Monitor heart rate and blood pressure during exercise
- C.
Patient and family education
- D.
Submaximal low level treadmill test
Correct Answer
A. Progressive resistive exercise program for the upper and lower extremitiesExplanation
The correct answer is "progressive resistive exercise program for the upper and lower extremities." This is because a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program typically focuses on low-level exercises and activities to gradually increase the patient's activity level. Progressive resistive exercises, which involve using weights or resistance bands, are usually introduced in later phases of cardiac rehabilitation. The other options, such as monitoring heart rate and blood pressure during exercise, providing patient and family education, and conducting a submaximal low-level treadmill test, are all important components of a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When is it appropriate to initiate an exercise program for a patient who has second degree burns over 27% of their body?
- A.
Immediately to tolerance
- B.
Normal healing will occur regardless of whether or not an exercise program is initiated
- C.
When wound healing is completed
- D.
Not until the patient experiences only minimal pain with active exercise
Correct Answer
A. Immediately to toleranceExplanation
It is appropriate to initiate an exercise program for a patient who has second-degree burns over 27% of their body immediately to tolerance. This means that as soon as the patient can tolerate exercise without excessive pain or discomfort, they should start with an exercise program. Starting early can help prevent muscle and joint stiffness, improve circulation, and promote overall healing. Waiting until wound healing is completed or until the patient experiences minimal pain may delay the recovery process and hinder rehabilitation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Upon inspecting a patient’s residual limb after prosthetic training, you note a reddened area proximal to the patella tendon and over the anterior and distal end of the limb. Before continuing with future gait training sessions you would first
- A.
Decrease the ply in the socks worn by the patient
- B.
Place cotton/gauze in the bottom of the prosthesis socket in order to support the limb
- C.
Ask the prosthetist to flare out the bottom of the socket
- D.
Increase the ply of the socks word by the patient
Correct Answer
D. Increase the ply of the socks word by the patientExplanation
The reddened area proximal to the patella tendon and over the anterior and distal end of the limb suggests that there is excessive pressure being applied to those areas during gait training. Increasing the ply of the socks worn by the patient would provide additional cushioning and distribute the pressure more evenly, reducing the risk of further irritation and potential skin breakdown.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When two therapists get drastically different manual muscle testing results on the same patient it is an example of poor
- A.
Intrarater reliability
- B.
Interrater reliability
- C.
Internal validity
- D.
External validity
Correct Answer
B. Interrater reliabilityExplanation
When two therapists get drastically different manual muscle testing results on the same patient, it indicates poor interrater reliability. Interrater reliability refers to the consistency and agreement between different raters or observers when measuring the same phenomenon. In this case, the therapists' inconsistent results suggest that there is a lack of agreement or consistency between them when performing the muscle testing, highlighting poor interrater reliability.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A traumatic brain injury patient, which presents with right hemiplegia is to receive an ankle foot orthosis to assist with ambulation. The patient’s right knee will occasionally buckle during the stance phase of gait on the right. A modification to the ankle foot orthosis that would enhance knee extension during loading and stance on the right is to
- A.
Position the ankle joint in 5 degrees of dorsiflexion
- B.
Shorten the toe plate
- C.
Extend the foot plate
- D.
Add a soft anterior shelf
Correct Answer
C. Extend the foot plateExplanation
Extending the foot plate of the ankle foot orthosis would enhance knee extension during loading and stance on the right. This modification would provide a larger surface area for the patient's foot to push off from, increasing the leverage and force generated at the knee joint. This can help stabilize the knee and prevent it from buckling during the stance phase of gait.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord lesion that presents with muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral side of the lesion and a loss of pain, temperature and sensitivity on the contralateral side of the lesion describes
- A.
Steinert’s disease
- B.
Central cord syndrome
- C.
Anterior spinal artery syndrome
- D.
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Correct Answer
D. Brown-Sequard syndromeExplanation
Brown-Sequard syndrome is a neurological condition characterized by an incomplete spinal cord lesion. It is caused by damage to one side of the spinal cord, resulting in muscle paralysis on the same side (ipsilateral) as the lesion. Additionally, there is a loss of pain, temperature, and sensitivity on the opposite side (contralateral) of the lesion. This pattern of symptoms is due to the crossing of sensory and motor fibers in the spinal cord. Other options, such as Steinert's disease, central cord syndrome, and anterior spinal artery syndrome, do not match the specific symptoms described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When developing a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis, it is important to include all of the following. Perhaps the most critical element of the program is
- A.
Gait training
- B.
Patient and family education
- C.
Postural drainage/chest physical therapy
- D.
Home adaptations
Correct Answer
C. Postural drainage/chest pHysical therapyExplanation
When developing a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis, it is important to include postural drainage/chest physical therapy. This is because cystic fibrosis is a condition that affects the lungs and causes thick mucus to build up, leading to respiratory problems. Postural drainage and chest physical therapy help to mobilize and clear the mucus from the lungs, improving breathing and reducing the risk of lung infections. Therefore, it is considered the most critical element of the treatment program for cystic fibrosis patients.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A physical therapist debrides a decubitus ulcer after a whirlpool treatment. The therapist should take off sterile patient care gloves after
- A.
Completing debridement and transporting the patient to the patient waiting area
- B.
Completing debridement
- C.
Contact with the patient’s decubitus ulcer
- D.
Cleaning the whirlpool at the conclusion of patient treatment
Correct Answer
B. Completing debridementExplanation
The correct answer is completing debridement. After completing the debridement process, the therapist should remove their sterile patient care gloves. This is because the gloves may have been contaminated during the procedure and should be discarded to prevent the spread of any potential pathogens. Removing the gloves after completing debridement ensures proper infection control and hygiene practices.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A home visit is performed for a patient who resides alone and is four weeks status post total hip replacement. The patient is presently partial weight bearing on the affected side. The most appropriate recommendations for the patient to increase safety in the bathroom are
- A.
Raised toilet seat with rails, tub bench, hand held shower
- B.
Grab bars in the shower and next to the toilet
- C.
Hand rails for the toilet, tub bench, hand held shower
- D.
Patient should not shower until their weight bearing status increases
Correct Answer
A. Raised toilet seat with rails, tub bench, hand held showerExplanation
The patient is four weeks post total hip replacement and is currently partial weight bearing on the affected side. To increase safety in the bathroom, the most appropriate recommendations would be a raised toilet seat with rails, a tub bench, and a hand-held shower. These adaptations will provide support and stability for the patient while using the toilet and shower, reducing the risk of falls or injury. Grab bars in the shower and next to the toilet would also be beneficial in enhancing safety and preventing accidents. Hand rails for the toilet and a hand-held shower would not provide the same level of support and stability as the recommended options. The patient does not need to avoid showering altogether, but should use the appropriate adaptations to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Rhythmic stabilization is a/an ______ technique that can be implemented to increase joint stability.
- A.
Isometric
- B.
Isotonic
- C.
Isokinetic
- D.
Eccentric
Correct Answer
A. IsometricExplanation
Rhythmic stabilization is a technique that involves contracting and relaxing muscles around a joint in a rhythmic manner to increase joint stability. Isometric exercises, which involve static muscle contractions without joint movement, are commonly used in rhythmic stabilization to improve joint stability. Isotonic exercises involve dynamic muscle contractions with joint movement, isokinetic exercises involve muscle contractions at a constant speed, and eccentric exercises involve muscle lengthening while under tension. However, isometric exercises are specifically effective for enhancing joint stability in rhythmic stabilization.Rate this question:
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