1.
Spyware programs that might effect your privacy or make changes to your computer. This describes which security alert level?
Correct Answer
C. Medium
Explanation
The given description states that the spyware programs might affect privacy or make changes to the computer. While this is a concern, it is not as severe as other security threats such as malware or viruses. Therefore, the appropriate security alert level for this description would be medium.
2.
Which RAM type is in this image.
Correct Answer
B. DIMM
Explanation
The correct answer is DIMM because the image shows a Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM), which is a type of RAM commonly used in desktop computers. DIMMs have a 64-bit data path and are larger in size compared to other RAM types like SODIMM (used in laptops) and SIMM (used in older computers). RIMM is a type of RAM used in older Rambus-based systems, which is not visible in the image.
3.
The volume is accessable and has no known problems.Of the Dycipher dynamic disk hardware states in Computer Management which does this best describe?
Correct Answer
B. Healthy
Explanation
The given correct answer, "Healthy," best describes the state of the volume. This means that the volume is accessible and has no known problems. It indicates that the volume is functioning properly and is in a good state.
4.
The _____ switch copies subdirectories even if they are empty.
Correct Answer
D. /e
Explanation
The "/e" switch in the given question is used to copy subdirectories even if they are empty. This means that when this switch is used, the command will copy all subdirectories, regardless of whether they have any files or not.
5.
Which Secuity level does this describe?Users can perform management tasks, such as managing documents.
Correct Answer
D. Special permissions
Explanation
Special permissions is the correct answer because it allows users to perform management tasks, such as managing documents. Special permissions provide a more granular level of control over access to resources, allowing administrators to define specific actions that users can perform, such as read, write, execute, delete, etc. This level of security is often used when more specific control is required beyond the standard read, write, and execute permissions.
6.
As far as processor specifications go, Clock speed, front side bus speed, addressable RAM and cache sizes are considered ____________ specifications.
Correct Answer
A. Primary
Explanation
Clock speed, front side bus speed, addressable RAM, and cache sizes are considered primary specifications because they directly affect the performance and capabilities of the processor. These specifications determine how fast the processor can execute instructions, how quickly it can communicate with other components, and how much data it can store and access. Therefore, they are essential factors in determining the overall performance and efficiency of the processor.
7.
Which Secuity level does this describe?Users can create and modify files and folders.
Correct Answer
C. Write
Explanation
The security level that allows users to create and modify files and folders is "Write". This level grants the permission to make changes to existing files and folders as well as create new ones. Users with this level of security can add, edit, and delete content within the files and folders they have access to.
8.
Which of the following dial up connections have a speed rating of up to 1.5 GB? (choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. DSL
D. Satelite
Explanation
DSL and Satellite are the two dial-up connections that have a speed rating of up to 1.5 GB. DSL, which stands for Digital Subscriber Line, uses existing telephone lines to provide internet connectivity. Satellite internet, on the other hand, uses satellites in space to transmit and receive data. Both of these options offer higher speeds compared to traditional dial-up connections.
9.
Which of these backup utilities backs up all files and clears the archive attributes?
Correct Answer
C. Normal
Explanation
The "Normal" backup utility backs up all files and clears the archive attributes. This means that it will create a complete backup of all selected files and folders, and after the backup is done, it will reset the archive attribute on those files, indicating that they have been backed up. This ensures that in the next backup, only the files that have been modified since the last backup will be included, reducing the backup time and storage space required.
10.
Especially maliciuos programs that will effect the privacy and security of your computer and can damage your system and should be removed immediatly. This describes which security alert level?
Correct Answer
A. Severe
Explanation
The given description states that there are malicious programs that can harm the privacy, security, and functioning of a computer, and they should be removed immediately. This indicates a high level of risk and urgency, suggesting that the security alert level is severe.
11.
Which of these backup utilities backs up all files that have been created or modified since the last normal or incremental back up does not clear the archive attribute?
Correct Answer
E. Differential
Explanation
Differential backup is the correct answer because it backs up all files that have been created or modified since the last normal or incremental backup without clearing the archive attribute. This means that it only backs up the changes made since the last full backup, making it faster than a full backup but slower than an incremental backup.
12.
These programs typically do no harm to your computer unless they were installed without your knowledge. This describes which security alert level?
Correct Answer
E. Not Yet Classified
Explanation
The given statement suggests that the programs mentioned in the question do not cause harm to the computer unless they were installed without the user's knowledge. This indicates that these programs are not classified under any specific security alert level, as they do not pose a severe, high, medium, or low threat to the computer. Therefore, the correct answer is "Not Yet Classified."
13.
Which Secuity level does this describe?Users can view the contents of files and folders. They can also run programs located in the folder.
Correct Answer
A. Read and execute
Explanation
The security level that describes the given scenario is "Read and execute." This level allows users to both view the contents of files and folders and run programs located within the folder. It grants the necessary permissions to read the files and execute the programs, but does not provide write or administrative privileges.
14.
As far as processor specifications go, The width, or number of bits, that can pass one at a time over the processors internal bus and data bus, plus the address bus width which determines maximum addressable memory are considered ____________ specifications.
Correct Answer
C. Bus width
Explanation
The question is asking about the specifications related to the width of the processor's internal bus, data bus, and address bus. These specifications are referred to as "bus width" specifications. The bus width determines the number of bits that can pass through the bus at a time and also affects the maximum addressable memory. Therefore, "Bus width" is the correct answer.
15.
Which RAM type is in this image.
Correct Answer
A. SODIMM
Explanation
The correct answer is SODIMM. SODIMM stands for Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module. It is a type of RAM module commonly used in laptops and small form factor computers. SODIMM modules are smaller in size compared to DIMM modules, making them suitable for compact devices. This image likely shows a SODIMM module, based on its size and form factor. DIMM, RIMM, and SIMM are different types of RAM modules, but they are not depicted in the image.
16.
Which port address is responsible for sending email?
Correct Answer
B. SMTP
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is responsible for sending email. It is a protocol used for transferring email messages from one server to another. SMTP works in conjunction with other protocols such as POP3 or IMAP, which are responsible for receiving email. However, SMTP specifically handles the sending of email, ensuring that it reaches the intended recipient's email server.
17.
The volume is being initialized and will be shown as health when complete.Of the Dycipher dynamic disk hardware states in Computer Management which does this best describe?
Correct Answer
C. Initializing
Explanation
The correct answer is "Initializing." This option best describes the state of a dynamic disk in Computer Management when the volume is being initialized and will be shown as healthy when the process is complete.
18.
The ______ switch copies source files that have the archive attribite set and turns off the archive.
Correct Answer
B. /m
Explanation
The "/m" switch is used to copy source files that have the archive attribute set and turns off the archive.
19.
At a minimum, which IPv4 address components must you configure in order to communicate on your local computer to communicate on your local subnet mask? (choose 2)
Correct Answer(s)
A. IP address
D. Subnet mask
Explanation
To communicate on a local subnet, you need to configure the IP address and the subnet mask. The IP address is necessary to identify your computer on the network, while the subnet mask determines the range of IP addresses that belong to the local subnet. The default gateway and DNS server address are not essential for local communication within the subnet. The default gateway is used to communicate with devices outside the local subnet, and the DNS server address is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
20.
Which of these backup utilities backs up all files that have been created that day.
Correct Answer
B. Daily
Explanation
The backup utility that backs up all files that have been created that day is the "Daily" backup. This type of backup is designed to copy all files that have been modified or created since the last backup was performed. It ensures that all changes made to files on a daily basis are backed up, providing a comprehensive and up-to-date backup of the data.
21.
The following information: Connection specific DNS suffix IP address & subnet mask default gateway can be accessed using which command report?
Correct Answer
C. Ipconfig
Explanation
The correct answer is "ipconfig" because the command "ipconfig" is used to display the IP configuration of a computer, including the connection-specific DNS suffix, IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. It is a command-line tool that provides detailed information about the network settings of the computer. The other options, such as "ping," "tracert," and "nslookup," are used for different purposes like testing network connectivity, tracing the route to a destination, and querying DNS servers respectively, but they do not provide the specific information mentioned in the question.
22.
Which RAM type is in this image.
Correct Answer
D. RIMM
Explanation
The image is not provided in the question, so it is not possible to determine the RAM type based on the image. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.
23.
This software was typically installed with your knowledge and according to the licensing terms you agreed to, but still might collect information or change the configuration of your computer. This describes which security alert level?
Correct Answer
D. Low
Explanation
This software being typically installed with the user's knowledge and according to the licensing terms implies that it is not a malicious or unauthorized program. However, it is mentioned that the software might collect information or change the configuration of the computer, which could be a potential security concern. Despite this, the fact that it is categorized as "Low" suggests that the overall security risk associated with this software is relatively minimal compared to the other alert levels.
24.
What multimeter modes can you use to determine if a wire is whole or broken?
Correct Answer
C. Continuity
Explanation
Continuity mode on a multimeter is used to determine if a wire is whole or broken. When the probes are connected to both ends of a wire, if there is continuity (a complete path for electrical current), the multimeter will emit a beep or display a low resistance value. If there is a break in the wire, there will be no continuity, and the multimeter will not emit a beep or display a high resistance value. Therefore, continuity mode is the appropriate mode to use for this purpose.
25.
Which command would you use to verify name resolution (DNS) settings?
Correct Answer
D. Nslookup
Explanation
The nslookup command is used to verify name resolution (DNS) settings. It allows users to query DNS servers to obtain information about domain names, IP addresses, and other DNS records. By using nslookup, users can test and troubleshoot DNS configurations, check if a domain name is resolving correctly, and obtain details about DNS servers and their responses.
26.
In _______, modern processors overlap steps to speed up overall execution. While one instruction is being executed, another is being decoded and a third is being fetched.
Correct Answer
D. Pipelining
Explanation
Pipelining is a technique used in modern processors to improve overall execution speed. It allows for overlapping of different steps of instruction execution. While one instruction is being executed, another instruction is being decoded and a third instruction is being fetched. This parallel processing of instructions helps to reduce the overall execution time and increase the efficiency of the processor.
27.
Which of a computers internal components generally uses the most power?
Correct Answer
A. CPU
Explanation
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) generally uses the most power among a computer's internal components. This is because the CPU is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations, which requires a significant amount of power. The CPU is the brain of the computer and is responsible for carrying out the majority of the processing tasks, making it the component that consumes the most power.
28.
Which port address is resposible for receiving email?
Correct Answer
C. POP3
Explanation
POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, and it is responsible for receiving email. It is a widely used protocol that allows users to retrieve their email from a remote server to their local device. Unlike SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) which is responsible for sending email, POP3 is specifically designed for receiving and downloading email messages. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is another protocol used for receiving email, but it is more advanced and allows users to manage their email directly on the server. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is a protocol used for secure communication over a computer network and is not specifically designed for email.
29.
Which Secuity level does this describe?Users can view folder contents, and open files and folders.
Correct Answer
B. Read
Explanation
The security level that describes the given scenario is "Read". This level allows users to view the contents of a folder and open files and folders, but does not grant them permission to make any changes or modifications to the files or folders.
30.
____________ is the bus that determines how many bits of information the processor can work with at once. If the internal bus is smaller than the data buss, data must be manipulated in parts.
Correct Answer
C. Bus, internal
Explanation
The internal bus is the bus that determines how many bits of information the processor can work with at once. If the internal bus is smaller than the data bus, data must be manipulated in parts.
31.
__________ is the decrease in signal strength along the length of a network wire.
Correct Answer
B. Attenuation
Explanation
Attenuation is the decrease in signal strength along the length of a network wire. As the signal travels through the wire, it encounters resistance and other factors that cause it to weaken. Attenuation can result in loss of data and degradation of the signal quality. It is an important consideration in network design and can be mitigated by using signal boosters, repeaters, or shorter cable lengths.
32.
What would likely cause ghosting or shadows on a printed page
Correct Answer
B. Residual toner on the drum
Explanation
Residual toner on the drum can cause ghosting or shadows on a printed page. When there is leftover toner on the drum, it can transfer onto the paper during the printing process. This results in faint or duplicate images appearing on the page, creating a ghosting effect. By cleaning the drum properly and ensuring there is no residual toner, the issue of ghosting or shadows can be resolved.
33.
Which RAM type is in this image.
Correct Answer
D. SIMM
Explanation
The image is not provided, so it is not possible to determine the RAM type based on the given information.
34.
The speed at which the processor interacts with the rest of the system is know as what?
Correct Answer
D. Front side bus speed
Explanation
The correct answer is "Front side bus speed." The front side bus speed refers to the speed at which the processor communicates with other components in the system, such as memory and input/output devices. It determines how quickly data can be transferred between the processor and these components, thus affecting overall system performance.
35.
The bus (pathway) that connects the processor with the main memory. The wider the ____________ the more memory can be accessed. (Data isn't transferred over this buss)
Correct Answer
A. Bus, address
Explanation
The wider the bus, the more memory can be accessed because the bus is responsible for transferring data between the processor and the main memory. The "address" in this context refers to the specific location in the memory that the processor wants to access. Therefore, a wider bus allows for more memory addresses to be accessed, increasing the overall memory capacity that can be utilized.
36.
You receive a general windows protection fault message, what does this indicate?
Correct Answer
D. Poorly written software
Explanation
A general Windows protection fault message typically indicates that there is an issue with the software running on the Windows system. This can be caused by poorly written software that is not compatible with the operating system or contains bugs that cause conflicts. It is not related to bad memory location, parity error, or virus/malware.
37.
Spyware programs that might effect the privacy and security of your computer and damage your system shoud be removed immediatly. Could make changes on your computer without your concent This describes which security alert level?
Correct Answer
B. High
Explanation
The given statement suggests that spyware programs can have severe consequences for the privacy and security of a computer system. It mentions that these programs can make changes on the computer without the user's consent, indicating a high level of security alert. Therefore, the correct answer is "High."
38.
Which pair of CPU manufacturers have the highest market share?
Correct Answer
D. Intel and AMD
Explanation
Intel and AMD have the highest market share among CPU manufacturers. Intel is a well-known and dominant player in the CPU market, offering high-performance processors for various applications. AMD, on the other hand, has gained significant market share in recent years with its competitive and affordable processors. Together, Intel and AMD capture the majority of the CPU market, making them the pair with the highest market share.
39.
Which of these backup utilities backs up all files that have been created or modified since the last normal or incremental back up, clears the archive attribute?
Correct Answer
D. Incremental
Explanation
The correct answer is Incremental. Incremental backup utility backs up all files that have been created or modified since the last normal or incremental backup and clears the archive attribute. This means that only the files that have changed since the last backup are backed up, making it a more efficient option compared to full or differential backups.
40.
When Windows detects the begining of a request to make a system configuraion change, what type of restore point is created?
Correct Answer
A. System checkpoint
Explanation
When Windows detects the beginning of a request to make a system configuration change, it creates a system checkpoint restore point. This type of restore point is automatically created by Windows before any major system changes, such as installing new software or making significant configuration modifications. System checkpoint restore points allow users to revert their system back to a previous state if any issues or errors occur as a result of the changes made.
41.
The volume is accessable, but I/O errors have been detected on the disk.Of the Dycipher dynamic disk hardware states in Computer Management which does this best describe?
Correct Answer
C. Healthy (at risk)
Explanation
The given scenario suggests that the volume is accessible, but there are I/O errors on the disk. This indicates that the disk is still functioning, but there may be potential risks or issues with it. Therefore, the best description for this situation would be "Healthy (at risk)." This implies that the disk is currently in a working state, but there are potential problems that need to be addressed to maintain its health.
42.
The number of bits of data that can be transferred to the CPU in a single operation is know as?
Correct Answer
B. Bus, data
Explanation
The correct answer is "Bus, data." The number of bits of data that can be transferred to the CPU in a single operation is known as the "bus, data." The bus is a communication pathway that allows data to be transferred between different components of a computer system. In this case, the bus is specifically referring to the data bus, which is responsible for transferring data between the CPU and other components such as memory or input/output devices.
43.
Which of these backup utilities backs up all files, but does not mark the files as backed up; does not clear the archive attribute.
Correct Answer
A. Copy
Explanation
The backup utility "Copy" backs up all files without marking them as backed up or clearing the archive attribute. This means that the files will not be flagged as backed up and the archive attribute will remain unchanged after the backup process.
44.
When adding Ram memory it is not necessary to fill up all the slots in a memory bank.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Whether there os 1, 2 or 4 slots in the bank they must all be filled if not with a memory chip than with a continuity module.
45.
As far as processor specifications go, the internal and external voltages used by the chips, the number of transistors that make up the processor, and whether it includes an integrated FPU (floating point unit) is considered ____________ specifications.
Correct Answer
D. Internal
Explanation
The given question asks about the specifications that are considered when it comes to processor specifications. The correct answer is "Internal." This means that the internal voltage and external voltage used by the chips, the number of transistors that make up the processor, and whether it includes an integrated FPU are all part of the internal specifications of the processor. These specifications are important for understanding the performance and capabilities of the processor.
46.
Which of the following display types can you use to display data in the performance monitor?(choose all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Line grapH
B. Histogram
Explanation
The line graph and histogram display types can be used to display data in the performance monitor. A line graph is useful for showing the trend or changes in data over time, while a histogram is used to display the distribution of data into different categories or intervals. The pie chart and pictogram, on the other hand, are not typically used in the performance monitor for displaying data.
47.
SODIMM DDR and DDR2 memory chips typically have how many pins? (Choose all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
B. 144
D. 200
Explanation
SODIMM DDR and DDR2 memory chips typically have 144 and 200 pins. SODIMM stands for Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module, and it is a smaller form factor compared to regular DIMM modules. DDR and DDR2 are different generations of memory technology, with DDR2 being the newer one. The number of pins corresponds to the physical connection points on the memory module, and in this case, SODIMM DDR and DDR2 modules have 144 and 200 pins respectively.
48.
When testing a print job from an aplication what is the first thing you check?
Correct Answer
D. The application
Explanation
When testing a print job from an application, the first thing you check is the application itself. This is because the application is responsible for sending the print job to the printer. If there are any issues or errors within the application, it may prevent the print job from being sent or cause it to print incorrectly. Therefore, it is crucial to verify that the application is functioning properly before troubleshooting other components such as the printer driver, system tools, or printer cable.
49.
A Type I PC card is how thick?
Correct Answer
A. 3.3mm
Explanation
A Type I PC card is 3.3mm thick. This indicates that it is relatively thin compared to other options.
50.
Most components in the computer are turned off. Power is supplied to the computers memory chips to preserve the information held there. Most programms are stopped in this power saving mode.
Correct Answer
C. Sleep
Explanation
Sleep mode is a power-saving state in which most components of the computer are turned off, but power is still supplied to the computer's memory chips to preserve the information held there. In sleep mode, most programs are stopped, allowing the computer to quickly resume full power and operation when awakened. This mode is commonly used when the computer is not in use for a short period of time and allows for faster startup compared to hibernation mode.