Pre-board Exam For June 2008 NLE (Exam Mode)
Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 180 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the following instructions?
- A.
Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours
- B.
Avoid having sexual intercourse
- C.
Don’t get pregnant at least 3 months
- D.
Avoid exposure to sun
Correct Answer
C. Don’t get pregnant at least 3 monthsExplanation
The rubella vaccination is not recommended for pregnant women as it can potentially harm the developing fetus. Therefore, Nurse Joy would instruct the woman in a childbearing age to not get pregnant for at least 3 months after receiving the vaccination to ensure the safety of the potential baby.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has increased intracranial pressure?
- A.
Increased urinary output
- B.
Decreased RR
- C.
Slowed papillary response
- D.
Decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer
A. Increased urinary outputExplanation
Increased urinary output is an indication that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of the brain cells and into the bloodstream. This increased fluid in the bloodstream is then excreted through the kidneys, leading to increased urinary output. Therefore, if the patient's urinary output has increased, it suggests that Mannitol has successfully reduced intracranial pressure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?
- A.
Incubation period is 6 months
- B.
Incubation period is 1 week
- C.
Incubation period is 1 month
- D.
Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
Correct Answer
D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the biteExplanation
The incubation period of rabies can vary depending on the site of the bite. This means that the time it takes for symptoms to appear can be different for each individual, depending on where they were bitten by an infected animal. It is not a fixed period of time like 6 months, 1 week, or 1 month. The variation in the incubation period is due to factors such as the severity of the bite, the amount of virus transmitted, and the individual's immune response.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a male client with rabies?
- A.
Encourage the patient to take a bath
- B.
Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
- C.
Place the patient near the comfort room
- D.
Place the patient near the door
Correct Answer
B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bagExplanation
Covering the IV bottle with a brown paper bag is the first thing Nurse Cherry should do when taking care of a male client with rabies. This is because rabies is a viral infection that affects the nervous system and can be transmitted through saliva, including through bites. By covering the IV bottle, Nurse Cherry is taking precautions to prevent the client from biting or contaminating the IV line, reducing the risk of transmitting the virus to others. This step ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare team.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever?
- A.
Complete blood count
- B.
ELISA
- C.
Rumpel-leede test
- D.
Sedimentation rate
Correct Answer
C. Rumpel-leede testExplanation
The Rumpel-leede test is used as a screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm and then releasing it. If small red spots called petechiae appear at the site where the cuff was placed, it indicates a positive result for dengue hemorrhagic fever. This test helps to identify the presence of capillary fragility, which is a characteristic symptom of the disease. Complete blood count, ELISA, and sedimentation rate are not specific screening tests for dengue hemorrhagic fever.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:
- A.
WBC count
- B.
Urinalysis
- C.
ELISA
- D.
Peripheral blood smear
Correct Answer
D. PeripHeral blood smearExplanation
The most important diagnostic test in malaria is a peripheral blood smear. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of malaria parasites in the red blood cells. This is the gold standard test for diagnosing malaria as it can accurately identify the species of malaria parasite and determine the level of infection. Other tests like WBC count, urinalysis, and ELISA may be helpful in supporting the diagnosis or assessing complications, but they are not as specific or reliable as a peripheral blood smear.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient’s assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster?
- A.
Nurse who never had chicken pox
- B.
Nurse who never had roseola
- C.
Nurse who never had german measles
- D.
Nurse who never had mumps
Correct Answer
A. Nurse who never had chicken poxExplanation
The nurse supervisor avoids assigning a nurse who never had chickenpox to a client with herpes zoster because herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. If a nurse has never had chickenpox, they are at risk of contracting the virus from the client with herpes zoster, which can be dangerous for them and potentially spread the infection to other patients. Therefore, it is safer to assign a nurse who has already had chickenpox and is immune to the virus.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization?
- A.
At once
- B.
During 2nd trimester
- C.
During 3rd trimester
- D.
After the delivery of the baby
Correct Answer
D. After the delivery of the babyExplanation
Rubella immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk of causing harm to the developing fetus. It is recommended to administer the vaccine after the delivery of the baby to ensure the safety of both the mother and the child.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
- A.
21 year old male cousin living in the same house
- B.
18 year old sister who recently got married
- C.
11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood
- D.
4 year old girl who lives next door
Correct Answer
B. 18 year old sister who recently got marriedExplanation
Rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications if contracted during pregnancy. It is important to isolate a female child with rubella from individuals who are at risk of contracting the virus, particularly pregnant women. The 18-year-old sister who recently got married is at risk of becoming pregnant and should be isolated from the child with rubella to prevent any potential harm to her and her unborn baby.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the primary prevention of leprosy?
- A.
Nutrition
- B.
Vitamins
- C.
BCG vaccination
- D.
DPT vaccination
Correct Answer
C. BCG vaccinationExplanation
BCG vaccination is the primary prevention for leprosy. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB), but it has also shown effectiveness in preventing leprosy. BCG vaccination stimulates the immune system, providing protection against Mycobacterium leprae, the bacterium that causes leprosy. This vaccine is commonly given to infants in countries with a high prevalence of leprosy, as it helps to reduce the risk of developing the disease later in life.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
- A.
Amoeba
- B.
Cholera
- C.
Klebs-loeffler bacillus
- D.
Spirochete
Correct Answer
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillusExplanation
The correct answer is Klebs-loeffler bacillus. Klebs-loeffler bacillus is the bacteria that causes diphtheria, a highly contagious and potentially life-threatening respiratory infection. It is named after the two German physicians who first identified it, Edwin Klebs and Friedrich Loeffler. Klebs-loeffler bacillus is characterized by the presence of a toxin that can cause a thick grayish membrane to form in the throat and upper airways, leading to difficulty breathing and swallowing. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics and antitoxin are essential to prevent complications and spread of the infection.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the instruction well?
- A.
I will come back later
- B.
I will come back next month
- C.
I will come back on Friday
- D.
I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Correct Answer
D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the resultExplanation
The correct answer indicates that the client understood the instruction well because they state that they will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result. This shows that the client comprehends the need for a follow-up appointment and understands the importance of returning on a specific day and time for the test results to be read.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the result as:
- A.
Negative
- B.
Uncertain and needs to be repeated
- C.
Positive
- D.
Inconclusive
Correct Answer
C. PositiveExplanation
The presence of an 8mm area of induration at the site of the Mantoux skin test indicates a positive result. This suggests that the client has been exposed to the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (TB) and has developed an immune response to it. Further diagnostic tests and evaluations will be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan for the client.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to:
- A.
Use alcohol moderately
- B.
Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy
- C.
Incomplete intake of dairy products
- D.
May be discontinued if symptoms subsides
Correct Answer
B. Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapyExplanation
During the therapy with Isoniazid (INH), it is important for the client to avoid taking vitamin supplements. This is because INH can interfere with the metabolism of certain vitamins, particularly vitamin B6. Taking vitamin supplements while on INH therapy can lead to an excessive buildup of vitamin B6 in the body, which can cause toxicity. Therefore, it is advisable for the client to avoid vitamin supplements to prevent any potential adverse effects.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis?
- A.
Sore eyes
- B.
Sore throat
- C.
Chancroid
- D.
Chancre
Correct Answer
D. ChancreExplanation
A chancre is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis. It is a painless, ulcerated sore that typically appears at the site of infection, such as the genitals, mouth, or rectum. It is usually round, firm, and raised with a clean base and a red border. The presence of a chancre is an early sign of syphilis infection and is highly contagious. If left untreated, syphilis can progress to more severe stages and cause serious complications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?
- A.
60 breaths per minute
- B.
40 breaths per minute
- C.
10 breaths per minute
- D.
20 breaths per minute
Correct Answer
A. 60 breaths per minuteExplanation
At 3 weeks old, a fast breathing rate of 60 breaths per minute is considered normal for Jana. This is because infants have a higher respiratory rate compared to adults. As they grow older, their breathing rate gradually decreases. Therefore, the option "60 breaths per minute" is the correct answer as it aligns with the expected breathing rate for a 3-week-old infant.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the first line for dysentery?
- A.
Amoxicillin
- B.
Tetracycline
- C.
Cefalexin
- D.
Cotrimoxazole
Correct Answer
D. CotrimoxazoleExplanation
Cotrimoxazole is the first-line treatment for dysentery. It is a combination of two antibiotics, sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work together to inhibit the growth of bacteria causing the infection. Cotrimoxazole is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those that commonly cause dysentery, such as Shigella and Salmonella. It is often preferred as a first-line treatment due to its effectiveness, safety profile, and low cost. Amoxicillin, Tetracycline, and Cefalexin are not typically used as first-line treatments for dysentery.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In home made oresol, what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water?
- A.
1 tbsp. salt and 8 tbsp. sugar
- B.
1 tbsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
- C.
1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
- D.
8 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
Correct Answer
C. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugarExplanation
The correct answer is 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar. This is because the ratio of salt to sugar in homemade oresol is 1:8.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Gentian Violet is used for:
- A.
Wound
- B.
Umbilical infections
- C.
Ear infections
- D.
Burn
Correct Answer
B. Umbilical infectionsExplanation
Gentian Violet is used for umbilical infections because it has antifungal and antiseptic properties. It can help to prevent and treat infections in the umbilical cord stump of newborn babies. The application of Gentian Violet helps to kill bacteria and fungi that may cause infections in the umbilical area, promoting healing and preventing further complications.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
- A.
BCG
- B.
OPV
- C.
Measles
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. BCGExplanation
BCG is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine. BCG stands for Bacillus Calmette-Guérin, which is a vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis. It is made from a weakened form of the bacteria Mycobacterium bovis. When BCG is administered, it stimulates the immune system to recognize and fight against tuberculosis. This vaccine is commonly given to infants in countries with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. OPV (oral polio vaccine) and measles are not bacterial vaccines, and therefore, the correct answer is BCG.Rate this question:
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- 21.
EPI is based on?
- A.
Basic health services
- B.
Scope of community affected
- C.
Epidemiological situation
- D.
Research studies
Correct Answer
C. Epidemiological situationExplanation
EPI, or Expanded Program on Immunization, is based on the epidemiological situation. This means that the program is designed and implemented based on the current disease burden, prevalence, and patterns of diseases in a given population. By understanding the epidemiological situation, health authorities can prioritize and target specific diseases for immunization, ensuring that the program is effective in preventing and controlling the spread of infectious diseases.Rate this question:
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- 22.
TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?
- A.
100
- B.
99
- C.
80
- D.
90
Correct Answer
D. 90Explanation
TT (Tetanus Toxoid) provides 90% protection against tetanus. Tetanus is a serious bacterial infection that affects the nervous system, causing muscle stiffness and spasms. The TT vaccine stimulates the body's immune system to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin, providing immunity and reducing the risk of developing tetanus. While the vaccine is highly effective, it does not offer 100% protection, hence the correct answer is 90%.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:
- A.
-3c to -8c
- B.
-15c to -25c
- C.
+15c to +25c
- D.
+3c to +8c
Correct Answer
B. -15c to -25cExplanation
The correct answer is -15c to -25c. This temperature range is necessary to maintain the potency of the measles and OPV vaccines. Vaccines are sensitive to temperature, and if they are not stored within the recommended range, their effectiveness can be compromised. The low temperature range helps to prevent the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms that can spoil the vaccines. It also helps to maintain the stability of the vaccine components, ensuring that they remain effective when administered to individuals.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Diptheria is a:
- A.
Bacterial toxin
- B.
Killed bacteria
- C.
Live attenuated
- D.
Plasma derivatives
Correct Answer
A. Bacterial toxinExplanation
Diphtheria is caused by a bacterial infection from Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The bacteria produce a toxin that affects the respiratory system and can lead to severe complications. Therefore, the correct answer is "Bacterial toxin" as it accurately describes the cause of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Budgeting is under in which part of management process?
- A.
Directing
- B.
Controlling
- C.
Organizing
- D.
Planning
Correct Answer
D. PlanningExplanation
Budgeting is a crucial part of the planning process in management. It involves setting financial goals, estimating income and expenses, and allocating resources accordingly. By creating a budget, managers can determine how to best utilize available resources to achieve organizational objectives. Budgeting helps in forecasting future financial needs, identifying potential risks, and making informed decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is Planning.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:
- A.
Staffing
- B.
Schedule
- C.
Scheduling
- D.
Planning
Correct Answer
B. ScheduleExplanation
The term "schedule" refers to a time table that shows the planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel. It is a systematic arrangement of tasks or events, indicating when they are supposed to occur. In the context of nursing personnel, a schedule helps in organizing and managing their work hours, ensuring proper coverage and allocation of staff. It allows for efficient planning and coordination of tasks, ensuring that the necessary staff is available at the right time to provide patient care.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?
- A.
Motivation
- B.
Envy
- C.
Reward
- D.
Self-esteem
Correct Answer
A. MotivationExplanation
Motivation is the correct answer because it refers to the internal force that drives individuals to act in a certain way or achieve certain goals. It influences the strength of behavior by providing the energy and direction needed to pursue and accomplish tasks. Motivation can be intrinsic, coming from within oneself, or extrinsic, driven by external factors such as rewards or recognition. Envy, reward, and self-esteem may all play a role in influencing behavior, but they do not encompass the broad concept of motivation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
“To be the leading hospital in the Philippines” is best illustrate in:
- A.
Mission
- B.
Philosophy
- C.
Vision
- D.
Objective
Correct Answer
C. VisionExplanation
The given correct answer is "Vision" because a vision statement outlines the long-term goals and aspirations of an organization. It describes what the organization aims to achieve in the future and sets a direction for the organization to follow. In this case, the vision statement "To be the leading hospital in the Philippines" clearly expresses the desired position and reputation that the hospital aims to achieve in the healthcare industry.Rate this question:
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- 29.
It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared?
- A.
Job descriptions
- B.
Survey
- C.
Flow chart
- D.
Standards
Correct Answer
D. StandardsExplanation
Standards refer to the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared. These norms provide a benchmark for evaluating the performance of employees and ensure that they meet the expected level of quality and competence in their work. By setting standards, organizations can establish clear expectations for their staff and measure their performance against these predetermined criteria. This helps in identifying areas of improvement and ensuring that employees are meeting the required standards of performance.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement?
- A.
Feedback
- B.
Positive reinforcement
- C.
Performance appraisal
- D.
Negative reinforcement
Correct Answer
D. Negative reinforcementExplanation
Negative reinforcement is the correct answer because reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is a form of punishment or aversive stimulus. By reprimanding the nurse, the negative consequence of the reprimand is intended to decrease the likelihood of the nurse repeating the incorrect work in the future. This is an example of using negative reinforcement to shape behavior by removing an unpleasant stimulus (the reprimand) after an undesired behavior (incorrect work) occurs.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as?
- A.
Survey
- B.
Close ended
- C.
Questionnaire
- D.
Demographic
Correct Answer
B. Close endedExplanation
Close ended questions are questions that provide a limited set of response options for the respondent to choose from. These questions do not allow for open-ended or subjective answers, and are typically used in surveys or questionnaires to gather specific and quantifiable data. They are designed to elicit precise and measurable responses, making it easier to analyze and interpret the data collected.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be which type of reasoning:
- A.
Inductive
- B.
Logical
- C.
Illogical
- D.
Deductive
Correct Answer
A. InductiveExplanation
Inductive reasoning involves making generalizations based on specific observations or patterns. In this case, the researcher is making a generalization about an individual's behavior based on their observations. This aligns with the concept of inductive reasoning, where specific instances are used to draw broader conclusions. Logical and deductive reasoning involve using established principles or rules to arrive at conclusions, while illogical reasoning refers to reasoning that is not rational or logical. Therefore, the correct answer is inductive.Rate this question:
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- 33.
An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:
- A.
Element
- B.
Subject
- C.
Respondent
- D.
Author
Correct Answer
A. ElementExplanation
An individual/object that belongs to a general population is referred to as an element. In this context, an element represents a member or a part of a larger group or population. It could be an individual person or an object that is being studied or analyzed within the broader population. The term "element" is commonly used in statistical or research contexts to describe a specific unit within a population that is being observed or studied.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected:
- A.
Flowchart
- B.
Bar graph
- C.
Organizational chart
- D.
Line graph
Correct Answer
C. Organizational chartExplanation
An organizational chart is a visual representation that illustrates the structure and hierarchy of an organization. It shows the relationships and connections between different members, departments, and positions within the organization. This chart helps in understanding the reporting lines, communication channels, and overall organization of the company. It provides a clear and concise overview of how the members are connected and how the organization functions.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is:
- A.
Fatima University
- B.
Far Eastern University
- C.
University of the East
- D.
University of Sto. Tomas
Correct Answer
D. University of Sto. TomasExplanation
The University of Sto. Tomas is considered the first college of nursing established in the Philippines because it was the first institution to offer a formal nursing program. It was founded in 1871 and has since been recognized as a pioneer in nursing education in the country. The university has produced numerous competent and skilled nurses who have contributed significantly to the healthcare industry in the Philippines and abroad.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Florence nightingale is born on:
- A.
France
- B.
Britain
- C.
U.S
- D.
Italy
Correct Answer
D. Italy -
- 37.
Objective data is also called:
- A.
Covert
- B.
Overt
- C.
Inference
- D.
Evaluation
Correct Answer
B. OvertExplanation
Objective data refers to factual and observable information that is measurable and verifiable. It is data that is collected through direct observation or measurement, without any subjective interpretation or bias. The term "overt" is often used synonymously with objective data, as it implies that the data is openly observable and not hidden or covert. Therefore, the correct answer is "overt."Rate this question:
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- 38.
An example of subjective data is:
- A.
Size of wounds
- B.
VS
- C.
Lethargy
- D.
The statement of patient “My hand is painful”
Correct Answer
D. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”Explanation
Subjective data refers to information that is based on personal opinions, feelings, or experiences of an individual. In this case, the statement "My hand is painful" is an example of subjective data because it is based on the patient's personal perception of their own pain. It cannot be objectively measured or observed by others. Size of wounds and lethargy, on the other hand, are objective data as they can be measured or observed by healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the best position in palpating the breast?
- A.
Trendelenburg
- B.
Side lying
- C.
Supine
- D.
Lithotomy
Correct Answer
C. SupineExplanation
The best position for palpating the breast is supine. This position allows for easy access and visibility of the breast, making it easier to detect any abnormalities or lumps. Palpating the breast in the supine position also provides a more comfortable and relaxed position for the patient, allowing for better accuracy in the examination.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When is the best time in performing breast self examination?
- A.
7 days after menstrual period
- B.
7 days before menstrual period
- C.
5 days after menstrual period
- D.
5 days before menstrual period
Correct Answer
A. 7 days after menstrual periodExplanation
The best time to perform a breast self-examination is 7 days after the menstrual period. This is because the breasts are less likely to be swollen or tender during this time, making it easier to detect any abnormalities or changes. It is important to perform regular self-examinations to increase awareness of one's breast health and to detect any potential issues early on.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following should be given the highest priority before performing physical examination to a patient?
- A.
Preparation of the room
- B.
Preparation of the patient
- C.
Preparation of the nurse
- D.
Preparation of environment
Correct Answer
B. Preparation of the patientExplanation
Before performing a physical examination on a patient, the highest priority should be given to the preparation of the patient. This involves ensuring that the patient is comfortable, informed about the procedure, and ready for the examination. It may include obtaining the patient's medical history, explaining the examination process, and addressing any concerns or questions they may have. By prioritizing the preparation of the patient, healthcare professionals can establish trust, promote patient cooperation, and gather accurate information during the examination.Rate this question:
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- 42.
It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing station.
- A.
Nursing care plan
- B.
Medicine and treatment record
- C.
Kardex
- D.
TPR sheet
Correct Answer
C. KardexExplanation
A Kardex is a flip over card that is typically kept in a portable file at a nursing station. It is used to document and track important information related to a patient's care, including their nursing care plan, medicine and treatment record, and TPR (temperature, pulse, and respiration) sheet. The Kardex serves as a convenient and organized way for nurses to access and update patient information throughout their shift.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose is:
- A.
Semi fowlers
- B.
Low fowlers
- C.
Side lying, unaffected side
- D.
Side lying, affected side
Correct Answer
C. Side lying, unaffected sideExplanation
The best position for Jose after undergoing thoracentesis is side lying on the unaffected side. This position helps to promote drainage of fluid or air from the affected side and prevents any further complications. It allows for better lung expansion and improves breathing. Additionally, side lying on the unaffected side also helps to relieve any discomfort or pain that Jose may be experiencing.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:
- A.
Auscultation
- B.
Palpation
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Percussion
Correct Answer
D. PercussionExplanation
Percussion is a technique used by healthcare professionals to assess the abdomen by tapping on it. This helps determine the presence and extent of abdominal distension. By percussing different areas of the abdomen, the healthcare provider can identify whether there is excessive gas or fluid accumulation, which can cause abdominal distension. This technique is useful in differentiating between different causes of distension, such as bloating, ascites, or bowel obstruction. Therefore, percussion is a valuable tool in evaluating the degree of abdominal distension in patients.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?
- A.
Bradypnea
- B.
Bradycardia
- C.
Constricted pupils
- D.
Dilated pupils
Correct Answer
D. Dilated pupilsExplanation
The nurse should expect the physiologic effect of dilated pupils in a male client addicted to hallucinogens. Hallucinogens, such as LSD or magic mushrooms, can cause dilation of the pupils as one of their effects. This is due to the impact of hallucinogens on the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to increased release of norepinephrine, causing pupil dilation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest and neck. What will be the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
- B.
Impaired mobility related to pain
- C.
Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss
- D.
Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption
Correct Answer
A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edemaExplanation
The priority nursing diagnosis in this case would be "Ineffective airway clearance related to edema." This is because burns on the face, chest, and neck can cause swelling and edema, which can potentially obstruct the airway and compromise breathing. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial in order to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory distress or failure.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In assessing a client’s incision 1 day after the surgery, Nurse Betty expect to see which of the following as signs of a local inflammatory response?
- A.
Greenish discharge
- B.
Brown exudates at incision edges
- C.
Pallor around sutures
- D.
Redness and warmth
Correct Answer
D. Redness and warmthExplanation
Redness and warmth are signs of a local inflammatory response. Inflammation is the body's natural response to injury or infection, and it is characterized by increased blood flow to the affected area. This increased blood flow causes redness and warmth. Greenish discharge and brown exudates at the incision edges may indicate infection, while pallor around sutures may suggest inadequate blood supply. However, in this case, the question specifically asks for signs of a local inflammatory response, making redness and warmth the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately:
- A.
2 kilograms
- B.
1 kilograms
- C.
100 grams
- D.
1.5 kilograms
Correct Answer
B. 1 kilograms -
- 49.
After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord and expects to find a cord to:
- A.
Two arteries and two veins
- B.
One artery and one vein
- C.
Two arteries and one vein
- D.
One artery and two veins
Correct Answer
C. Two arteries and one veinExplanation
During fetal development, the umbilical cord connects the baby to the placenta. The umbilical cord contains blood vessels that transport oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the baby and remove waste products from the baby's circulation. Normally, the umbilical cord consists of two arteries and one vein. The two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the baby, while the vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients towards the baby. This arrangement ensures proper circulation and nourishment for the developing fetus.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Myrna a pregnant client reports that her last menstrual cycle is July 11, her expected date of birth is
- A.
November 4
- B.
November 11
- C.
April 4
- D.
April 18
Correct Answer
D. April 18Explanation
The expected date of birth is calculated by adding 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual cycle. In this case, if the last menstrual cycle is July 11, adding 280 days would give us April 18 as the expected date of birth.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 13, 2012Quiz Created by
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