Nursing Licensure Exam: Hardest Quiz!
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the following instructions?
- A.
Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours
- B.
Avoid having sexual intercourse
- C.
Don’t get pregnant at least 3 months
- D.
Avoid exposure to sun
Correct Answer
C. Don’t get pregnant at least 3 monthsExplanation
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to a developing fetus if a woman contracts it during pregnancy. The rubella vaccine is given to protect women of childbearing age from contracting rubella and potentially passing it on to their unborn child. The instruction "Don't get pregnant at least 3 months" is given because it takes time for the vaccine to provide full protection, and it is recommended to wait for at least 3 months after receiving the vaccine before trying to conceive to ensure the maximum effectiveness of the vaccine.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has increased intracranial pressure?
- A.
Increased urinary output
- B.
Decreased RR
- C.
Slowed papillary response
- D.
Decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer
A. Increased urinary outputExplanation
Increased urinary output is a patient outcome that indicates the effectiveness of Mannitol treatment for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, reducing intracranial pressure. Increased urinary output signifies that the medication is successfully promoting diuresis and removing excess fluid from the body. This helps to decrease intracranial pressure and relieve symptoms associated with encephalitis.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?
- A.
Incubation period is 6 months
- B.
Incubation period is 1 week
- C.
Incubation period is 1 month
- D.
Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
Correct Answer
D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the biteExplanation
The nurse's statement that the incubation period of rabies varies depending on the site of the bite is appropriate because the incubation period of rabies can indeed vary depending on factors such as the location and severity of the bite. It is not a fixed duration like 6 months, 1 week, or 1 month. Rabies can have an incubation period ranging from a few days to several years, with an average of 1 to 3 months. Therefore, the nurse's statement provides a more accurate and comprehensive understanding of the incubation period of rabies.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a male client with rabies?
- A.
Encourage the patient to take a bath
- B.
Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
- C.
Place the patient near the comfort room
- D.
Place the patient near the door
Correct Answer
B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bagExplanation
Nurse Cherry should cover the IV bottle with a brown paper bag first in taking care of a male client with rabies. Rabies is a viral infection that affects the central nervous system, and it is transmitted through the saliva of an infected animal. By covering the IV bottle, Nurse Cherry can prevent any potential contamination of the bottle with the client's saliva, reducing the risk of spreading the infection. This precaution is important to ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare providers.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever?
- A.
Complete blood count
- B.
ELISA
- C.
Rumpel-leede test
- D.
Sedimentation rate
Correct Answer
C. Rumpel-leede testExplanation
The Rumpel-leede test is a screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever. This test measures the fragility of the capillaries by applying pressure to the skin and observing the appearance of small red spots or petechiae. In dengue hemorrhagic fever, there is increased capillary fragility, leading to the appearance of these spots. Therefore, the Rumpel-leede test can help in diagnosing dengue hemorrhagic fever.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:
- A.
WBC count
- B.
Urinalysis
- C.
ELISA
- D.
Peripheral blood smear
Correct Answer
D. PeripHeral blood smearExplanation
A peripheral blood smear is the most important diagnostic test in malaria because it allows for the direct visualization of the malaria parasite in the blood. This test involves examining a thin blood film under a microscope to identify the presence of the parasite and determine the species of malaria causing the infection. Other tests such as WBC count, urinalysis, and ELISA may be helpful in supporting the diagnosis or assessing the severity of the infection, but they are not as specific or reliable as the peripheral blood smear.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient’s assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster?
- A.
Nurse who never had chicken pox
- B.
Nurse who never had roseola
- C.
Nurse who never had german measles
- D.
Nurse who never had mumps
Correct Answer
A. Nurse who never had chicken poxExplanation
The nurse supervisor avoids assigning a nurse who never had chicken pox to a client with herpes zoster because chicken pox and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus. If a nurse has never had chicken pox, it means they have not been exposed to the virus and therefore have not developed immunity. Assigning this nurse to a client with herpes zoster could put them at risk of contracting the virus.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization?
- A.
At once
- B.
During 2nd trimester
- C.
During 3rd trimester
- D.
After the delivery of the baby
Correct Answer
D. After the delivery of the babyExplanation
Rubella immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of the vaccine causing harm to the developing fetus. Therefore, the most appropriate time for Clarissa to receive rubella immunization would be after the delivery of the baby, when there is no longer a risk to the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
- A.
21 year old male cousin living in the same house
- B.
18 year old sister who recently got married
- C.
11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood
- D.
4 year old girl who lives next door
Correct Answer
B. 18 year old sister who recently got marriedExplanation
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, especially in pregnant women. The correct answer is the 18 year old sister who recently got married because if she is pregnant or planning to become pregnant, she could be at risk of contracting rubella from the female child. Rubella can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, so it is important to isolate the child from individuals who are at risk, such as pregnant women, to prevent the spread of the infection and potential harm to the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the primary prevention of leprosy?
- A.
Nutrition
- B.
Vitamins
- C.
BCG vaccination
- D.
DPT vaccination
Correct Answer
C. BCG vaccinationExplanation
BCG vaccination is the correct answer for the primary prevention of leprosy. BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB), but it has also shown some effectiveness in preventing leprosy. Studies have suggested that BCG vaccination can provide partial protection against leprosy, especially in children. It is believed that the vaccine boosts the immune system's response to the bacteria that causes leprosy, reducing the risk of infection. While nutrition and vitamins may play a role in overall health, they are not specifically targeted at preventing leprosy. DPT vaccination is used for preventing diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, and is not directly related to leprosy prevention.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
- A.
Amoeba
- B.
Cholera
- C.
Klebs-loeffler bacillus
- D.
Spirochete
Correct Answer
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillusExplanation
The correct answer is Klebs-loeffler bacillus. Klebs-loeffler bacillus is the bacteria that causes diphtheria. Diphtheria is a highly contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the throat and nose. It is characterized by the formation of a thick grayish coating in the throat, which can lead to difficulty in breathing and swallowing. Klebs-loeffler bacillus produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of diphtheria.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the instruction well?
- A.
I will come back later
- B.
I will come back next month
- C.
I will come back on Friday
- D.
I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Correct Answer
D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the resultExplanation
The correct answer indicates that the client understood the instruction well because they stated that they will come back on Wednesday, at the same time, to read the result. This shows that they understood the importance of returning to have the test read within the specified timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the result as:
- A.
Negative
- B.
Uncertain and needs to be repeated
- C.
Positive
- D.
Inconclusive
Correct Answer
C. PositiveExplanation
The nurse interprets the result as positive because an 8mm area of induration at the site of the Mantoux skin test is considered a positive result for a male client. Induration refers to the hardening or swelling of the skin, which indicates a reaction to the test and suggests the presence of tuberculosis infection. Therefore, the positive interpretation suggests that the client may have tuberculosis and further diagnostic tests or treatment may be required.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to:
- A.
Use alcohol moderately
- B.
Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy
- C.
Incomplete intake of dairy products
- D.
May be discontinued if symptoms subsides
Correct Answer
B. Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapyExplanation
During therapy with Isoniazid (INH), it is important for the client to avoid taking vitamin supplements. This is because INH can interfere with the metabolism of certain vitamins, particularly vitamin B6. By avoiding vitamin supplements, the client can prevent any potential interactions or adverse effects caused by the combination of INH and these supplements. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on this aspect to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis?
- A.
Sore eyes
- B.
Sore throat
- C.
Chancroid
- D.
Chancre
Correct Answer
D. ChancreExplanation
The primary characteristic lesion of syphilis is a chancre. A chancre is a painless, ulcerated sore that typically appears at the site of infection, usually on the genitals, anus, or mouth. It is the initial manifestation of syphilis and is highly infectious. The sore may heal on its own, but if left untreated, syphilis can progress to more severe stages and cause serious complications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?
- A.
60 breaths per minute
- B.
40 breaths per minute
- C.
10 breaths per minute
- D.
20 breaths per minute
Correct Answer
A. 60 breaths per minuteExplanation
At 3 weeks old, infants typically have a faster breathing rate compared to older children and adults. The normal breathing rate for a 3-week-old baby is around 40-60 breaths per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 breaths per minute.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate some dehydration?
- A.
Drinks eagerly
- B.
Restless and irritable
- C.
Unconscious
- D.
A and B
Correct Answer
D. A and BExplanation
The signs and symptoms of drinking eagerly and being restless and irritable indicate some dehydration. When a person is dehydrated, their body craves fluids, leading to increased eagerness to drink. Additionally, dehydration can cause irritability and restlessness as the body tries to compensate for the lack of fluids. The unconsciousness mentioned in the options does not directly indicate dehydration and is therefore not included in the signs and symptoms of some dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the first line for dysentery?
- A.
Amoxicillin
- B.
Tetracycline
- C.
Cefalexin
- D.
Cotrimoxazole
Correct Answer
D. CotrimoxazoleExplanation
Cotrimoxazole is the first line of treatment for dysentery. It is a combination of two antibiotics, sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work together to inhibit the growth and spread of bacteria. This medication is effective against a wide range of bacteria that cause dysentery, including Shigella and Salmonella. It is commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the gastrointestinal tract and has been found to be highly effective in reducing symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever associated with dysentery.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In home made oresol, what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water?
- A.
1 tbsp. salt and 8 tbsp. sugar
- B.
1 tbsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
- C.
1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
- D.
8 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
Correct Answer
C. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugarExplanation
The correct answer is 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar. This is because the ratio of salt to sugar in the homemade oresol is 1:8.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Gentian Violet is used for:
- A.
Wound
- B.
Umbilical infections
- C.
Ear infections
- D.
Burn
Correct Answer
B. Umbilical infectionsExplanation
Gentian Violet is commonly used for treating umbilical infections. It is an antifungal and antiseptic agent that can effectively kill bacteria and fungi, preventing the infection from spreading and promoting healing. The violet color of the solution helps to identify the treated area and ensure proper application. It is often used in newborns to prevent and treat infections in the umbilical cord stump.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
- A.
BCG
- B.
OPV
- C.
Measles
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. BCGExplanation
BCG stands for Bacillus Calmette-Guérin, which is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine. It is used for the prevention of tuberculosis (TB) and is derived from Mycobacterium bovis, a bacterium that causes TB in cows. BCG is administered through a small injection into the skin and stimulates the immune system to provide protection against TB. It is one of the most widely used vaccines in the world and is particularly recommended for infants and young children in countries with a high prevalence of TB.Rate this question:
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- 22.
EPI is based on?
- A.
Basic health services
- B.
Scope of community affected
- C.
Epidemiological situation
- D.
Research studies
Correct Answer
C. Epidemiological situationExplanation
EPI, which stands for Expanded Program on Immunization, is based on the epidemiological situation. This means that the program is designed and implemented based on the understanding of the patterns, causes, and effects of diseases in a population. By analyzing the epidemiological situation, health authorities can identify the diseases that pose the greatest risk to the community and prioritize the development and delivery of vaccines accordingly. This approach ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the program addresses the specific health needs of the population.Rate this question:
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- 23.
TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?
- A.
100
- B.
99
- C.
80
- D.
90
Correct Answer
D. 90Explanation
TT (Tetanus Toxoid) provides 90% protection against tetanus. Tetanus Toxoid is a vaccine that helps prevent tetanus, a serious bacterial infection that affects the nervous system. The vaccine stimulates the body's immune system to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin, providing immunity. While the vaccine is highly effective, it does not provide 100% protection, hence the correct answer is 90%.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:
- A.
-3c to -8c
- B.
-15c to -25c
- C.
+15c to +25c
- D.
+3c to +8c
Correct Answer
B. -15c to -25cExplanation
The correct answer is -15c to -25c. This temperature range is necessary to maintain the potency of measles and OPV vaccines. Vaccines are sensitive to temperature and can lose their effectiveness if not stored within the recommended range. The low temperatures help to preserve the vaccines and ensure that they remain potent for administration.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Diptheria is a:
- A.
Bacterial toxin
- B.
Killed bacteria
- C.
Live attenuated
- D.
Plasma derivatives
Correct Answer
A. Bacterial toxinExplanation
Diphtheria is caused by the bacterial toxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This toxin is responsible for the characteristic symptoms of diphtheria, such as the formation of a thick grayish membrane in the throat and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Bacterial toxin".Rate this question:
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- 26.
Budgeting is under in which part of management process?
- A.
Directing
- B.
Controlling
- C.
Organizing
- D.
Planning
Correct Answer
D. PlanningExplanation
Budgeting is a crucial part of the planning process in management. It involves setting financial goals, estimating income and expenses, and allocating resources accordingly. By creating a budget, managers can effectively plan and allocate resources to achieve organizational objectives. Budgeting helps in determining the financial feasibility of various plans and ensures that resources are used efficiently. Therefore, budgeting falls under the planning phase of the management process.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:
- A.
Staffing
- B.
Schedule
- C.
Scheduling
- D.
Planning
Correct Answer
B. ScheduleExplanation
The term "schedule" refers to a time table that outlines the planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel. It is a systematic arrangement of tasks and activities that need to be completed within a specific timeframe. In the context of nursing personnel, a schedule helps to ensure adequate staffing levels and proper allocation of resources. It allows for efficient planning and organization of work, ensuring that all shifts are adequately covered and that there is a balance between the needs of the healthcare facility and the availability of staff.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?
- A.
Motivation
- B.
Envy
- C.
Reward
- D.
Self-esteem
Correct Answer
A. MotivationExplanation
Motivation refers to the force within an individual that influences the strength and direction of their behavior. It is the internal drive or desire that compels individuals to take action and achieve their goals. Motivation can be influenced by various factors such as personal needs, desires, values, and external rewards. It plays a crucial role in determining the level of effort and persistence individuals put into their actions, ultimately affecting their behavior and outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 29.
“To be the leading hospital in the Philippines” is best illustrate in:
- A.
Mission
- B.
Philosophy
- C.
Vision
- D.
Objective
Correct Answer
C. VisionExplanation
The given correct answer is "Vision". A vision statement is a statement that describes the desired future state or long-term goals of an organization. In this case, the statement "To be the leading hospital in the Philippines" represents the hospital's vision for the future. It outlines their aspiration to become the top hospital in the country and sets a clear direction for their strategic planning and decision-making. A vision statement helps to inspire and motivate employees, as well as guide the organization towards achieving its goals.Rate this question:
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- 30.
It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared?
- A.
Job descriptions
- B.
Survey
- C.
Flow chart
- D.
Standards
Correct Answer
D. StandardsExplanation
Standards are the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared. They provide a benchmark for evaluating the performance of employees and help ensure that they meet the expectations and requirements of their job. By setting clear standards, organizations can establish a common understanding of what is expected from their employees and measure their performance against these established criteria. This allows for consistent evaluation and helps identify areas for improvement or recognition.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement?
- A.
Feedback
- B.
Positive reinforcement
- C.
Performance appraisal
- D.
Negative reinforcement
Correct Answer
D. Negative reinforcementExplanation
Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an unpleasant stimulus in order to increase the likelihood of a desired behavior. In this case, the reprimand serves as the unpleasant stimulus, and its removal or avoidance is intended to increase the likelihood that the nurse will correct their mistakes in the future.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as?
- A.
Survey
- B.
Close ended
- C.
Questionnaire
- D.
Demographic
Correct Answer
B. Close endedExplanation
Close-ended questions are questions that provide a set of pre-determined answer options for respondents to choose from. These questions do not allow for open-ended responses and are designed to gather specific information in a structured and standardized way. The other options mentioned in the question, such as survey, questionnaire, and demographic, are not specific types of questions but rather broader terms related to data collection methods or characteristics of a population.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be which type of reasoning:
- A.
Inductive
- B.
Logical
- C.
Illogical
- D.
Deductive
Correct Answer
A. InductiveExplanation
A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individual's behavior is said to be using inductive reasoning. Inductive reasoning involves drawing conclusions or making generalizations based on specific observations or evidence. In this case, the researcher is observing the behavior of individuals and using that information to make a generalization, which aligns with the concept of inductive reasoning.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The balance of a research’s benefit vs. its risks to the subject is:
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Risk-benefit ratihttp://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/editquiz.php?id=100341o
- C.
Percentile
- D.
Maximum risk
Correct Answer
B. Risk-benefit ratihttp://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/editquiz.pHp?id=100341oExplanation
The balance of a research's benefit vs. its risks to the subject is determined by the risk-benefit ratio. This ratio weighs the potential benefits of the research against the potential risks to the subject. It helps researchers and ethics committees evaluate whether the potential benefits justify the potential risks involved in the study. By considering the risk-benefit ratio, researchers can ensure that the welfare and safety of the subjects are prioritized while conducting the research.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:
- A.
Element
- B.
Subject
- C.
Respondent
- D.
Author
Correct Answer
A. ElementExplanation
In this question, the correct answer is "Element". In the context of a general population, an individual or object can be considered as an element. An element refers to a single member or component of a larger group or set. It represents a part of the whole population, without any specific connotation or role attached to it. Therefore, "Element" is the most appropriate term to describe an individual or object belonging to a general population.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected:
- A.
Flowchart
- B.
Bar graph
- C.
Organizational chart
- D.
Line graph
Correct Answer
C. Organizational chartExplanation
An organizational chart is a visual representation that depicts the hierarchical structure of an organization, illustrating how the members are connected. It shows the relationships between different positions, departments, and levels of authority within the organization. This chart helps to understand the reporting structure, communication channels, and overall organization of the members. It is commonly used for planning, decision-making, and understanding the roles and responsibilities of individuals within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is:
- A.
Fatima University
- B.
Far Eastern University
- C.
University of the East
- D.
University of Sto. Tomas
Correct Answer
D. University of Sto. TomasExplanation
The University of Sto. Tomas is considered the first college of nursing established in the Philippines because it was the first institution to offer a formal nursing program in the country. It has a long-standing history and reputation in the field of nursing education, and has produced many successful and skilled nurses over the years.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Florence nightingale is born on:
- A.
France
- B.
Britain
- C.
U.S
- D.
Italy
Correct Answer
D. ItalyExplanation
Florence Nightingale was born in Italy.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Objective data is also called:
- A.
Covert
- B.
Overt
- C.
Inference
- D.
Evaluation
Correct Answer
B. OvertExplanation
Objective data refers to information that is factual, observable, and measurable. It is data that can be collected through direct observation or measurement, without any subjective interpretation or bias. Overt, in this context, means that the data is openly observable and does not require any inference or interpretation. Therefore, the term "overt" is synonymous with objective data, as it implies that the data is observable and does not involve any subjective interpretation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
An example of subjective data is:
- A.
Size of wounds
- B.
VS
- C.
Lethargy
- D.
The statement of patient “My hand is painful”
Correct Answer
D. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”Explanation
Subjective data refers to information that is based on personal opinions, feelings, and experiences, and cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, the statement "My hand is painful" is an example of subjective data because it is based on the patient's personal perception of their own pain. It cannot be objectively measured or observed by someone else. In contrast, the size of wounds and lethargy can be objectively assessed and measured, making them examples of objective data.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the best position in palpating the breast?
- A.
Trendelenburg
- B.
Side lying
- C.
Supine
- D.
Lithotomy
Correct Answer
C. SupineExplanation
The best position for palpating the breast is supine. This position allows for easy access and examination of the breast while the patient is lying flat on their back. It provides a comfortable and stable position for both the patient and the healthcare provider, ensuring a thorough examination of the breast tissue. The supine position also allows for better visualization and palpation of any abnormalities or lumps in the breast.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When is the best time in performing breast self examination?
- A.
7 days after menstrual period
- B.
7 days before menstrual period
- C.
5 days after menstrual period
- D.
5 days before menstrual period
Correct Answer
A. 7 days after menstrual periodExplanation
The best time to perform a breast self-examination is 7 days after the menstrual period. This is because during the menstrual cycle, hormonal changes can cause breast tissue to become more tender and swollen, making it difficult to detect any abnormalities. Waiting until after the period allows the breasts to return to their normal state, making it easier to feel for any lumps or changes.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following should be given the highest priority before performing physical examination to a patient?
- A.
Preparation of the room
- B.
Preparation of the patient
- C.
Preparation of the nurse
- D.
Preparation of environment
Correct Answer
B. Preparation of the patientExplanation
Before performing a physical examination on a patient, the highest priority should be given to the preparation of the patient. This includes ensuring that the patient is comfortable, informed about the procedure, and ready for the examination. It may involve obtaining their medical history, explaining the purpose of the examination, and addressing any concerns or questions they may have. By prioritizing the preparation of the patient, healthcare professionals can establish trust and cooperation, which are crucial for a successful examination.Rate this question:
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- 44.
It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing station.
- A.
Nursing care plan
- B.
Medicine and treatment record
- C.
Kardex
- D.
TPR sheet
Correct Answer
C. KardexExplanation
A Kardex is a flip over card that is typically kept in a portable file at a nursing station. It is used to document and track important information related to a patient's care, such as their nursing care plan, medicine and treatment record, and TPR (temperature, pulse, and respiration) sheet. The Kardex serves as a quick reference for healthcare providers to have access to the most up-to-date information about the patient's care and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose is:
- A.
Semi fowlers
- B.
Low fowlers
- C.
Side lying, unaffected side
- D.
Side lying, affected side
Correct Answer
C. Side lying, unaffected sideExplanation
The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose after undergoing thoracentesis is side lying on the unaffected side. This position helps to promote lung expansion and drainage of fluid or air from the affected side. It also helps to prevent the compression of the unaffected lung and reduces the risk of complications such as pneumonia.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:
- A.
Auscultation
- B.
Palpation
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Percussion
Correct Answer
D. PercussionExplanation
Percussion is a method used to assess the degree of abdominal distension in patients. It involves tapping on the abdomen and listening for the resulting sound. This technique helps to identify the presence of fluid or gas in the abdomen, which can contribute to distension. By percussing different areas of the abdomen, healthcare professionals can determine the extent of distension and gather information about the underlying condition causing it. Auscultation involves listening to bowel sounds, palpation involves feeling the abdomen for abnormalities, and inspection involves visually examining the abdomen. While these techniques can provide valuable information, percussion specifically focuses on assessing the degree of abdominal distension.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?
- A.
Bradypnea
- B.
Bradycardia
- C.
Constricted pupils
- D.
Dilated pupils
Correct Answer
D. Dilated pupilsExplanation
The nurse should expect the physiologic effect of dilated pupils in a male client addicted to hallucinogens. Hallucinogens, such as LSD or magic mushrooms, can cause dilation of the pupils as a result of the drug's effects on the sympathetic nervous system. This sympathetic activation leads to an increase in the release of norepinephrine, which causes the pupils to dilate. This can be a characteristic sign of hallucinogen use and can help in identifying individuals who may be under the influence of these substances.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest and neck. What will be the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
- B.
Impaired mobility related to pain
- C.
Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss
- D.
Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption
Correct Answer
A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edemaExplanation
The priority nursing diagnosis for Tristan, a 4-year-old boy who has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest, and neck, would be "Ineffective airway clearance related to edema." This is because burns to the face, chest, and neck can cause swelling and edema, which can potentially obstruct the airway and compromise breathing. Ensuring effective airway clearance is crucial in order to maintain oxygenation and prevent respiratory distress.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In assessing a client’s incision 1 day after the surgery, Nurse Betty expect to see which of the following as signs of a local inflammatory response?
- A.
Greenish discharge
- B.
Brown exudates at incision edges
- C.
Pallor around sutures
- D.
Redness and warmth
Correct Answer
D. Redness and warmthExplanation
Redness and warmth are signs of a local inflammatory response. Inflammation is the body's natural response to injury or infection. It is characterized by increased blood flow to the affected area, which causes redness and warmth. These symptoms indicate that the body is sending immune cells and other substances to the site of the incision to promote healing and fight off any potential infection. Greenish discharge and brown exudates at the incision edges may indicate infection, while pallor around sutures may suggest poor blood flow to the area.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately:
- A.
2 kilograms
- B.
1 kilograms
- C.
100 grams
- D.
1.5 kilograms
Correct Answer
B. 1 kilogramsExplanation
During the third trimester of pregnancy, the weight of the amniotic fluid is approximately 1 kilogram. This fluid surrounds and protects the fetus in the womb, providing cushioning and maintaining a stable environment. It is essential for the baby's development and helps in the functioning of various organs and systems. The weight of the amniotic fluid can vary slightly from person to person, but on average, it is around 1 kilogram.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 23, 2010Quiz Created by
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