Pressure Ulcer And Wound Management Quiz

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| By Melissa_mccrory
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Quizzes Created: 12 | Total Attempts: 30,368
Questions: 22 | Attempts: 6,886

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Pressure Ulcer And Wound Management Quiz - Quiz

We all have wounds or scars on our skin that don't seem to disappear. Take "Pressure Ulcer And Wound Management Quiz" to enhance your knowledge that will help you quickly heal from wounds and scars. This quiz contains facts, trivia, and routine care you can follow while treating your injuries. Get all the information regarding wounds and ulcers here before going to the doctor. If you like the quiz, share it with your friends and family. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Skin is intact

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage 1
    Explanation
    In stage 1, the skin is intact and there are no visible wounds or ulcers. This means that there is no breakdown of the skin and the underlying tissues are not exposed. In the context of the given information, it can be inferred that the skin is healthy and undamaged, indicating stage 1.

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  • 2. 

    Discoloration of skin, warmth or hardness can also be indicators

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      STAGE 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage 1
    Explanation
    Discoloration of skin, warmth, or hardness can also be indicators of stage 1.

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  • 3. 

    Ulcer is superficial

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage 2
    Explanation
    Stage 2 ulcers are characterized by partial thickness loss of skin involving the epidermis and/or dermis. The ulcer appears as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. There may be red or pink wound bed, and the ulcer may also have some surrounding skin discoloration. Stage 2 ulcers are usually painful and may have some drainage. This stage indicates that the ulcer has progressed beyond the initial stage but has not yet reached the more severe stages of tissue damage.

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  • 4. 

    Presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage 2
    Explanation
    Stage 2 pressure ulcers present as blisters or shallow craters. This stage indicates partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis. The ulcer may appear as an abrasion or a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. The surrounding skin may also show signs of discoloration. Stage 2 pressure ulcers are characterized by the presence of intact or ruptured blisters, which may be filled with clear or serosanguinous fluid.

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  • 5. 

    Partial thickness skin loss, involving epidermis and/or dermis

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage 2
    Explanation
    Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss, specifically affecting the epidermis and/or dermis. This means that the damage extends beyond the top layer of skin, but does not penetrate through the entire thickness of the skin. The wound may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. This stage indicates that the injury is progressing and requires appropriate care and treatment to prevent further deterioration.

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  • 6. 

    Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue and possibly down to fascia

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      STAGE 3

    • D.

      STAGE 4

    Correct Answer
    C. STAGE 3
    Explanation
    Stage 3 represents full thickness skin loss that extends through the subcutaneous tissue and potentially reaches the fascia. This stage indicates significant damage and necrosis of the underlying tissues. It is more severe than stage 1 and stage 2, which involve partial thickness skin loss. Stage 4, on the other hand, involves full thickness skin loss with extensive tissue necrosis, including damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures.

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  • 7. 

    Ulcer clinically presents as a deep crater

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    C. Stage 3
    Explanation
    Stage 3 ulcers typically involve full-thickness skin loss, extending down to the subcutaneous tissue, and may also involve damage to underlying structures such as muscle, tendon, or bone. This stage is characterized by a deep crater-like appearance, indicating significant tissue damage and loss. The clinical presentation of a deep crater aligns with the description of a stage 3 ulcer, making it the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    Full thickness skin loss with extensive destruction

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Stage 4
    Explanation
    Stage 4 is the correct answer because it is the stage that involves full thickness skin loss with extensive destruction. This stage indicates that the injury has reached the deepest layer of the skin, affecting not only the epidermis but also the dermis and potentially underlying tissues. The extent of destruction suggests that the wound is severe and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 9. 

    Full thickness skin loss with tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Stage 4
    Explanation
    Stage 4 represents the most severe stage of tissue damage in pressure ulcers. It involves full thickness skin loss with tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. This stage indicates that the pressure ulcer has progressed to a point where deep tissue damage has occurred, potentially affecting the underlying structures. It requires immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications and promote healing.

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  • 10. 

    Which exudate has an odor?

    • A.

      Serosanguineous

    • B.

      Serous

    • C.

      Purulent

    • D.

      Fibrinous/ proteinaceous

    Correct Answer
    C. Purulent
    Explanation
    Purulent exudate is characterized by the presence of pus, which is a thick, yellowish-white fluid that contains dead white blood cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. The presence of bacteria in the exudate leads to the development of an odor. Therefore, purulent exudate has an odor.

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  • 11. 

    Which exudate adheres to a wound bed?

    • A.

      Purulent

    • B.

      Serous

    • C.

      Serosaanguineous

    • D.

      Fibrinous/ Proteinaceous

    Correct Answer
    D. Fibrinous/ Proteinaceous
    Explanation
    Fibrinous/Proteinaceous exudate adheres to a wound bed. This type of exudate is thick and sticky, consisting of fibrin and proteins that form a mesh-like structure. It helps to create a protective barrier over the wound, preventing further damage and promoting healing. Fibrinous/Proteinaceous exudate is commonly seen in wounds that are healing by secondary intention or in wounds with a high level of inflammation.

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  • 12. 

    The exudate that consistency is thin and transparent

    • A.

      Serosanguineous

    • B.

      Serous

    • C.

      Fibrinous/ proteinaceous

    • D.

      Purulent

    Correct Answer
    B. Serous
    Explanation
    Serous exudate is a type of fluid that is thin and transparent in consistency. It is commonly observed in inflammatory conditions where there is a mild increase in vascular permeability. This exudate contains a small amount of protein and few cells, such as leukocytes. It is typically seen in early stages of inflammation and is often associated with mild inflammation or non-infected wounds. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "Serous."

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not good for use on exudating wounds

    • A.

      Composites

    • B.

      Hydrocolloids

    • C.

      Hydrogels

    • D.

      Semi permeable foams

    Correct Answer
    C. Hydrogels
    Explanation
    Hydrogels are not good for use on exudating wounds because they are highly absorbent and can cause maceration of the wound bed. Exudating wounds produce a lot of fluid, and hydrogels can become saturated quickly, leading to excessive moisture on the wound surface. This can hinder the healing process and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using hydrogels on exudating wounds and opt for other dressings that are better suited for managing wound exudate.

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  • 14. 

    Which wound dressing does not require a second dressing?

    • A.

      Alginates

    • B.

      Semi permeable films

    • C.

      Semi permeable foams

    • D.

      Hydrogels

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi permeable films
    Explanation
    Semi-permeable films are wound dressings that do not require a second dressing. These films are designed to create a barrier over the wound while allowing for the exchange of gases and moisture vapor. They adhere to the skin surrounding the wound and provide a protective layer that helps to prevent infection. Unlike other types of wound dressings, such as alginates, semi-permeable foams, and hydrogels, semi-permeable films do not require an additional dressing to be applied on top.

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  • 15. 

    Which is a disadvantage to alginates

    • A.

      Usually costly

    • B.

      Poor absorptive quality

    • C.

      It can dehydrate a wound bed

    • D.

      May cause maceration

    Correct Answer
    C. It can dehydrate a wound bed
    Explanation
    Alginates have several advantages as wound dressings, such as their ability to absorb large amounts of exudate and create a moist wound environment. However, one of the disadvantages of alginates is that they can dehydrate a wound bed. This means that they have the potential to remove moisture from the wound, which can hinder the healing process. It is important to monitor the wound closely when using alginates and ensure that the wound bed remains adequately moist to promote healing.

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  • 16. 

    Which is an advantage to semi permeable films?

    • A.

      Promotes autolytic debridement

    • B.

      Used on any type of wound

    • C.

      Decreased trauma with dressing removal

    • D.

      Good visual monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Good visual monitoring
    Explanation
    Semi-permeable films provide a good advantage of allowing for good visual monitoring of the wound. This means that healthcare professionals can easily observe the wound without removing the dressing, which can be beneficial for assessing the progress of healing, identifying any signs of infection, or detecting any complications. This advantage helps in providing appropriate and timely treatment to the patient.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a disadvantage to semi permeable foams

    • A.

      Not for infected wounds

    • B.

      No direct visual monitoring

    • C.

      Maceration of tissue possible upon saturation

    • D.

      Poor absorptive quality

    Correct Answer
    D. Poor absorptive quality
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Poor absorptive quality". This means that semi-permeable foams do not have the disadvantage of having a poor absorptive quality. This implies that they are able to effectively absorb fluids and exudate from wounds, which is beneficial for wound healing.

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  • 18. 

    WHICH IS NOT AN ADVANTAGE TO SEMI PERMEABLE FOAMS

    • A.

      Good exudate absorption

    • B.

      Create a microbial barrier

    • C.

      Has moist wound environment

    • D.

      Has good oxygen permeability

    Correct Answer
    B. Create a microbial barrier
    Explanation
    Creating a microbial barrier is not an advantage of semi-permeable foams. Semi-permeable foams are commonly used in wound care because they have good exudate absorption, maintain a moist wound environment, and have good oxygen permeability. However, they do not create a microbial barrier, meaning they do not prevent the entry of bacteria or other microorganisms into the wound.

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  • 19. 

    Which is not a disadvantage to hydrogels

    • A.

      SOOTHES PAIN

    • B.

      GOOD EXUDATE ABSORPTION

    • C.

      GOOD FOR DRY WOUNDS, REHYDRATE

    • D.

      CAN BE REMOVED WITHOUT TRAUMA TO THE WOUND

    Correct Answer
    D. CAN BE REMOVED WITHOUT TRAUMA TO THE WOUND
    Explanation
    The statement "CAN BE REMOVED WITHOUT TRAUMA TO THE WOUND" is not a disadvantage but rather an advantage of hydrogels. 

    Hydrogels are known for being non-adherent and can be removed from wounds without causing trauma. This property helps in minimizing pain and discomfort during dressing changes, making them a favorable choice for certain types of wounds. The other options listed, such as soothing pain, good exudate absorption, and being good for dry wounds to rehydrate, are all considered advantages of hydrogels in wound care.

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  • 20. 

    Which is not an advantage to Hydrocolloids?

    • A.

      Easy to apply

    • B.

      Used on infected wounds

    • C.

      Create a microbial barrier

    • D.

      Promotes autolytic debridement

    Correct Answer
    B. Used on infected wounds
    Explanation
    Hydrocolloids are advantageous in many ways, such as being easy to apply, creating a microbial barrier, and promoting autolytic debridement. However, using hydrocolloids on infected wounds is not an advantage. Infected wounds require specific treatment, such as antibiotics or antiseptics, to address the infection. Hydrocolloids may not be effective in treating infections and could potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, using hydrocolloids on infected wounds is not recommended.

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  • 21. 

    Which is not an advantage to composites

    • A.

      Good for burns

    • B.

      Some can be used on infected wounds

    • C.

      Easy to apply

    • D.

      Comfortable around wounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Good for burns
    Explanation
    Composites are not advantageous for burns because they can trap heat and cause further damage to the burned area. Unlike other advantages listed, such as being used on infected wounds, being easy to apply, and being comfortable around wounds, composites do not provide any specific benefits for burn injuries. Instead, specialized burn dressings or treatments are typically recommended for effective burn care.

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  • 22. 

    Which is not a disadvantage to composites?

    • A.

      Usually costly

    • B.

      Can cause tissue trauma upon removal

    • C.

      Not for use on necrotic wounds

    • D.

      Poor exudate absorption

    Correct Answer
    D. Poor exudate absorption
    Explanation
    Composites do not have a disadvantage of poor exudate absorption. Exudate refers to the fluid that is released from wounds during the healing process. Since composites do not have poor exudate absorption, they are able to effectively manage the fluid and promote healing. This is an advantage of composites compared to other wound dressings that may struggle with exudate absorption.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 25, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Melissa_mccrory
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