Prime Power Test Technician Level 2 Practice Exam 1 Of 3 (Safety)
Prime Power Test Technician pracice test 1 of 2. Test has 50 questions from level 2 exam in random order. Exam has a 90 minute time limit. You cannot save and resume later. Please allow yourself at least 1 hour to complete test. Good Luck!
- 1.
Lock Out / Tag Out procedures:
- A.
Control energy for the purpose of safety.
- B.
Pertain to electric equipment only.
- C.
Provide for periodic inspection.
- D.
Prevent unexpected intrusion.
- E.
Require disconnection from equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Control energy for the purpose of safety.Explanation
Lock Out / Tag Out procedures are safety protocols that aim to control energy sources in order to prevent accidents and injuries. These procedures are not limited to electric equipment but apply to all types of machinery and equipment that have potential energy sources. The purpose of implementing these procedures is to ensure the safety of workers by isolating and controlling energy sources, such as electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, or pneumatic, during maintenance, repair, or servicing activities. By controlling energy sources, the risk of unexpected startup or release of stored energy is minimized, thus enhancing workplace safety.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Zero energy state refers to:
- A.
A power source that is locked out for servicing
- B.
A power source that is locked out and tagged for servicing
- C.
The release of all stored energy in a power source.
- D.
The release of all locks and tags so that energy can be restored.
- E.
Pertains to electric equipment only
Correct Answer
C. The release of all stored energy in a power source.Explanation
The correct answer is "the release of all stored energy in a power source." This means that in a zero energy state, all the energy stored in a power source has been completely released. This could be done to ensure safety during maintenance or servicing of the power source. It is important to release all stored energy to prevent any potential hazards or accidents.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A circuit may be tested to determine it is de-energized by use of :
- A.
Ammeter
- B.
Ground stick
- C.
Appropriate voltage detector
- D.
Ohhmeter
- E.
Insulation resistance tester
Correct Answer
C. Appropriate voltage detectorExplanation
An appropriate voltage detector is used to test if a circuit is de-energized. This device is specifically designed to detect the presence or absence of voltage in electrical systems. It is a safer and more accurate method compared to other options listed. An ammeter measures current flow, a ground stick is used for grounding purposes, an ohmmeter measures resistance, and an insulation resistance tester checks the insulation of a circuit. However, none of these options directly indicate if a circuit is de-energized or not.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Lead Acid storage batteries DO NOT include the following hazard:
- A.
Explosive gas
- B.
Electrical flash
- C.
Eye contamination
- D.
Skin burns
- E.
High voltage arcing
Correct Answer
E. High voltage arcingExplanation
Lead acid storage batteries do not include the hazard of high voltage arcing. High voltage arcing is a dangerous phenomenon that can occur when there is a breakdown in insulation, causing an electrical discharge. However, lead acid batteries do not typically generate high voltages that would result in arcing. They are designed to provide a steady and controlled flow of electrical energy, making them less prone to arcing hazards compared to other electrical systems or devices.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What respirator is used when there is insufficient oxygen in a confined space or area, and where the concentration of airborne substances in immediately dangerous to life and health?
- A.
Air purifying
- B.
Filtering
- C.
Air supplying
- D.
None of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Air supplyingExplanation
When there is insufficient oxygen in a confined space or area, and the concentration of airborne substances is immediately dangerous to life and health, an air supplying respirator is used. This type of respirator provides the wearer with a supply of clean, breathable air from an external source, such as a compressed air tank or a supplied air system. It ensures that the wearer has enough oxygen to breathe and is protected from the harmful airborne substances present in the environment.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When untied portable ladders are used to access an upper landing surface, the top of the ladder SHALL extend:
- A.
Just beneath the landing
- B.
At least 1 1/2 feet above the landing
- C.
At least 3 feet above the landing
- D.
No more than 3 steps above the landing
- E.
No more than 25% above the landing
Correct Answer
C. At least 3 feet above the landingExplanation
When untied portable ladders are used to access an upper landing surface, the top of the ladder should extend at least 3 feet above the landing. This is important for the safety of the person using the ladder, as it provides a secure grip and stability when transitioning from the ladder to the landing surface. Having the ladder extend at least 3 feet above the landing ensures that there is enough support and prevents any accidents or falls while climbing up or down the ladder.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When using a straight ladder, it is unsafe to climb higher than:
- A.
The second rung from the top
- B.
The third rung from the top
- C.
75% of the total length
- D.
The top rung
- E.
Above the tie-off point
Correct Answer
B. The third rung from the topExplanation
When using a straight ladder, it is unsafe to climb higher than the third rung from the top. Climbing higher than this increases the risk of losing balance and falling. It is important to maintain stability while using a ladder to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The top step of a tied-off ladder shall
- A.
Provide a 7 inch tread depth
- B.
Have a non-slip surface
- C.
Be kept free of foreign objects
- D.
Not be used as a step
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Not be used as a stepExplanation
The top step of a tied-off ladder should not be used as a step because it is not designed to support the weight of a person. Using the top step as a step can lead to instability and increase the risk of falling. Therefore, it is important to follow safety guidelines and avoid using the top step as a step to ensure a secure and stable ladder usage.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Class B fires may be extinguished by
- A.
Foam, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical fire extinguishers
- B.
Nearest water source
- C.
Smothering with plastic, rags, and heavy cloth
- D.
Class A fire extinguishers
Correct Answer
A. Foam, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical fire extinguishersExplanation
Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases. Foam, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective in extinguishing these types of fires because they work by smothering the flames, interrupting the chemical reaction that sustains the fire, or cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature. These types of extinguishers are designed to combat flammable liquid and gas fires and are suitable for use on Class B fires.Rate this question:
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- 10.
OSHA requires that __________________ be trained in the purpose and use of lock out / tag out procedures.
- A.
All contracted employees
- B.
All affected employees
- C.
All management and supervisory personnel
- D.
Electrical workers
Correct Answer
B. All affected employeesExplanation
OSHA requires that all affected employees be trained in the purpose and use of lockout/tagout procedures. This is because lockout/tagout procedures are essential for ensuring the safety of employees when working with hazardous energy sources. All affected employees, regardless of their job role or level of responsibility, need to understand how to properly lock out and tag out equipment to prevent unexpected startup or release of stored energy. This training helps to minimize the risk of accidents, injuries, and fatalities in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Air purifying respirators are used:
- A.
Whenever there is not enough oxygen
- B.
With self contained breathing apparatus and supplied air sources
- C.
To screen out dangerous and offending materials
- D.
To ensure that all dangerous substances have been removed from the atmosphere
- E.
In evacuated oil circuit breaker tanks
Correct Answer
C. To screen out dangerous and offending materialsExplanation
Air purifying respirators are used to screen out dangerous and offending materials. This means that they are designed to filter and remove harmful substances from the air, ensuring that the wearer breathes in clean and safe air. These respirators are particularly useful in environments where there may be pollutants, toxins, or hazardous materials present in the atmosphere. By screening out these dangerous and offending materials, the respirators help protect the wearer from inhaling harmful substances and reduce the risk of respiratory illnesses or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Electrical fires are class:
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- E.
E
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
Electrical fires are classified as Class C fires. Class C fires involve electrical equipment and are fueled by electrical sources such as faulty wiring, overloaded circuits, or malfunctioning appliances. These fires should not be extinguished with water as it conducts electricity, but with a non-conductive extinguishing agent such as carbon dioxide or dry chemical.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Upon the outbreak of a fire, your first action should be to:
- A.
Alert or alarm
- B.
Leave the area or building
- C.
Extinguish the fire
- D.
Determine correct fire extinguisher class
- E.
Remove combustible material from the area
Correct Answer
A. Alert or alarmExplanation
Upon the outbreak of a fire, the first action should be to alert or alarm others about the fire. This is important because it ensures that everyone in the vicinity is made aware of the danger and can take appropriate action to evacuate the area or building safely. Alerting or alarming others allows for a timely response and can potentially save lives.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Extension cords and drop lights must be inspected:
- A.
On each shift prior to use
- B.
Within one week of use
- C.
Within one month of use
- D.
Semi-annually
- E.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. On each shift prior to useExplanation
Extension cords and drop lights should be inspected on each shift prior to use to ensure they are in good working condition and free from any damage or defects. Regular inspections are necessary to identify any potential hazards or issues that could lead to electrical accidents or fires. By inspecting them before each use, any problems can be promptly addressed, and the safety of the equipment and the individuals using them can be ensured.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Manual lifting is best perfomed by the use of:
- A.
Arms
- B.
Legs
- C.
Back
- D.
Entire body
Correct Answer
B. LegsExplanation
Manual lifting is best performed by using the legs because they are the largest and strongest muscles in the body. By bending at the knees and using the leg muscles to lift, it helps to distribute the weight more evenly and reduce strain on the back. This technique also allows for better stability and balance while lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Using the arms or back alone may lead to overexertion and increase the likelihood of muscle strain or back pain.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The best definition of a Confined Space is:
- A.
Any space where dangerous gasses can develop and oxygen might be deficient
- B.
Any small space with regard to human size or that was previously sealed without ventilation
- C.
Any non-ventilated space
- D.
Any space having limited openings for entry and exit, unfavorable ventilation, or not designated for continuous occupancy
- E.
A and B
Correct Answer
D. Any space having limited openings for entry and exit, unfavorable ventilation, or not designated for continuous occupancyExplanation
The best definition of a Confined Space is any space having limited openings for entry and exit, unfavorable ventilation, or not designated for continuous occupancy. This definition encompasses all the necessary criteria for a space to be considered confined. It includes the limitations on entry and exit, the lack of proper ventilation, and the fact that it is not meant for continuous occupancy. This definition is comprehensive and covers all aspects of what constitutes a confined space.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following would not be a confined space:
- A.
A ship compartment
- B.
A silo
- C.
A vat
- D.
A ventilated room
- E.
A vent
Correct Answer
D. A ventilated roomExplanation
A ventilated room would not be considered a confined space because it has proper ventilation, which allows for the exchange of air with the surrounding environment. Confined spaces are typically enclosed areas with limited access points and poor ventilation, which can pose a risk to the health and safety of individuals entering or working in them. However, a ventilated room ensures a continuous flow of fresh air, preventing the accumulation of hazardous gases or lack of oxygen, making it a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the follwing should be acheived with adequate ventilation:
- A.
An oxygen level of at least 19.5%
- B.
Keep toxic gas and vapors withing acceptable limits
- C.
Maintain oxygen levels under 23.5%
- D.
None of the above
- E.
A,B,and C
Correct Answer
E. A,B,and CExplanation
Adequate ventilation should be achieved in order to maintain an oxygen level of at least 19.5%, keep toxic gas and vapors within acceptable limits, and maintain oxygen levels under 23.5%.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many people must serve as an attendant outside a confined space?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
0
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
According to the question, the correct answer is 1. This suggests that only one person is required to serve as an attendant outside a confined space.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Confined space regulations are enforced by:
- A.
OSHA
- B.
NIOSH
- C.
EPA
- D.
NFPA
Correct Answer
A. OSHAExplanation
OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for enforcing confined space regulations. OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces workplace safety standards to ensure the health and safety of workers. They specifically address hazards associated with working in confined spaces, such as lack of oxygen, toxic gases, or physical hazards. OSHA conducts inspections, provides guidelines, and imposes penalties for non-compliance with confined space regulations. NIOSH, EPA, and NFPA are also involved in workplace safety, but OSHA is the primary agency responsible for enforcing confined space regulations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When performing atmoshpheric tests on a confined space:
- A.
Test oxygen level first
- B.
Test for combustible gasses first
- C.
Test for toxic vapors first
- D.
Test order is not important
Correct Answer
A. Test oxygen level firstExplanation
When performing atmospheric tests on a confined space, it is important to test the oxygen level first. This is because the presence of oxygen is crucial for human survival. If the oxygen level is too low, it can lead to asphyxiation and pose a serious risk to anyone entering the confined space. Therefore, testing the oxygen level first allows for immediate action to be taken if the oxygen concentration is insufficient.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A confined space entry permit must be signed by:
- A.
Authorized entrant
- B.
Authorized attendant
- C.
Trained individual acting as entry supervisor
- D.
Certified safety officer
Correct Answer
C. Trained individual acting as entry supervisorExplanation
A confined space entry permit must be signed by a trained individual acting as the entry supervisor because they have the knowledge and experience to assess the risks associated with entering a confined space. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary safety measures are in place and that the entry is conducted in a safe manner. The entry supervisor's signature on the permit indicates that they have reviewed the entry plan, assessed the hazards, and determined that it is safe for workers to enter the confined space.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The acronym LEL means:
- A.
Low flouride level
- B.
Lower explosive limit
- C.
Less explosive liquid
- D.
A measurement of toxic gas or vapor
- E.
Leal eats lasagna
- F.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Lower explosive limitExplanation
LEL stands for Lower Explosive Limit. It is a term used to describe the minimum concentration of a flammable substance in the air that is capable of producing a fire or explosion when ignited. This measurement is important in determining the safety of an environment or working with hazardous materials, as it helps to establish safe operating conditions and prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An oxygen Enriched atmoshphere:
- A.
Must be acheived before entry into a confined space
- B.
Is developed to dilute toxic gasses or vapors
- C.
Contains less than 19.5% oxygen level
- D.
Is unsafe
Correct Answer
D. Is unsafeExplanation
The given answer states that an oxygen enriched atmosphere is unsafe. This implies that having an excess amount of oxygen in the air can be hazardous. Oxygen enriched atmospheres can increase the risk of fire and combustion, as oxygen supports combustion. It can also lead to oxygen toxicity, causing damage to the lungs and other organs. Therefore, it is important to maintain a balanced and safe oxygen level in the atmosphere to ensure the well-being and safety of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the purpose of continuous forced air ventilation?
- A.
Eliminates the need for atmospheric tests
- B.
Eliminates the need for an attendant
- C.
Eliminates the need for a permit
- D.
Reclassifies a confined space to a non confined space
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 26.
Class 2 gloves have a maximum use voltage of __________?
- A.
1,000 VAC
- B.
10,000 VAC
- C.
17,000 VAC
- D.
30,000 VAC
- E.
35,000 VAC
Correct Answer
C. 17,000 VACExplanation
Class 2 gloves have a maximum use voltage of 17,000 VAC. This means that these gloves are designed to provide protection against electrical shock up to 17,000 volts of alternating current. They are suitable for use in environments where higher voltage levels are present and offer a higher level of insulation compared to gloves with lower maximum use voltages.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How often must insulated blankets be electrically tested?
- A.
Every six months
- B.
Prior to each use
- C.
Every 12 months
- D.
Every 18 months
- E.
Every 24 months
Correct Answer
C. Every 12 monthsExplanation
Insulated blankets must be electrically tested every 12 months to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Regular testing helps to identify any potential electrical faults or damage that may have occurred over time. By testing the blankets annually, any issues can be addressed promptly, reducing the risk of electrical accidents or malfunctions. This frequency of testing strikes a balance between ensuring the ongoing safety of the blankets and minimizing the cost and effort involved in testing too frequently.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The maximum intended AC voltage use of insulating blankets is identified by its _________ designation.
- A.
Type
- B.
Class
- C.
Style
- D.
Thickness
Correct Answer
B. ClassExplanation
Insulating blankets have a maximum intended AC voltage use, which is identified by its "class" designation. This class designation indicates the level of voltage that the insulating blanket can safely handle.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Class 0 gloves with an AC proof test rating of 5000 volts has a maximum use voltage of:
- A.
5000V
- B.
1000V
- C.
2500V
- D.
4500V
Correct Answer
B. 1000VExplanation
Class 0 gloves with an AC proof test rating of 5000 volts means that these gloves have been tested and proven to withstand a voltage of 5000 volts without any damage. However, the maximum use voltage is the highest voltage that these gloves can safely handle during normal use. Since the AC proof test rating is higher than the maximum use voltage, it is safe to assume that the maximum use voltage is lower than 5000 volts. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000V.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Voltage detectors must:
- A.
Provide visual indication
- B.
Provide measurement of any voltage present
- C.
Be rated for the system and voltage being tested
- D.
Include an insulated handle
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Be rated for the system and voltage being testedExplanation
Voltage detectors must be rated for the system and voltage being tested in order to ensure safety and accurate measurements. Using a detector that is not rated for the specific system and voltage can lead to inaccurate readings and potential electrical hazards. It is important to use a detector that is designed to handle the specific voltage levels of the system being tested to prevent damage to the detector and ensure reliable results.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Insulated gloves that have been issued for service must be electrically tested:
- A.
Before each use
- B.
Every 6 months
- C.
Every 12 months
- D.
Daily
- E.
Every 3 months
Correct Answer
B. Every 6 monthsExplanation
Insulated gloves that have been issued for service must be electrically tested every 6 months. This is important to ensure that the gloves are still providing adequate protection against electrical hazards. Regular testing helps to identify any potential defects or damage that may have occurred over time, allowing for necessary repairs or replacements to be made. By testing the gloves every 6 months, the safety of the wearer is prioritized and the risk of electrical accidents is minimized.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When using a voltage detector to assure medium voltage electrical equipment is de-energized, the operator must:
- A.
Determine the detector has been tested within the past 6 months
- B.
Check operation of the detector against a known energized source before each use
- C.
Never allow the voltage detector to come into contact with the electrical equipment under test
- D.
Check operation of the detector against a known energized source after each use
- E.
Check operation of a detector against an known energy source before and after each use
Correct Answer
E. Check operation of a detector against an known energy source before and after each useExplanation
The operator must check the operation of the voltage detector against a known energized source before and after each use to ensure its accuracy and reliability in detecting voltage. This is important to ensure that the electrical equipment being tested is truly de-energized and safe to work on. By verifying the detector's operation against a known energy source, the operator can be confident in its ability to detect voltage and make informed decisions about the safety of the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In addition to electrical testing, rubber gloves should be inspected and field tested:
- A.
Before each use
- B.
Daily
- C.
Weekly
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
A. Before each useExplanation
Rubber gloves should be inspected and field tested before each use to ensure their integrity and effectiveness. This is important because any damage or defects in the gloves can compromise the safety of the user. Regular inspection and testing help identify any issues such as cuts, punctures, or degradation that may have occurred since the last use. By conducting these checks before each use, potential risks can be mitigated, and the gloves can be replaced if necessary to maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Hard hats suitable for the performance of low voltage electrical work, but NOT for higher voltage electrical work, are identified as being:
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class A and B
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Class AExplanation
Class A hard hats are designed to provide impact protection and offer limited voltage protection up to 2,200 volts. They are suitable for low voltage electrical work but not for higher voltage electrical work. Class B hard hats provide higher voltage protection up to 20,000 volts, and Class C hard hats offer no electrical protection. Therefore, for low voltage electrical work but not higher voltage, Class A is the correct choice.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The safety goggles or glasses suitable for electrical work use should:
- A.
Be non-conductive
- B.
Be polarized
- C.
Be hard plastic
- D.
Block all bright light
- E.
Be non-transparent
Correct Answer
A. Be non-conductiveExplanation
Safety goggles or glasses suitable for electrical work need to be non-conductive because they should not conduct electricity in order to protect the wearer from electrical shocks. This is important as electrical work involves the risk of coming into contact with live wires or electrical components. Non-conductive materials, such as certain types of plastic, are used to ensure that the goggles or glasses do not provide a path for electrical current to flow through.Rate this question:
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- 36.
All approved voltage detectors:
- A.
Require contact with conductor being tested
- B.
Indicate voltage level
- C.
Meet measurement accuracy standards
- D.
Provide visual indication
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "none of the above" because the statement mentions that all approved voltage detectors require contact with the conductor being tested, indicate voltage level, meet measurement accuracy standards, and provide visual indication. However, none of the options in the given list satisfy all these conditions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Assurance of proper and safe de-energization, lock out/ tag out, testing for presence of voltage, and grounding is the ultimate responsiblity of:
- A.
The switchman
- B.
The test crew leader
- C.
The engineer in charge
- D.
Yourself
- E.
Your company
Correct Answer
D. YourselfExplanation
The assurance of proper and safe de-energization, lock out/ tag out, testing for presence of voltage, and grounding is the ultimate responsibility of yourself. This means that each individual is accountable for ensuring that these safety measures are followed correctly. It emphasizes the importance of personal responsibility in maintaining a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The purpose of spare keys for power equipment interlocks is:
- A.
To facilitate switching operations during maintenance
- B.
To facilitate fuse and tap changing operations
- C.
To create less visual or temporary tie conditions in order to avoid an interruption of service
- D.
To replace the in service key if it becomes broken or lost
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. To replace the in service key if it becomes broken or lostExplanation
Spare keys for power equipment interlocks serve the purpose of replacing the in-service key if it becomes broken or lost. These spare keys are kept as backups to ensure that the interlocks can still be operated even if the original key is no longer available. This helps to prevent any interruption of service and ensures that the equipment can continue to function smoothly.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The procedure to assure equipment is isolated from any available energy source is:
- A.
Confined space entry
- B.
Plant switching orders
- C.
OSHA lock out/ tag out
- D.
NEC article 250 compliance
- E.
None of thea above
Correct Answer
C. OSHA lock out/ tag outExplanation
The correct answer is OSHA lock out/ tag out. This procedure ensures that equipment is isolated from any available energy source to prevent accidental startup or release of stored energy. It involves using locks and tags to physically disable the equipment and clearly communicate that it should not be operated. This procedure is crucial for the safety of workers who may be performing maintenance or repairs on the equipment. Confined space entry, plant switching orders, and NEC article 250 compliance are not specifically related to isolating equipment from energy sources.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Temporary safety grounds:
- A.
Shall not be located near the worker
- B.
Must be 2/0 size conductor
- C.
Are sized with consideration of available short circuit current and time duration
- D.
Must include heavy duty screw clamp or spring tension type connection
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Are sized with consideration of available short circuit current and time durationExplanation
Temporary safety grounds are sized with consideration of the available short circuit current and time duration. This means that the size of the conductor used for the temporary safety ground is determined based on the maximum potential short circuit current that could occur and the amount of time it would take for protective devices to operate and clear the fault. By sizing the temporary safety grounds appropriately, the risk of electrical hazards and potential damage to equipment can be minimized.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Under what considerations can tag out without lock out be permitted?
- A.
If all members of maintenance team agree and sign tag
- B.
If an energy isolating device is not capable of being locked out
- C.
If the employer demonstrates that the tag out program will provide the same level of safety as that provided by a lock
- D.
B and C
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. B and CExplanation
If all members of the maintenance team agree and sign the tag, and if the employer demonstrates that the tag out program will provide the same level of safety as that provided by a lock, then tag out without lock out can be permitted. This means that if everyone involved is in agreement and the employer can prove that the tag out program is just as safe as using a lock, then it is acceptable to tag out without locking out the energy isolating device.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The lock and tag that has been applied to an energy isolating device should be removed by:
- A.
The person that applied them
- B.
A supervisor or foreman
- C.
An authorized owner representative
- D.
A member of the maintenance or repair crew
- E.
The last repair crew or group to complete their assignment and report clear
Correct Answer
A. The person that applied themExplanation
The lock and tag that has been applied to an energy isolating device should be removed by the person that applied them. This is because the person who applied the lock and tag is responsible for ensuring that the device is properly isolated and that all necessary precautions have been taken. They are familiar with the specific procedures and requirements for removing the lock and tag, and are therefore the most qualified to do so. Removing the lock and tag without the knowledge and authorization of the person who applied them could lead to potential safety hazards.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Temporary protective grounds should be placed to create an equipotential zone in the work area:
- A.
At the work location preferably
- B.
On the incoming lines
- C.
Near each energy source
- D.
If concern for unexpected re-energization exists
- E.
Before any testing is performed
Correct Answer
A. At the work location preferablyExplanation
Temporary protective grounds should be placed at the work location preferably in order to create an equipotential zone in the work area. This means that all objects and surfaces in the work area will have the same electrical potential, reducing the risk of electric shock. Placing the protective grounds at the work location ensures that the equipment and personnel working in that specific area are protected. It is the most effective and efficient way to establish a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When using a "hook stick" to open an energized switch that does not include a stored energy system, one must:
- A.
Operate the switch cautiously
- B.
Position oneself well off to the side
- C.
Jerk the switch to free the contacts and then pull it open carefully
- D.
Open the switch quickly
- E.
Open it slowly to detect excess arcing
Correct Answer
D. Open the switch quicklyExplanation
When using a "hook stick" to open an energized switch that does not include a stored energy system, it is important to open the switch quickly. This is because opening the switch quickly helps to minimize the amount of time the contacts are exposed to arcing, which can be dangerous. By opening the switch quickly, the risk of excess arcing and potential damage to the switch or injury to the operator is reduced.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The accuracy rating of a specific analog ammeter is +/- 1% of full scale. A measurement is taken at 25% of full scale. The accuracy of this measurement is +/-
- A.
1%
- B.
.25%
- C.
4%
- D.
25%
- E.
2.5%
Correct Answer
C. 4%Explanation
The accuracy rating of the analog ammeter is +/- 1% of full scale. Since the measurement is taken at 25% of full scale, the accuracy of this measurement would still be within the +/- 1% range. Therefore, the accuracy of this measurement is 1%.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Why is it necessary to record all test readings?
- A.
To document the test was performed
- B.
To allow evaluation of the measurement
- C.
To provide a basis for future comparisons
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Recording all test readings is necessary for multiple reasons. Firstly, it helps to document that the test was performed, providing evidence of its execution. Secondly, it allows for the evaluation of the measurement, ensuring its accuracy and reliability. Lastly, recording test readings provides a basis for future comparisons, enabling analysis and tracking of any changes or improvements over time. Therefore, all of the given options are valid reasons for why it is necessary to record all test readings.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Upon taking an insulation resistance reading, the test person should:
- A.
Record the reading as shown on the meter scale
- B.
Apply the scale multiplier, then record
- C.
Record the multiplier
- D.
Record scale reading and multiplier
- E.
B or D as applicable
Correct Answer
E. B or D as applicableExplanation
The correct answer is B or D as applicable. This means that the test person should either apply the scale multiplier and then record the reading, or record the scale reading and multiplier together. The specific choice between B or D would depend on the specific instructions or requirements of the insulation resistance test being conducted.Rate this question:
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- 48.
During performance of cable DC overpotential testing, the test technician notices an occasional downward dip in current level while the test voltage is at its maximum magnitude. The test technician should:
- A.
Record the average magnitude of dips
- B.
Record the lowest current dips read
- C.
Investigate the test set supply voltage
- D.
Record the reange of current dips experienced
Correct Answer
C. Investigate the test set supply voltageExplanation
The test technician should investigate the test set supply voltage because the occasional downward dip in current level while the test voltage is at its maximum magnitude could be an indication of a problem with the supply voltage. By investigating the supply voltage, the technician can determine if there are any fluctuations or issues that may be causing the dips in current level. This will help identify and address any potential problems with the testing equipment or setup.Rate this question:
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- 49.
- A.
80
- B.
86.7
- C.
100
- D.
120
Correct Answer
B. 86.7 -
- 50.
The cosine of an angle is equal to :
- A.
Opposite / hypotenuse
- B.
Adjacent / hypotenuse
- C.
Opposite / adjacent
- D.
Adjacent / opposite
Correct Answer
B. Adjacent / hypotenuseExplanation
The cosine of an angle is equal to the length of the adjacent side divided by the length of the hypotenuse in a right triangle.Rate this question:
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Jul 28, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Mar 28, 2013Quiz Created by
Michaelleal01