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A result of ____ or higher is considered a pass for the Private Pilot Written Examination. (CARS 421.26)
A.
50%
B.
60%
C.
70%
D.
80%
Correct Answer
B. 60%
Explanation A result of 60% or higher is considered a pass for the Private Pilot Written Examination according to CARS 421.26. This means that in order to pass the exam, a candidate must correctly answer at least 60% of the questions.
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2.
In order to be issued a Private Pilot License (Aeroplane) you will need to have ______ hours of solo cross-country time. (CARS 421.26)
A.
2
B.
3
C.
5
D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 5
Explanation To be issued a Private Pilot License (Aeroplane), according to CARS 421.26, you must have a certain number of hours of solo cross-country time. The correct answer is 5, which means you need to have at least 5 hours of solo cross-country time in order to qualify for the license.
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3.
In order for the holder of a landplane rating to aquire a seaplane rating on an aircraft which requires one crew member, you will require _____ hours of training including _____ hours of dual flight instruction and _____ solo takeoffs and landings (CARS 421.38 (1))
A.
7,5,5
B.
5,5,5
C.
5,3,10
D.
7,5,10
Correct Answer
A. 7,5,5
Explanation To acquire a seaplane rating on an aircraft that requires one crew member, the holder of a landplane rating will need to complete 7 hours of training, including 5 hours of dual flight instruction and 5 solo takeoffs and landings. This information is based on CARS 421.38 (1).
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4.
In order for the holder of a seaplane rating to aquire a landplane rating on an aircraft which requires one crew member, you will require _____ hours of training including _____ hours of dual flight instruction and _____ solo takeoffs and landings (CARS 421.38 (2))
A.
7,5,5
B.
3,2,5
C.
5,3,10
D.
7,5,10
Correct Answer
B. 3,2,5
Explanation To acquire a landplane rating on an aircraft that requires one crew member, the holder of a seaplane rating will need a total of 5 hours of training. This includes 3 hours of dual flight instruction and 2 solo takeoffs and landings. This information is based on the regulations stated in CARS 421.38 (2).
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5.
A blanket type rating (CARS 421.40)
A.
Can be issued to cover high performance aircraft
B.
Can be issued to cover all aeroplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot
C.
Can be issued to two crew aeroplanes
D.
Can be issued to cover all aeroplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, excluding high performance aeroplanes
Correct Answer
D. Can be issued to cover all aeroplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, excluding high performance aeroplanes
Explanation A blanket type rating can be issued to cover all airplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, excluding high performance airplanes. This means that pilots with this type rating can operate any airplane that falls within this category, as long as it has a minimum flight crew of one pilot and is not classified as a high performance airplane.
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6.
In order to obtain a private pilot licence, at least a category _____ medical is required (CARS 421.26 (2))
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3
Explanation To obtain a private pilot license, at least a category 3 medical is required as stated in CARS 421.26 (2). This means that the pilot must undergo a medical examination and meet the medical standards specified for category 3. This medical examination ensures that the pilot is physically fit and capable of safely operating an aircraft.
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7.
In order to meet the experience requirements, the applicant for a private pilot licence shall have a minimum of ____ hours of dual flight instruction and ____ hours of solo flight time which must include a solo cross country of at least ___ nm with at least 2 full stops and landings. (CARS 421.26 (4))
A.
17,12,150
B.
18,27,300
C.
12,18,150
D.
23,12,150
Correct Answer
A. 17,12,150
Explanation The correct answer is 17,12,150. According to CARS 421.26 (4), in order to meet the experience requirements for a private pilot license, the applicant must have a minimum of 17 hours of dual flight instruction and 12 hours of solo flight time. This solo flight time must include a solo cross country of at least 150 nm with at least 2 full stops and landings.
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8.
A Private Pilot Licence without additional ratings enables a pilot to: (CARS 401.26)
A.
Fly as a pilot in command VFF OTT and at night
B.
Fly as a pilot in command or co-pilot of any single engine aircraft which is not a high performance aircraft.
C.
Fly as a pilot in command or as co-pilot of an aeroplane of a class and type in respect of which the pilots licence is endorsed with the appropriate ratings
D.
Fly as a pilot in command or co-pilot on an aircraft engaged in providing an air taxi service.
Correct Answer
C. Fly as a pilot in command or as co-pilot of an aeroplane of a class and type in respect of which the pilots licence is endorsed with the appropriate ratings
Explanation A Private Pilot Licence without additional ratings allows a pilot to fly as a pilot in command or co-pilot of an airplane that is endorsed with the appropriate ratings. This means that the pilot can operate an aircraft of a specific class and type for which they have received the necessary qualifications and endorsements. This ensures that the pilot has the necessary knowledge and skills to safely operate the specific type of airplane.
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9.
When flying VFR by day in a control zone (CTR), the minimum allowable visibility is ____ while the minimum horizontal distance from cloud is _____ and the minimum vertical distance from cloud is _________ (CFS section C, CARS 602.114)
A.
1 mile, 1 mile, 500 feet
B.
3 miles, 2 miles, 1000 feet
C.
3 miles, 2 miles, 500 feet
D.
3 miles, 1 mile, 500 feet
Correct Answer
D. 3 miles, 1 mile, 500 feet
Explanation When flying VFR by day in a control zone (CTR), the minimum allowable visibility is 3 miles, while the minimum horizontal distance from cloud is 1 mile, and the minimum vertical distance from cloud is 500 feet. This information is stated in CFS section C and CARS 602.114.
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10.
When under CVFR within controlled low level airspace above 12,500 feet, you should set the transponder to mode A, code ____ plus mode C (CFS section C & AIM RAC 1.9)
A.
1000
B.
1200
C.
1400
D.
2000
Correct Answer
C. 1400
Explanation When flying under controlled visual flight rules (CVFR) within controlled low level airspace above 12,500 feet, the transponder should be set to mode A, code 1400, along with mode C. This is in accordance with the Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS) section C and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) RAC 1.9.
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11.
The correct content and sequence of a VFR position report are: (CFS section C)
A.
Identification, time, position, altitude, VFR, next reporting point and ETA, destination
B.
Identification, position, time, VFR, next reporting point and ETA, name only of next succeeding reporting point, remarks
C.
Identification, time, position, altitude, VFR, next reporting point and ETA
D.
Identification, position, time, altitude, VFR, destination
Correct Answer
D. Identification, position, time, altitude, VFR, destination
Explanation The correct answer is "Identification, position, time, altitude, VFR, destination." In a VFR position report, the pilot should first identify themselves, followed by stating their current position, the time of the report, their altitude, the fact that they are flying under VFR conditions, and their intended destination. This sequence ensures clear and concise communication of important information to air traffic control or other pilots.
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12.
You are back tracking on the active runway at an aerodrome for take off and see a red flashing light from the tower. This means (CFS section F)
A.
Stop
B.
Return to the starting point on the aerodrome
C.
Aerodrome unsafe for takeoff
D.
Taxi clear of the runway
Correct Answer
D. Taxi clear of the runway
Explanation The red flashing light from the tower indicates that the aerodrome is unsafe for takeoff. Therefore, the correct action to take in this situation is to taxi clear of the runway. This ensures that you are not attempting to take off from an unsafe aerodrome.
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13.
Night as defined in the Canadian Aviation Regulation is: (AIM GEN 5.1)
A.
The period during which the sun's disc is more than 6 degrees below the horizon
B.
The period during which the sun's disc is more than 3 degrees below the horizon
C.
The period from one hour after sunset to one hour prior to sun rise
D.
The period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes prior to sun rise
Correct Answer
A. The period during which the sun's disc is more than 6 degrees below the horizon
Explanation According to the Canadian Aviation Regulation, night is defined as the period during which the sun's disc is more than 6 degrees below the horizon. This means that it is the time when the sun has set and is sufficiently below the horizon to result in darkness. This definition is important in aviation as it helps determine various factors such as visibility, lighting requirements, and pilot qualifications for night operations.
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14.
Following an emergency landing, the ELT should be manually activated: (AIM SAR 3.5)
A.
It is not necessary to activate the ELT manually as it is automatically activated
B.
It should be switched on after the search and rescue time on the flight plan
C.
As soon as possible
D.
For the first 5 minutes of every hour
Correct Answer
C. As soon as possible
Explanation The correct answer is "As soon as possible." In the event of an emergency landing, activating the ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) as soon as possible is crucial. The ELT is a device that emits a distress signal to alert search and rescue teams of the aircraft's location. By activating it promptly, the chances of being located and rescued quickly are increased. This is why it is important to activate the ELT as soon as possible after an emergency landing.
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15.
Who can demand that a licence, certificate or permit issued in terms of the Canadian Aviation Regulations is produced? (CARS 103.02)
A.
Any flight instructor or holder of a more senior pilot licence
B.
An aerodrome operator
C.
An immigration officer, peace officer or the minister
D.
Any class one flight instructor, DFTE or Transport Canada Inspector
Correct Answer
C. An immigration officer, peace officer or the minister
Explanation An immigration officer, peace officer or the minister can demand that a licence, certificate or permit issued in terms of the Canadian Aviation Regulations is produced. This means that these individuals have the authority to request proof of a valid aviation document from individuals involved in aviation activities. This could be for various reasons such as verifying compliance with regulations, ensuring safety, or conducting an investigation.
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16.
When operating at and in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome for which an ATF has not been published the correct frequency to use is (CFS section A)
A.
122.7
B.
122.8
C.
123.2
D.
123.3
Correct Answer
C. 123.2
Explanation When operating at and in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome for which an ATF has not been published, the correct frequency to use is 123.2.
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17.
When there is a forest fire, your flight path is restricted as follows (CFS section C & AIM RAC 2.9.2)
A.
You may not operate below 1000 feet within 10 nautical miles of the forest fire area
B.
You may not operate below 3000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area
C.
You may not operate below 5000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area
D.
You may not operate below 3000 feet within 10 nautical miles of the forest fire area
Correct Answer
B. You may not operate below 3000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area
Explanation When there is a forest fire, there are restrictions on the flight path to ensure safety. According to CFS section C and AIM RAC 2.9.2, the correct answer states that you may not operate below 3000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area. This restriction is in place to keep aircraft at a safe altitude and minimize the risk of interference with firefighting operations. Operating at a higher altitude allows for better visibility and reduces the chance of encountering smoke or other hazardous conditions.
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18.
You are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and see flashing red lights from the tower. This means (CFS section F & AIM RAC 4.4.7)
A.
Airport unsafe, do land for the time being
B.
Continue circling
C.
Route to an alternate airport
D.
Stop
Correct Answer
A. Airport unsafe, do land for the time being
Explanation The flashing red lights from the tower indicate that the airport is currently unsafe. Therefore, the appropriate action to take would be to land at the airport for the time being.
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19.
If intercepted by a military aircraft, your actions should be to (AIM SAR 4.7)
A.
Follow instruction, respond to signals, if possible notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU), attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on 121.5 MHz and squawk Mode A 7700 on the transponder (if so equipped)
B.
Follow instructions, respond to signals and attempt to contact the aircraft on 121.5 MHz
C.
Squawk Mode A 7700, attempt to establish radio communications with the intercepting aircraft and only if this is unsuccessful then respond to the signals
D.
Signal to the intercepting aircraft that you are contacting the appropriate ATSU and having informed the ATSU of the situation, respond to the intercepting aircraft's signals and instruction
Correct Answer
A. Follow instruction, respond to signals, if possible notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU), attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on 121.5 MHz and squawk Mode A 7700 on the transponder (if so equipped)
Explanation If intercepted by a military aircraft, the correct actions to take are to follow instructions, respond to signals, and if possible, notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU). Additionally, the pilot should attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the frequency 121.5 MHz and squawk Mode A 7700 on the transponder, if it is equipped with one. This ensures that the pilot is cooperating with the intercepting aircraft and is taking the necessary steps to communicate and comply with their instructions.
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20.
Choose the most correct statement regarding alcohol consumption and acting as a crew member on board an aircraft: (CARS 602.03 and AIM AIR 3.5)
A.
You should not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 8 hours of consuming any alcohol
B.
You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 24 hours of consuming any alcohol
C.
You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft withing 48 hours of consuming any alcohol
D.
You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol nor within 8 hours of consuming alcohol
Correct Answer
D. You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol nor within 8 hours of consuming alcohol
Explanation The correct answer states that you may not act as a crew member of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol nor within 8 hours of consuming alcohol. This means that even if you are not currently under the influence of alcohol, you are still prohibited from performing your duties as a crew member within 8 hours of consuming alcohol. This is in accordance with the regulations stated in CARS 602.03 and AIM AIR 3.5, which prioritize the safety and well-being of passengers and crew members.
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21.
In the Southern domestic airspace, altitude selection above an altitude of ____ feet AGL for VFR flights is based on magnetic track (AIM RAC 2.3.1 & RAC 5.3)
A.
2000 feet
B.
2500 feet
C.
3000 feet
D.
3500 feet
Correct Answer
C. 3000 feet
Explanation In the Southern domestic airspace, VFR flights select an altitude above 3000 feet AGL based on magnetic track. This means that pilots flying in this airspace should choose an altitude above 3000 feet above ground level that corresponds to their magnetic track. The specific altitude selection is important for maintaining safe separation between aircraft and ensuring efficient air traffic flow.
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22.
If you change your address, you are required to notify Transport Canada within: (AIM LRA 3.5.5)
A.
7 days
B.
14 days
C.
30 days
D.
60 days
Correct Answer
A. 7 days
Explanation According to AIM LRA 3.5.5, if you change your address, it is mandatory to inform Transport Canada within 7 days.
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23.
The primary difference between an aerodrome and an airport is:
A.
Instrument approaches are permitted at airports but not at aerodromes
B.
Airports have control towers and ATC whereas aerodromes do not
C.
An airport is simply an aerodrome for which a Canadian Aviation Document is in force
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. An airport is simply an aerodrome for which a Canadian Aviation Document is in force
Explanation An airport is simply an aerodrome for which a Canadian Aviation Document is in force means that an airport is a specific type of aerodrome that has met certain regulatory requirements set by the Canadian Aviation Document. This implies that all airports are aerodromes, but not all aerodromes are airports. This is the primary difference between the two terms. The other options provided in the question, such as instrument approaches and control towers, do not accurately reflect the primary difference between aerodromes and airports.
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24.
You are on the apron at an airport. You see a green flashing signal light directed at you. This means: (AIM RAC 4.2.11)
A.
Cleared to taxi
B.
Cleared for takeoff
C.
Taxi to the customs inspection area
D.
Stop
Correct Answer
A. Cleared to taxi
Explanation The green flashing signal light directed at you indicates that you are cleared to taxi.
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25.
When taking off from an aerodrome located in the Standard Pressure Region and climbing to cruising altitude/level within the Standard Pressure Region, the altimeter should be (RAC 2.11)
A.
Set to the standard value of 29.92
B.
Set to the airport altimeter setting
C.
Set to the airport altimeter setting and reset to the standard value of 29.92 when safely clear of all obstacles as identified by the appropriate chart
D.
Set to the airport altimeter setting and left at this value until just prior to leveling off at the target altitude
Correct Answer
D. Set to the airport altimeter setting and left at this value until just prior to leveling off at the target altitude
Explanation When taking off from an aerodrome located in the Standard Pressure Region and climbing to cruising altitude/level within the Standard Pressure Region, the altimeter should be set to the airport altimeter setting and left at this value until just prior to leveling off at the target altitude. This is because the airport altimeter setting provides the most accurate indication of altitude at the aerodrome, and it should be used during the climb until reaching the target altitude. At that point, the altimeter can be adjusted to the standard value of 29.92 to ensure accurate altitude readings at higher altitudes.
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26.
When flying in cruise flight from Altimeter Setting Region to the Standard Pressure Region (AIM RAC 2.11)
A.
The altimeter should be set to 29.92 just prior to entering the Standard Pressure Region
B.
The altimeter should be set to current altimeter setting of the nearest station alone the route
C.
The altimeter should be set to 29.92 when leveling off for cruise in the Altimeter Setting Region
D.
The altimeter should be set to 29.92 just after entering the Standard Pressure Region
Correct Answer
D. The altimeter should be set to 29.92 just after entering the Standard Pressure Region
Explanation The correct answer states that the altimeter should be set to 29.92 just after entering the Standard Pressure Region. This is because the Standard Pressure Region is defined as the area where the altimeter setting is 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 millibars. Therefore, once the aircraft enters this region, the altimeter should be adjusted to the standard setting to ensure accurate altitude readings.
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