1.
An optimal chest x-ray should include sharply defined:
1. Lung markings
2. Diaphragm
3. Heart borders
4. Greater vessels
5. bony cortical outlines.
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation
An optimal chest x-ray should include sharply defined lung markings, diaphragm, heart borders, greater vessels, and bony cortical outlines. These structures are important for evaluating the overall condition of the lungs, heart, and surrounding structures. A clear visualization of lung markings helps in identifying any abnormalities or diseases in the lungs. The diaphragm and heart borders provide information about the position and size of these organs. The greater vessels are important for assessing blood flow and any potential blockages. Lastly, bony cortical outlines help in identifying any fractures or abnormalities in the skeletal structure of the chest.
2.
Image analysis of a chest x-ray would include:
1.Presence of facility's identification
2. Presence of a right or left marker
3. No evidence of preventable artifacts
4. Demonstration of the kidney shadows
5. demonstration of the thoracic vertebrae and mediastinal structures
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, 3, 5
Explanation
Kidneys are not imaged on a chest x-ray.
3.
On a PA chest x-ray, the thoracic vertebrae should not be visible.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
Beam penetration is sufficient on chest images when the thoracic vertebrae and mediastinal structures are demonstrated.
4.
What indicates adequate beam penetration on a PA chest image?
Correct Answer
D. Both A and B are correct
Explanation
Adequate beam penetration on a PA chest image is indicated by the demonstration of mediastinal structures and thoracic vertebrae. This means that the X-ray beam has penetrated through the chest and reached the deeper structures, allowing for clear visualization of both the mediastinal structures (such as the heart, great vessels, and lymph nodes) and the thoracic vertebrae. The presence of both A and B on the image indicates that the X-ray has successfully penetrated through the chest, ensuring a high-quality image.
5.
Contrast and density should be adjusted so as to make fluid levels in the lungs invisible on a chest x-ray.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
Contrast and density are adequate when the vascular lung markings and fluid levels or air within the pleural cavity, when present, are demonstrated.
6.
Contrast and density are inadequate when the vascular lung markings and fluid levels or air within the pleural cavity, when present, are demonstrated.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
Contrast and density are ADEQUATE when the vascular lung markings and fluid levels or air within the pleural cavity, when present, are demonstrated.
7.
Beam penetration is adequate on a posteroanterior (PA) chest image when the thoracic vertebrae and anterior ribs are seen through the heart and mediastinal structures.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
Beam penetration is adequate on a posteroanterior (PA) chest image when the thoracic vertebrae and POSTERIOR ribs are seen through the heart and mediastinal structures.
8.
Beam penetration is adequate on a posteroanterior (PA) chest image when the thoracic vertebrae and posterior ribs are seen through the heart and mediastinal structures.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
In a posteroanterior (PA) chest image, the beam penetration is considered adequate when the thoracic vertebrae and posterior ribs are visible through the heart and mediastinal structures. This indicates that the X-ray beam has penetrated through the chest and reached the back of the patient, allowing for a clear view of the structures in the chest. Therefore, the statement is true.
9.
The absence of lung markings on a PA chest is indicative of a possible:
1. pneumothorax
2. pneumectomy
3. emphysema
Correct Answer
D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
A pneumothorax ( presence of air in the pleural cavity) or pneumectomy (removal of the lung) may be indicated if no lung markings are present.
10.
Which is an indicator of rotation on a PA chest radiograph?
Correct Answer
C. Both A and B are correct
Explanation
Both A and B are correct. Unequal distances between the vertebral column and the sternal extremity of the clavicle and unequal length of the posterior ribs right and left of the vertebral column are both indicators of rotation on a PA chest radiograph. These findings suggest that the patient was not positioned correctly during the imaging, resulting in a rotated image.
11.
Both lungs, from the apices to the costophrenic angles should be included on a PA chest x-ray.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
The statement is true because a PA chest x-ray is a standard radiographic examination that is used to evaluate the lungs. It is important to include both lungs in the image from the apices (the uppermost part of the lungs) to the costophrenic angles (the lowermost part of the lungs where they meet the diaphragm). This ensures that the entire lung fields are visible and any abnormalities or pathologies can be properly assessed.
12.
On a PA chest with no rotation, which posterior ribs should normally appear longer?
Correct Answer
C. Each sides should be of equal length for each corresponding pair of ribs
Explanation
The correct answer is "each sides should be of equal length for each corresponding pair of ribs." On a PA chest X-ray with no rotation, the posterior ribs should appear equal in length on both sides. This is because the X-ray is taken from a straight-on view, allowing for accurate comparison between the two sides of the chest. If one side appears longer than the other, it may indicate a potential abnormality or rotation in the chest.
13.
On a PA chest, the clavicles should be on the same _____________________.
Correct Answer
D. Horizontal plane
Explanation
On a PA chest X-ray, the clavicles should be on the same horizontal plane. This means that they should be at the same level and parallel to the ground. This is important for proper positioning and alignment of the clavicles on the X-ray image, allowing for accurate assessment of any abnormalities or fractures. The other options, such as the longitudinal, vertical, or coronal plane, do not accurately describe the expected position of the clavicles on a PA chest X-ray.
14.
On an optimal PA chest, the scapulae are barely visible inside the mid-portion of each lung.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
The scapulae should be rotated out of the lung field.
15.
On a PA chest, the manubrium is superimposed by the T-4, with approximately ______ of the apical lung field visible above the clavicles.
Correct Answer
A. 1 inch
Explanation
On a PA chest X-ray, the manubrium is superimposed by the T-4 vertebra. This means that the T-4 vertebra appears to be directly in front of the manubrium, making it difficult to distinguish between the two structures. However, there is still approximately 1 inch of the apical lung field visible above the clavicles. This means that the top portion of the lungs, which is located above the clavicles, can be seen on the X-ray image.
16.
On a PA chest, what structure is superimposed over the fourth thoracic vertebra?
Correct Answer
D. Manubrium
Explanation
The manubrium is the correct answer because it is the uppermost part of the sternum and is located at the level of the second thoracic vertebra. Therefore, on a PA chest X-ray, the manubrium would be superimposed over the fourth thoracic vertebra, making it the structure that is seen in that position.
17.
How many anterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a fully aerated PA chest?
Correct Answer
D. The visibility of the posterior ribs, not anterior, should be observed when checking for complete aeration of the lungs.
18.
How many posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a fully aerated PA chest?
Correct Answer
B. 10-11
Explanation
The question is asking about the number of posterior ribs that should be visible above the diaphragm on a fully aerated PA chest. The correct answer is 10-11. This means that when the lungs are fully aerated, 10-11 posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm. It is important to note that the visibility of the anterior ribs, not the posterior ribs, should be observed when checking for complete aeration of the lungs.
19.
What is the best way to ensure full aeration of the lungs for a PA chest?
Correct Answer
B. Exposure should be made on the second full inspiration.
Explanation
To ensure full aeration of the lungs for a PA chest, exposure should be made on the second full inspiration. This means that the X-ray should be taken when the patient has taken two deep breaths in order to maximize the expansion of the lungs and improve visibility of the chest structures. This timing allows for better visualization of any abnormalities or pathologies in the lungs.
20.
On a left lateral chest position, the _________________ should be at the center of the collimation field a the level of the 8th thoracic vertebra.
Correct Answer
B. Midcoronal plane
Explanation
The midcoronal plane refers to a vertical plane that divides the body into equal front and back halves. In a left lateral chest position, the midcoronal plane should be at the center of the collimation field at the level of the 8th thoracic vertebra. This means that the X-ray beam should be aligned with this plane to capture an accurate image of the chest. The other options, such as the midsagittal plane, sternal ends of the clavicles, and transverse plane, do not accurately describe the correct alignment for a left lateral chest position.
21.
Which of the following statements is not accurate when evaluating a left lateral chest image?
1. Posterior and anterior ribs are nearly superimposed
2. No more than a 1-inch space should be demonstrated between the posterior and anterior ribs
3. The sternum is demonstrated in lateral profile
4. The thoracic intervertebral foramina are closed
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 4 only
Explanation
No more than a ONE HALF (1/2) inch space should be demonstrated between the posterior and anterior ribs. The thoracic intervertebral foramina are OPEN.
22.
On a left lateral chest, the CR should enter at the level of ________________.
Correct Answer
D. T-8
Explanation
The correct answer is T-8. The question is asking about the level at which the central ray (CR) should enter on a left lateral chest X-ray. The CR refers to the center point of the X-ray beam. In this case, it should enter at the level of T-8, which corresponds to the 8th thoracic vertebra. This is important for obtaining an accurate image of the chest area.
23.
Posterior ribs should be included in the collimation field in a left lateral chest x-ray.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
The entire lung field, including apices, costophrenic angles, and posterior ribs, is included within the field.
24.
Which of the following structures should be parallel to the IR to avoid rotation when performing a left lateral chest exam?
1. shoulders
2. posterior ribs
3. posterior pelvic wings
Correct Answer
D. None of these structures should be positioned parallel to the IR.
Explanation
These should all be positioned perpendicular to the IR.
25.
Which of the following structures should be perpendicular to the IR to avoid rotation when performing a left lateral chest exam?
1. shoulders
2. posterior ribs
3. posterior pelvic wings
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation
To avoid rotation when performing a left lateral chest exam, all three structures mentioned should be positioned perpendicular to the IR. The shoulders, posterior ribs, and posterior pelvic wings should be aligned in a way that they are at a 90-degree angle to the image receptor. This ensures that the chest is properly aligned and reduces the chances of any rotational distortion in the X-ray image.
26.
Alignment of the shoulder, posterior ribs, and pelvic wings is accomplished for a left lateral chest exam by resting a flat hand against the back and then adjusting the patient’s rotation until the hand is positioned perpendicular to the IR.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
The statement is true because in order to achieve proper alignment for a left lateral chest exam, the shoulder, posterior ribs, and pelvic wings need to be aligned. This is done by resting a flat hand against the patient's back and adjusting their rotation until the hand is perpendicular to the IR (image receptor). This ensures that the image taken will accurately capture the desired area of the chest.
27.
What is an advantage of performing a left lateral chest versus a right lateral chest?
1. the heart shadow is minimized
2. superimposition of the hemidiaphragm
3. the patient is more comfortable
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Performing a left lateral chest X-ray has the advantage of minimizing the heart shadow, which allows for better visualization of the lungs and other structures. Additionally, it allows for superimposition of the hemidiaphragm, which aids in evaluating the diaphragm and detecting abnormalities. However, there is no mention of the patient's comfort as an advantage in the given answer.
28.
For demonstration of air-fluid levels in cases of possible pleural effusion, images of the chest should be done erect and with a horizontal beam.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
To demonstrate air-fluid levels in cases of possible pleural effusion, it is important to perform chest imaging in an erect position with a horizontal beam. This positioning allows gravity to separate air and fluid, making it easier to visualize any fluid accumulation in the pleural space. An erect position helps to avoid false-negative results that may occur when imaging is done in a supine position. Using a horizontal beam ensures accurate measurement and visualization of the levels of air and fluid in the chest.
29.
On a supine or mobile chest radiograph, ___________________ should be demonstrated.
1. Time of exam
2. Degree of patient elevation
3. Patient birthdate
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The time of the examination and the degree of patient elevation should be demonstrated.
30.
How many posterior ribs should be demonstrated above the diaphragm for a supine or portable chest x-ray?
Correct Answer
A. 9-10
Explanation
Nine or ten posterior ribs should be demonstrated above the diaphragm, indicating full lung aeration.
31.
On a portable or supine AP chest exam, which vertebra should be at the center of the collimation field?
Correct Answer
B. T-7
Explanation
On a portable or supine AP chest exam, the vertebra that should be at the center of the collimation field is T-7. This is because T-7 is considered the midpoint of the thoracic spine, and by centering the collimation field on this vertebra, it ensures that the entire thoracic spine is included in the image. This is important for accurately assessing the chest and spine for any abnormalities or injuries.
32.
A 45-degree angle between the midcoronal plane and the IR describes which position?.
Correct Answer
A. AP lordotic
Explanation
An AP lordotic position is described by a 45-degree angle between the midcoronal plane and the IR. In this position, the patient is standing upright and leaning back at a 45-degree angle. This position is commonly used to visualize the apices of the lungs and to help separate the clavicles from the lung fields. It is often used to assess for pulmonary tuberculosis or other lung abnormalities.
33.
In a PA lordotic chest exam, if the patient is able to arch their body to a 25-degree angle with the IR, how much cephalic angulation of the tube will be required?
Correct Answer
B. 20 degrees
Explanation
The sum of these two angles should be about 45 degrees.
34.
Superimposition of the lung apices with the _________________ is being avoided by angling the tube for a lordotic chest exam?
Correct Answer
A. Clavicle
Explanation
The superimposition of the lung apices with the clavicle is being avoided by angling the tube for a lordotic chest exam. This is because the clavicle is a bone located at the top of the chest, and if it overlaps with the lung apices in the X-ray image, it can obscure important details and make it difficult to interpret the results accurately. By angling the tube, the X-ray beam can be directed in a way that minimizes the overlap between the clavicle and the lung apices, resulting in a clearer and more useful image for diagnosis.
35.
AP lordotic chest exam usually requires ____________ tube angulation.
Correct Answer
B. CepHalad
Explanation
The correct answer is cephalad because AP lordotic chest exams require tube angulation in the cephalad direction. This means that the X-ray tube is angled towards the head of the patient to obtain a better view of the upper lung fields. This angulation helps to separate the clavicles and ribs, reducing the overlapping structures and improving the visibility of the lung tissue.
36.
The cortical outlines of which structures should be visible on an abdomen exam?
1. posterior ribs
2. lumber vertebra
3. pelvis
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. During an abdomen exam, the cortical outlines of the posterior ribs, lumbar vertebrae, and pelvis should be visible. This means that the outer edges of these structures should be visible on the imaging or examination.
37.
Intestinal gases should be clearly visible on a correct techniques abdomen x-ray, but stomach gases should not be visible.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
Gases within the stomach and intestines are sharply defined.
38.
In position for a supine abdomen, which anatomical structures should be equal distances from the exam table surface on both sides?
1. shoulders
2. anterosuperior iliac spines
3. knees
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 2 only
Explanation
In the supine position, the anatomical structures that should be equal distances from the exam table surface on both sides are the shoulders and the anterosuperior iliac spines. This means that when lying on the back, both shoulders and the bony protrusions on the front of the pelvis should be at the same height from the table. The knees are not mentioned as being equal distances from the table surface, so they are not included in the answer.
39.
Why are the shoulders and anterosuperior iliac spines places at equal distances from the exam table on both sides when performing a supine abdomen?
Correct Answer
C. To avoid rotation
Explanation
The shoulders and anterosuperior iliac spines are placed at equal distances from the exam table on both sides when performing a supine abdomen to avoid rotation. This positioning ensures that the patient's body remains in a stable and neutral position, minimizing the chances of any rotational movement. By avoiding rotation, the healthcare professional can obtain accurate and consistent results during the examination.
40.
The arms should be adducted during a supine abdomen exam to avoid superimposition with the area of interest.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
They should be abducted (pulled away from the body).
41.
The shoulder and anterosuperior iliac spines should be positioned for an upright abdomen exam in the same way that they are positioned for a supine abdomen exam. The only difference is that the patient is in an erect position instead of recumbent.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
The statement is true because the positioning of the shoulder and anterosuperior iliac spines remains the same for both upright and supine abdomen exams. The only difference is the patient's position, with the supine exam being done while lying down and the upright exam being done in a standing position.
42.
To evaluate for pneumothorax air in an erect abdomen exam, the patient should be positioned upright for 5 to 20 minutes before the image is taken.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
The erect abdomen is used to evaluate for intraperitoneal air, not pneumothorax air. Pneumothorax air would be in the pleural spaces of the chest.
43.
How many minutes should a patient be positioned to allow for air to move from the soft tissues in the abdomen to the diaphragm when performing an erect abdomen?
Correct Answer
C. 5-20
Explanation
During an erect abdomen procedure, it is important to allow air to move from the soft tissues in the abdomen to the diaphragm. This can be achieved by positioning the patient for a certain amount of time. The correct answer suggests that the patient should be positioned for 5-20 minutes. This time frame allows enough time for the air to move and ensures an accurate result during the procedure.
44.
Which structure should be seen in the center of the collimation field when evaluating a supine abdomen radiograph?
Correct Answer
C. L-4
Explanation
The structure that should be seen in the center of the collimation field when evaluating a supine abdomen radiograph is the L-4 vertebra. This is because the L-4 vertebra is located in the middle of the lumbar spine and is commonly used as a reference point for evaluating abdominal radiographs.
45.
Which of the following structures should be demonstrated in a supine abdomen radiograph?
1. T-9
2. Iliac wings
3. Symphysis pubis
4. lateral soft tissue of the body
5. right and left hemidiaphragm
Correct Answer
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation
The spinous process of T-11 should be demonstrated at the top of the field.
46.
Which of the following structures should be demonstrated in an upright abdomen radiograph?
1. T-9
2. iliac wings
3. symphysis pubis
4. lateral body soft tissue
5. right and left hemidiaphragm
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
Explanation
In an upright abdomen radiograph, the structures that should be demonstrated are T-9 (vertebral level), iliac wings (part of the pelvic bones), lateral body soft tissue (to assess for any abnormalities), and right and left hemidiaphragm (to evaluate the position and movement of the diaphragm). The symphysis pubis is not typically included in an upright abdomen radiograph. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, 4, and 5 only.
47.
Which structure should be seen in the center of the collimation field when evaluating an erect abdomen radiograph?
Correct Answer
B. L-3
Explanation
The structure that should be seen in the center of the collimation field when evaluating an erect abdomen radiograph is the L-3 vertebra. This is because the L-3 vertebra is located in the middle of the lumbar spine and is commonly used as a reference point for assessing the alignment and positioning of the lumbar vertebrae. By ensuring that the L-3 vertebra is centered in the collimation field, radiologists can accurately evaluate the surrounding structures and identify any abnormalities or pathologies.
48.
L-3 is seen at the center of the collimated field for a _______________ exam.
Correct Answer
A. Upright abdomen
Explanation
The correct answer is "upright abdomen" because L-3 is a landmark used to identify the level of the third lumbar vertebra. In an upright abdomen exam, the patient is standing or sitting upright, and L-3 would be seen at the center of the collimated field, indicating the correct positioning for the exam.
49.
L-4 is seen at the center of a supine abdomen radiograph.
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
The statement is true because L-4 refers to the fourth lumbar vertebra, which is located in the center of the abdomen. Therefore, it is expected to be seen in the center of a supine abdomen radiograph.
50.
L-4 is seen at the center of an erect abdomen radiograph.
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
L-4 is seen at the center of a supine abdomen image.