Ultimate Trivia Questions On US Coast Guard! Quiz

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Ultimate Trivia Questions On US Coast Guard! Quiz - Quiz

This quiz has the Ultimate Trivia Questions on US Coast Guard! The coast guard is part of the military that is tasked with ensuring safe and lawful business takes place at the coast and also performs rescue missions in severe conditions. Take the quiz and show what you know about the operations and those in charge when it comes to this branch of the military.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who has the responsibility for the safe operation and navigation of a Coast Guard Small Boat?

    • A.

      Engineer

    • B.

      Coxswain

    • C.

      Boat Crewman

    • D.

      Senior Officer Aboard

    Correct Answer
    B. Coxswain
    Explanation
    The Coxswain has the responsibility for the safe operation and navigation of a Coast Guard Small Boat. They are in charge of the boat and its crew, ensuring that all operations are conducted safely and efficiently. The Coxswain is trained and qualified to handle the boat in various conditions and is responsible for making decisions regarding navigation, maneuvering, and overall safety on board. They work closely with the crew members and follow standard operating procedures to ensure the successful completion of missions while prioritizing the safety of everyone on board.

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  • 2. 

    Which person from the Work-Life staff is the spouse of an active duty member?

    • A.

      Family Advocacy Representative

    • B.

      Health Promotions Manager

    • C.

      Ombudsman

    • D.

      Employee Assistance Coordinator

    Correct Answer
    C. Ombudsman
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ombudsman. An ombudsman is a person who acts as a liaison between an organization and its members, providing support and assistance. In the context of the question, the ombudsman from the Work-Life staff is the spouse of an active duty member, indicating that they have personal experience and understanding of the challenges faced by military families.

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  • 3. 

    In radio communications, the Coast Guard uses different radio frequencies.  The one used for marine assistance request broadcasts (MARBs)is?

    • A.

      Channel 16

    • B.

      Channel 22

    • C.

      Channel 81

    • D.

      AM & FM

    Correct Answer
    B. Channel 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Channel 22. In radio communications, the Coast Guard uses different radio frequencies for different purposes. Channel 22 is specifically designated for marine assistance request broadcasts (MARBs), which means that individuals in need of assistance at sea can use this channel to broadcast their distress calls and request help from the Coast Guard.

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  • 4. 

    When someone falls overboard, what flag is flown from a vessel?

    • A.

      BRAVO

    • B.

      OSCAR

    • C.

      PAPA

    • D.

      SOPA

    Correct Answer
    B. OSCAR
    Explanation
    When someone falls overboard, the flag that is flown from a vessel is the "OSCAR" flag. This flag is used internationally as a distress signal to indicate that a person has fallen overboard. It is important for other vessels in the area to be aware of the situation and provide assistance if needed.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following gifts can you not accept from a prohibited source?

    • A.

      A get well card

    • B.

      A $10.00 plaque

    • C.

      A soft drink

    • D.

      A $60.00 computer book

    Correct Answer
    D. A $60.00 computer book
    Explanation
    A $60.00 computer book cannot be accepted from a prohibited source because it exceeds the permissible value limit for gifts.

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  • 6. 

    How many days do active-duty members have to appeal Enlisted Performance Evaluations?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    B. 15
    Explanation
    Active-duty members have 15 days to appeal Enlisted Performance Evaluations. This means that they have a limited time frame to challenge or dispute the evaluation if they believe it to be unfair or inaccurate. This allows for a fair and timely review process to ensure that the evaluations are as objective and reliable as possible.

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  • 7. 

    In Operational Risk Management, the GAR model is used.  What do the letters GAR stand for?

    • A.

      Great, Awesome, Respect

    • B.

      Green, Amber, Red

    • C.

      Get, Away, Run

    • D.

      Gem, Amethyst, Ruby

    Correct Answer
    B. Green, Amber, Red
    Explanation
    The GAR model in Operational Risk Management stands for Green, Amber, Red. This model is used to categorize and prioritize risks based on their severity. Green represents low-risk situations, Amber represents moderate-risk situations, and Red represents high-risk situations. By using this model, organizations can effectively identify and manage operational risks by allocating appropriate resources and implementing necessary controls.

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  • 8. 

    The THIRD SUB pennant is flown by itself on a vessel to designate that the commanding officer is absent from his or her vessel.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The third sub pennant is indeed flown by itself on a vessel to indicate that the commanding officer is not present. This is a common practice in naval traditions where different flags and pennants are used to convey specific messages and signals. The third sub pennant serves as a visual indication to other ships and personnel that the commanding officer is temporarily absent from the vessel.

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  • 9. 

    The SPE model in Operational Risk Management assesses risks for specific hazards within Coast Guard operations.  What does SPE mean?

    • A.

      Severity, Probability, Exposure

    • B.

      Special, Problematic, External

    • C.

      Social, Public, External

    • D.

      Severity, Public, Exposure

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity, Probability, Exposure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Severity, Probability, Exposure. The SPE model is used in Operational Risk Management to assess risks associated with specific hazards within Coast Guard operations. Severity refers to the potential impact or consequences of a hazard, probability refers to the likelihood or chance of the hazard occurring, and exposure refers to the extent or degree to which individuals or assets are vulnerable to the hazard. By considering these factors, the SPE model helps in identifying and evaluating risks in order to develop appropriate risk mitigation strategies.

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  • 10. 

    What event was the catalyst for the forming of the International Ice Patrol?

    • A.

      The Andrea Doria/Stockholm collission

    • B.

      The sinking of the Bismarck

    • C.

      The sinking of the Titanic

    • D.

      The sinking of the Nantucket

    Correct Answer
    C. The sinking of the Titanic
    Explanation
    The sinking of the Titanic was the event that led to the formation of the International Ice Patrol. This tragedy highlighted the dangers of icebergs in the North Atlantic Ocean and the need for a system to monitor and warn ships of their presence. As a result, the International Ice Patrol was established to track icebergs and provide information to ensure the safety of ships traveling through these waters.

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  • 11. 

    This type of dress uniform is worn to compensate for climate variations?

    • A.

      Operational Dress Uniform

    • B.

      Service Dress Blue Bravo

    • C.

      Tropical Blue

    • D.

      Physical Fitness Gear

    Correct Answer
    C. Tropical Blue
    Explanation
    Tropical Blue is the correct answer because it is a type of dress uniform specifically designed to be worn in tropical climates. This uniform is lighter in weight and made of breathable fabric to help compensate for the hot and humid conditions typically found in tropical regions. It is important for military personnel to have appropriate uniforms that are suitable for different climate variations to ensure their comfort and performance in different environments.

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  • 12. 

    When working with or around the line, you may wear rings on your fingers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    When working with or around the line, it is not recommended to wear rings on your fingers. Rings can get caught on equipment or machinery, leading to serious injuries such as finger amputations or degloving. Therefore, it is safer to remove rings before working with or around the line.

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  • 13. 

    The acronym P.A.S.S. is a simple way of remembering the steps for using a Portable Fire Extinguisher.  P.A.S.S. means:

    • A.

      Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

    • B.

      Push, Aim, Swap, Sweep

    • C.

      Pull, Aim, Sweep, Stop

    • D.

      Push, Aim, Squeeze, Stop

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. This acronym, P.A.S.S., is used to remember the steps for using a Portable Fire Extinguisher. The first step is to pull the pin on the extinguisher, then aim the nozzle at the base of the fire. Next, squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and finally, sweep the nozzle from side to side to extinguish the fire completely.

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  • 14. 

    Basic Allowance for Housing is based on pay grade, dependency status, and location.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) is indeed based on pay grade, dependency status, and location. BAH is a military benefit that provides housing allowance to service members who are not provided with government housing. The amount of BAH varies depending on the service member's rank or pay grade, whether they have dependents, and the location where they are stationed. This means that different service members will receive different amounts of BAH based on these factors. Therefore, the statement "Basic Allowance for Housing is based on pay grade, dependency status, and location" is true.

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  • 15. 

    Of the following statements, which is true of Herpes II (Genital Herpes)?

    • A.

      Use of condoms with every sexual partner will help prevent exposure

    • B.

      It is spread by casual contact

    • C.

      A mother with Herpes II cannot give it to her baby during birth

    • D.

      It can be cured

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of condoms with every sexual partner will help prevent exposure
    Explanation
    The statement that the use of condoms with every sexual partner will help prevent exposure to Herpes II (Genital Herpes) is true. Condoms provide a barrier that can reduce the risk of transmission of the virus during sexual activity. However, it is important to note that condoms may not provide complete protection, as the virus can still be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact in areas not covered by the condom. It is also important to practice other safe sex measures such as regular testing and open communication with sexual partners.

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  • 16. 

    Choose the term NOT related to the fire tetrahedron.

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Fuel

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      Smoke

    Correct Answer
    D. Smoke
    Explanation
    Smoke is not directly related to the fire tetrahedron, which consists of heat, fuel, oxygen, and a chemical chain reaction. Smoke is a byproduct of the combustion process and is produced when there is incomplete combustion or the presence of impurities in the fuel. While smoke can be an indicator of a fire, it is not one of the essential components necessary for a fire to occur.

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  • 17. 

    The transfer of heat through a solid object is known as ___________________.

    • A.

      Conduction

    • B.

      Convection

    • C.

      Radiation

    • D.

      Evaporation

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduction
    Explanation
    Conduction is the process by which heat is transferred through a solid object. In this process, heat energy is transferred from one molecule to another within the object through direct contact. This transfer occurs due to the collision of molecules, where the faster-moving molecules transfer their energy to the slower-moving ones. Unlike convection and radiation, which involve the transfer of heat through fluids or electromagnetic waves, conduction specifically refers to the transfer of heat through solids.

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  • 18. 

    What are the two threat alerts under the National Terrorism Advisory System?

    • A.

      Sunset, Imminent

    • B.

      Urgent, Potential

    • C.

      Imminent, Elevated

    • D.

      Updated, Blanket

    Correct Answer
    C. Imminent, Elevated
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Imminent, Elevated." The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) is a system used by the United States government to communicate information about terrorist threats to the public. The threat alerts issued under this system are categorized into five levels: Low, Guarded, Elevated, High, and Imminent. "Imminent" threat alert indicates a credible, specific, and impending terrorist threat against the United States, while "Elevated" threat alert indicates a credible terrorist threat against the United States that is general in nature and could occur at any time.

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  • 19. 

    Personal Financial mismanagement may affect your eligibility for which of the following?

    • A.

      Security clearance

    • B.

      Advancement

    • C.

      Transfer

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Personal financial mismanagement can have serious consequences on various aspects of an individual's life. It can affect their eligibility for security clearance as it raises concerns about their trustworthiness and ability to handle sensitive information. Financial mismanagement can also hinder their advancement opportunities within an organization, as it reflects poorly on their decision-making skills and reliability. Additionally, it may impact their ability to transfer to different positions or locations, as employers may be hesitant to take on someone with a history of financial irresponsibility. Therefore, all of the options mentioned - security clearance, advancement, and transfer - can be affected by personal financial mismanagement.

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  • 20. 

    What is the only method of birth control that provides 100 percent protection from unwanted pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases?

    • A.

      Condoms

    • B.

      Birth control pills

    • C.

      Spermicides

    • D.

      Abstinence

    Correct Answer
    D. Abstinence
    Explanation
    Abstinence is the only method of birth control that provides 100 percent protection from unwanted pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases. This is because abstinence involves refraining from any sexual activity, eliminating the risk of sperm meeting an egg or the transmission of sexually transmitted infections. Condoms, birth control pills, and spermicides can all provide varying degrees of protection, but they are not foolproof and do not offer complete protection like abstinence does.

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  • 21. 

    What are the five types of followers?

    • A.

      Sheep, "yes" people, alienated, survivors, and effective followers

    • B.

      Dog, sheep, effective, free thinking, and alienated followers

    • C.

      Sheep, "yes" people, survivors, intellectuals, and dog followers

    • D.

      Committed, survivors, "yes" people, sheep, and ineffective followers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sheep, "yes" people, alienated, survivors, and effective followers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sheep, "yes" people, alienated, survivors, and effective followers. These five types of followers are commonly identified in leadership studies and theories. Sheep followers are passive and obedient, "yes" people are compliant and conformist, alienated followers are critical and independent, survivors are self-interested and opportunistic, and effective followers are proactive and committed. These categories help to understand different behaviors and attitudes exhibited by followers in various organizational settings.

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  • 22. 

    The ___________________ is a device that shows you the intended rudder angle.

    • A.

      Rudder Angle Indicator

    • B.

      Compass

    • C.

      Helm Angle Indicator

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Helm Angle Indicator
    Explanation
    The Helm Angle Indicator is a device that shows you the intended rudder angle. This device is used to provide visual feedback to the operator about the position of the helm or steering wheel, indicating the angle at which the rudder is being turned. It helps the operator to accurately control the direction of the vessel by providing real-time information about the rudder angle.

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  • 23. 

    The proper way to give helm commands and the appropriate responses are Repeat(Respond), Execute, Advise, and _______________________.

    • A.

      10-4

    • B.

      Acknowledge

    • C.

      What?

    • D.

      Roger?

    Correct Answer
    B. Acknowledge
    Explanation
    The given answer "Acknowledge" is the appropriate response in a communication scenario where the proper way to give helm commands and the appropriate responses are Repeat(Respond), Execute, Advise, and Acknowledge. "Acknowledge" indicates that the message has been received and understood, ensuring effective communication between the parties involved.

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  • 24. 

    What drill would help you prepare for saving your shipmate if he fell off the ship?

    • A.

      Abandon Ship

    • B.

      General Quarters

    • C.

      Man Overboard

    • D.

      Fire

    Correct Answer
    C. Man Overboard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Man Overboard". This drill would help you prepare for saving your shipmate if he fell off the ship. The Man Overboard drill involves immediate action to locate and rescue the person in the water. It includes procedures such as sounding the alarm, notifying the bridge, throwing lifebuoys, and launching rescue boats. By practicing this drill, the crew members can develop the necessary skills and coordination to respond effectively in such an emergency situation.

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  • 25. 

    A signaling device not affected by fog or reduced visibility is the ________________.

    • A.

      Signal mirror

    • B.

      MK-124

    • C.

      Personal Marker Light

    • D.

      Whistle

    Correct Answer
    D. Whistle
    Explanation
    A whistle is a signaling device that can be used in fog or reduced visibility conditions because it relies on sound rather than visual cues. Sound can travel through fog and other obstacles, allowing the whistle to be heard even when visibility is poor. Therefore, a whistle is not affected by fog or reduced visibility, making it an effective signaling device in such situations.

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  • 26. 

    The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a fuel source will give off enough vapor to SUSTAIN combustion or burning.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a fuel source will give off enough vapor to initiate combustion or burning, not sustain it. Once the combustion is initiated, the fuel source will continue to burn even if the temperature drops below the flash point. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 27. 

    The Personal Marker Light is a chemical glow light that is used to attract the attention of rescue parties.  This light is attached to a_______________________.

    • A.

      Side of a ship

    • B.

      Flagstaff

    • C.

      Personal flotation device

    • D.

      Ball cap

    Correct Answer
    C. Personal flotation device
    Explanation
    The Personal Marker Light is a chemical glow light that is used to attract the attention of rescue parties. It is attached to a personal flotation device. This makes sense as a personal flotation device is typically worn by individuals in water to assist with buoyancy and prevent drowning. Attaching the marker light to the personal flotation device ensures that it is easily visible and accessible in case of an emergency, increasing the chances of being rescued.

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  • 28. 

    Which is true of synthetic line?

    • A.

      Great elasticity

    • B.

      Will not shrink when wet

    • C.

      Dangerous because of snapback

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Synthetic line is known for its great elasticity, meaning it can stretch and absorb shock without breaking. Additionally, it will not shrink when wet, making it a reliable choice for various applications. However, synthetic line can be dangerous due to its snapback potential, which can cause injury if not handled properly. Therefore, all of the given statements about synthetic line are true.

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  • 29. 

    To dry an Off-Shore Lifejacket Type 1 PFD, you can put it in a clothes dryer.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Off-Shore Lifejacket Type 1 PFDs are not suitable to be put in a clothes dryer for drying. These lifejackets are designed for offshore use and have specific instructions for cleaning and drying. It is important to follow the manufacturer's guidelines for drying these lifejackets to ensure their effectiveness and longevity.

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  • 30. 

    How many minutes does it take for your eyes to adjust to obtain proper night vision?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      45

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    It takes approximately 30 minutes for your eyes to adjust and obtain proper night vision. During this time, the eyes gradually become more sensitive to low light conditions, allowing them to see more clearly in the dark. This adjustment period is necessary for the eyes to dilate and for the rods, which are responsible for detecting light, to become more active.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
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    Quiz Created by
    Kenbethea
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