1.
A CODE BLUE has been called in the 2 south gym. The code is now over and the patient has been taken to the ICU. How do you ensure the security of the crash cart as you wait for CSS to replace the cart?
Correct Answer
D. Secure the cart with a red lock found inside the med drawer
Explanation
The correct answer is to secure the cart with a red lock found inside the med drawer. This ensures the security of the crash cart while waiting for CSS to replace it.
2.
A CODE YELLOW has been called. How do you know that an area has been examined for anything suspicious?
Correct Answer
A. There is a post-it note attached
Explanation
An area being examined for anything suspicious can be identified by the presence of a post-it note attached to it. This could be a common practice to indicate that the area has been checked or inspected for any potential threats or suspicious activities. The post-it note serves as a visual cue for individuals to know that the examination has taken place, providing reassurance and ensuring that everyone is aware of the status of the area.
3.
A CODE PINK has been called and you notice a woman carrying a large briefcase going down the 2 South stairwell. You would stop this person and ask to examine the inside of the briefcase
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In a situation where a CODE PINK has been called, which typically refers to a situation involving a missing or abducted child, it is important to be vigilant and take necessary actions to ensure the safety of everyone involved. If a woman is seen carrying a large briefcase and going down a specific stairwell, it is reasonable to stop and ask to examine the inside of the briefcase. This is a precautionary measure to ensure that there is no potential threat or danger associated with the briefcase. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.
4.
A CODE TRIAGE is called. Staff may not leave the facility until the "All Clear" has been broadcast.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false. A CODE TRIAGE is not a situation where staff cannot leave the facility until the "All Clear" has been broadcast. A CODE TRIAGE is a term used in medical emergencies to prioritize patients based on the severity of their condition. It does not impose any restrictions on staff movement or require them to stay in the facility until a specific announcement is made.
5.
There is a tornado Warning. You are working with a patient in the condo. Where should you move this patient?
Correct Answer
You should not remove them from the condo.
Explanation
During a tornado warning, it is generally safer to stay indoors rather than attempting to move to a different location. Moving the patient from the condo could potentially expose them to greater danger and increase the risk of injury. It is important to find a safe area within the condo, such as a basement or an interior room without windows, and take necessary precautions to protect the patient from potential harm caused by the tornado.
6.
The Fire Marshall is inspecting the unit. He asks you where the oxygen shut off valves is. How do you respond?
Correct Answer
They are located in the hallway before entering the department.
Explanation
The correct answer explains the location of the oxygen shut off valves, stating that they are situated in the hallway before entering the department. This response provides a clear and concise explanation to the Fire Marshall's question, indicating where the valves can be found for inspection purposes.
7.
There is a CODE RED drill. The doors at the main entrance to the gym do not close. This needs to be checked immediately.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement suggests that there is a CODE RED drill and the doors at the main entrance to the gym do not close. This means that there is a potential security risk as the doors should be closed during a drill. Therefore, it is necessary to check the doors immediately to ensure the safety and security of the premises.
8.
You are working with a patient on the practice stairs. Where is the nearest fire extinguisher?
Correct Answer
It is located in the pillar near the recreational therapy area.
Explanation
The nearest fire extinguisher is located in the pillar near the recreational therapy area.
9.
There is smoke coming from the computer in the conference room. Where is the nearest fire extinguisher?
Correct Answer
out the door and to the right on the wall.
Explanation
The nearest fire extinguisher is located out the door and to the right on the wall. This suggests that in case of a fire emergency, the person should immediately exit the conference room, go through the door, and turn right to find the fire extinguisher on the wall.
10.
You must wash your hand for at least seconds
Correct Answer
C. 30 seconds
Explanation
According to the given information, it is necessary to wash your hands for at least a certain amount of time. The correct answer is 30 seconds, indicating that this is the recommended duration for handwashing. This suggests that washing your hands for less than 30 seconds may not be sufficient to effectively remove germs and bacteria.
11.
When should you wash your hands?
Correct Answer
before and after patient treatment or patient contact.
Explanation
It is important to wash your hands before and after patient treatment or patient contact to prevent the spread of germs and infections. Washing hands before patient treatment ensures that you do not transfer any harmful bacteria or viruses to the patient. Washing hands after patient treatment helps to remove any potential contaminants that may have been picked up during the interaction. This practice is a crucial part of maintaining proper hygiene and preventing the transmission of diseases in healthcare settings.
12.
An Advance Directive is a document in which a patient gives direction about his/her care.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
An Advance Directive is a legal document that allows an individual to express their wishes regarding medical treatment in the event that they become unable to communicate or make decisions for themselves. It provides guidance to healthcare providers and family members about the patient's preferences for medical care, including end-of-life decisions. This document ensures that the patient's autonomy and choices are respected and followed, making the statement "An Advance Directive is a document in which a patient gives direction about his/her care" true.
13.
Before the Patient Advocate can make decisions, it must be documented that the patient is incapacitated.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In order for the Patient Advocate to make decisions, it is necessary to have documentation confirming that the patient is incapacitated. This documentation serves as proof that the patient is unable to make decisions for themselves, allowing the Patient Advocate to step in and make decisions on their behalf. Without this documentation, the Patient Advocate would not have the authority to make decisions for the patient. Therefore, the statement "Before the Patient Advocate can make decisions, it must be documented that the patient is incapacitated" is true.
14.
Staff should offer patients information about Advance Directives
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Staff should offer patients information about Advance Directives. This statement is false. Advance Directives are legal documents that allow individuals to express their preferences for medical treatment in the event they are unable to make decisions for themselves. While it is important for healthcare professionals to inform patients about the existence and importance of Advance Directives, it is not their responsibility to offer patients this information. Patients should be proactive in seeking out information about Advance Directives and discussing their preferences with their healthcare providers.
15.
Patient falls can have very serious consequences-including dealth
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Patient falls can indeed have very serious consequences, including death. Falls in healthcare settings are a common occurrence and can result in various injuries such as fractures, head injuries, and internal bleeding. These injuries can be particularly severe for older adults or patients with pre-existing health conditions. Falls can also lead to a decline in a patient's overall health and functional abilities, prolonging their hospital stay or requiring additional medical interventions. Therefore, it is crucial to implement preventive measures and provide a safe environment for patients to minimize the risk of falls and their potential consequences.
16.
So that everyone knows and can act, the pateint's nurse assesses the patient for fall risk. If the patient is at high risk, the nurse will place a yellow falling star on the door of their room.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true because the nurse's assessment of the patient for fall risk is crucial in ensuring the safety of the patient. By placing a yellow falling star on the door of the patient's room, it serves as a visual cue for healthcare providers and visitors to be extra cautious and take necessary precautions to prevent falls. This helps in creating awareness and promoting a safe environment for the patient.
17.
If a patient is at high risk from falls and is trying to get out of bed unassisted, it is NOT my job to stop him/her and get help.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
It is the healthcare professional's responsibility to ensure patient safety, especially if the patient is at high risk of falls. If a patient is trying to get out of bed unassisted, it is the healthcare professional's job to intervene, stop the patient, and provide the necessary assistance to prevent any potential injuries from falls. Therefore, the statement "it is NOT my job to stop him/her and get help" is incorrect.
18.
Using a patient room number is an acceptable means of identifying the patient
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Using a patient room number is not an acceptable means of identifying the patient. Patient room numbers are not unique identifiers and can easily lead to confusion or misidentification. It is crucial to use more reliable and secure methods such as using the patient's full name, date of birth, or a unique patient identification number to ensure accurate identification and prevent any potential errors or risks in healthcare settings.
19.
How often does The Joint Commission release new National Patient Safety Goals?
Correct Answer
every year
Explanation
The Joint Commission releases new National Patient Safety Goals every year. This ensures that healthcare organizations are continuously updated with the latest guidelines and standards to enhance patient safety. Releasing new goals annually allows for the incorporation of new research, advancements in technology, and emerging best practices into healthcare settings. By doing so, The Joint Commission promotes a culture of safety and encourages healthcare providers to continually improve their processes and procedures to prevent errors and ensure the well-being of patients.
20.
List 2 patient identifiers that should be verified with each point of service:
Correct Answer
Ask the patient to state their full name
Uses communication techniquies to ask their age, Date of birth, or history number
Explanation
The two patient identifiers that should be verified with each point of service are asking the patient to state their full name and using communication techniques to ask their age, date of birth, or history number. This helps ensure that the correct patient is receiving the intended care or treatment and helps prevent any potential errors or mix-ups.
21.
If a patient wristband comes off in the shower you should:
Correct Answer
D. Ask the HUC to make a new band. Have the patient review it for accuracy and apply it to their wrist
Explanation
When a patient's wristband comes off in the shower, it is important to ensure that they have a new wristband for identification purposes. Asking the Health Unit Coordinator (HUC) to make a new band and having the patient review it for accuracy ensures that the patient's identification information is correct. Applying the new band to their wrist ensures that they are properly identified throughout their stay in rehab.
22.
When taking a phone order from the physician, the nurse writes the order directly on the order sheet, dates and times the order, and reads back the order to the physician to ensure accuracy. He/She must then check the box that he/she has read the order
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The nurse is responsible for accurately recording the physician's phone order on the order sheet, including the date and time. To ensure accuracy, the nurse reads back the order to the physician. After confirming the order, the nurse must check the box indicating that they have read the order. This process helps minimize errors and ensures that the order is correctly documented and understood. Therefore, the statement is true.
23.
You are ready to practice bed transfers with a patient in the condo. What do you need to do to the bed before transferring the patient.
Correct Answer
Make sure there is a white linen sheet on the bed
place a sheet on the bed
Explanation
Before transferring the patient, it is important to prepare the bed by making sure there is a white linen sheet on the bed and placing another sheet on the bed. This preparation ensures that the bed is clean, comfortable, and ready for the patient to be transferred onto.
24.
Is it necessary to lock up the knives in the condo
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
It is necessary to lock up the knives in the condo for safety reasons. Knives are sharp objects that can cause harm if they are not handled properly. By locking them up, it helps prevent accidents, especially if there are children or individuals who may not be familiar with handling knives safely. Additionally, locking up the knives can also prevent unauthorized access to potentially dangerous objects.
25.
What appliances in the condo must have circuit breakers turned on before they can be used?
Correct Answer
The stove/oven
Garbarge disposal
1. stove/garbage disposal
Explanation
The appliances in the condo that must have circuit breakers turned on before they can be used are the stove/oven and the garbage disposal. Both of these appliances require electricity to function properly, and the circuit breakers ensure that they receive the necessary power. By turning on the circuit breakers for these appliances, the condo residents can safely use the stove/oven and the garbage disposal without any electrical issues.
26.
Where are these circuit breakers located?
Correct Answer
They are located behind the first closet on the right before entering the condo, to the left on the wall.
double closet doors to the right, inside on left wall
Explanation
The circuit breakers are located behind the first closet on the right before entering the condo, to the left on the wall. Additionally, they can be found inside on the left wall of the double closet doors to the right.
27.
What two things are required before a therapist can drive the rehab van?
Correct Answer
Chauffer's license
Have been observed driving the van on 2 occasions by another chauffeur-licensed therapist
Explanation
Before a therapist can drive the rehab van, they need to have a chauffeur's license. Additionally, they must have been observed driving the van on two occasions by another therapist who also holds a chauffeur's license. This ensures that the therapist is qualified and experienced in driving the van safely and efficiently.
28.
You are treating a patient in the main gym when he starts to become very agitated. You would:
Correct Answer
F. A, B, C
Explanation
The correct answer is A, B, C. When a patient becomes agitated, it is important to speak quietly and calmly to them to help de-escalate the situation. Reassuring the patient that they are safe can also help to calm them down. Moving the patient to a quiet environment, such as a condo or empty office, can further reduce stimuli and help the patient relax. Running the patient immediately back to the nursing unit may not be necessary unless there is a medical emergency. Overall, using all of these strategies can help manage the patient's agitation effectively.
29.
There must always be two people in the department in order for a patient to be treated in the gym.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In order for a patient to be treated in the gym, there must always be two people in the department. This suggests that there is a requirement for supervision or assistance during the treatment process. Having two people present ensures that there is adequate support and safety measures in place for the patient. It also implies that the treatment may involve activities or equipment that require two individuals to operate effectively. Therefore, the statement is true.
30.
The corporate compliance hotline number is posted on the back bulletin board in the therapy desk area.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement suggests that the corporate compliance hotline number is indeed posted on the back bulletin board in the therapy desk area. This implies that employees have easy access to the hotline number, which is crucial for reporting any compliance violations or concerns. By having the number readily available in a visible location, it promotes transparency and encourages employees to report any issues they may come across, thereby ensuring corporate compliance.
31.
How do you know that a piece of medical equipment has been checked by clinical engineering?
Correct Answer
It will have a engineering approved sticker on it
all assessed equipment will have a sticker on it
Explanation
The correct answer is that a piece of medical equipment will have an engineering approved sticker on it and all assessed equipment will have a sticker on it. This suggests that clinical engineering checks medical equipment and approves it by placing a sticker on it. The presence of the sticker indicates that the equipment has been assessed and approved by the engineering department.
32.
Patient's have the right to have their pain assessed and managed.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Patients have the right to have their pain assessed and managed because it is essential for their overall well-being and quality of life. Pain can be subjective and vary from person to person, so it is crucial to assess and understand each patient's pain experience. This allows healthcare providers to develop appropriate pain management plans tailored to the individual's needs, which may involve medication, therapy, or other interventions. By recognizing and addressing patients' pain, healthcare professionals can help alleviate suffering and improve their patients' comfort and recovery.
33.
If a patient states he/she is having pain, he/she should be believed.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement suggests that when a patient claims to be experiencing pain, their claim should be trusted and taken seriously. This is because pain is a subjective experience, and individuals are the best judges of their own pain levels. By believing the patient, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and treatment to alleviate their pain and improve their well-being.
34.
The following behaviors may indicate the patient is having pain; frowning, grimacing, restlessness, not relaxed , groaning and/or moaning
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true because frowning, grimacing, restlessness, not being relaxed, and groaning or moaning are commonly observed behaviors in individuals experiencing pain. These behaviors are often indicative of discomfort and can be used as cues to assess and address the patient's pain levels.
35.
It is expected that you communicate that a patient may be having pain to a nurse or physician. If the nurse is not available or listening to you, you should see out the charge person and report the patient's potential need.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
When a patient is in pain, it is important to communicate this information to a nurse or physician so that appropriate action can be taken. If the nurse is unavailable or not listening, it is necessary to seek out the charge person, who is responsible for overseeing the unit or department, and inform them about the patient's potential need for pain management. This ensures that the patient's concerns are addressed and appropriate measures are taken to alleviate their pain. Therefore, the statement is true.
36.
The two pain rating schales (The 0-10 scale and the FACES scale) are used by patients at sparrow to identify pain.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that the two pain rating scales, the 0-10 scale and the FACES scale, are indeed used by patients at Sparrow to identify their pain levels. These scales provide a standardized way for patients to communicate their pain intensity, with the 0-10 scale allowing them to rate their pain on a numerical scale from 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst imaginable pain), and the FACES scale using a series of faces to represent different levels of pain. By using these scales, healthcare providers at Sparrow can better assess and manage their patients' pain.
37.
Unrelieved pressure on the skin squeezes tiny blood vessels, which normally supply the skin with nutirents and oxygen. When skin is starved of nutirients and oxygen for too long, tissue dies and a pressure ulcer forms.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Unrelieved pressure on the skin can lead to the squeezing of tiny blood vessels that supply the skin with nutrients and oxygen. This lack of blood flow can result in tissue death and the formation of a pressure ulcer. Therefore, the statement is true.
38.
Skin reddening that disappears after pressure is removed is normal and not a pressure ulcer.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Skin reddening that disappears after pressure is removed is not normal and is actually a sign of a pressure ulcer. Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores or pressure sores, occur when there is prolonged pressure on the skin, usually over a bony area. This pressure restricts blood flow to the area, leading to tissue damage. The initial stage of a pressure ulcer is characterized by non-blanchable erythema, which means that the skin does not turn white when pressure is applied and does not return to its normal color when pressure is released. Therefore, the given statement is false.
39.
Pressure ulcers forms where bone causes the greatest force on the skin and tissue and squeezes them again an outside surface.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, develop when there is prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. They commonly occur in areas where bones are close to the skin, such as the heels, hips, and tailbone. The pressure exerted on the skin and tissues can limit blood flow and cause damage, leading to the formation of pressure ulcers. Therefore, it is true that pressure ulcers form where bone causes the greatest force on the skin and tissue and squeezes them against an outside surface.
40.
In person who must stay in bed, most pressure ulcers form on the knees and elbows.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. They commonly occur in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. Contrary to the statement, pressure ulcers do not predominantly form on the knees and elbows. They are more likely to develop in areas where bones are close to the skin, such as the hips, lower back, heels, and tailbone. The incorrect answer is False.
41.
When lifting a patient up in bed it is acceptable to drag a patient up to avoid using lift sheets.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Dragging a patient up in bed is not acceptable when lifting a patient. It is important to use proper lifting techniques and equipment, such as lift sheets, to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient. Dragging can cause discomfort, pain, and potential injury to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
42.
Protein and calories are very important to maintaining healthy skin and to heal damaged skin.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Protein is essential for the production of collagen, which is a key component of healthy skin. It helps to maintain the skin's elasticity and strength. Additionally, calories provide the energy needed for the body's natural healing processes. When the skin is damaged, it requires extra nutrients and energy to repair itself. Therefore, protein and calories are indeed important for maintaining healthy skin and promoting skin healing.
43.
Patients have the RIGHT to be free from restraints, of any form, imposed as a means of coercion, discipline, convenience, or retaliation by staff.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
This statement is true because patients have the right to be treated with dignity and respect, and restraining them for any reason other than their safety or the safety of others goes against these principles. Restraints should only be used when necessary and as a last resort, and should never be used as a means of coercion, discipline, convenience, or retaliation by staff.
44.
Drug or chemical restraint is considered a standard treatment for a patient's medical or psychiatric condition
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because drug or chemical restraint is indeed considered a standard treatment for a patient's medical or psychiatric condition. In certain situations, when other forms of treatment are not effective or feasible, medications may be used to manage symptoms and improve the patient's well-being. However, it is important to note that the use of drug or chemical restraint should always be based on a thorough assessment of the patient's condition and should be administered under the guidance of a healthcare professional to ensure safety and effectiveness.
45.
Physical alternatives to restraints include:
Correct Answer
F. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "all of the above" because physical alternatives to restraints include various interventions such as pain management, physical activity, giving food and fluids, helping patients toilet, and promoting sleep patterns. These alternatives aim to address the underlying causes of agitation or restlessness in patients, providing comfort and promoting their overall well-being without the use of restraints.
46.
Psychological alternatives to restraints include:
Correct Answer
E. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because psychological alternatives to restraints include creating a calm environment, having family stay with the patient for support, using reality orientation techniques to help the patient understand their surroundings, and assessing for signs of low oxygen levels that may be causing agitation or restlessness. These alternatives aim to address the underlying causes of the patient's behavior and provide them with the necessary support and interventions without resorting to physical restraints.
47.
Where is the infection Control Manual kept?
Correct Answer
In the staff area above the two desk top computers.
Explanation
The infection control manual is kept in the staff area above the two desktop computers.
48.
What color is the Infection Control Manual?
Correct Answer
Light Blue
Explanation
The Infection Control Manual is light blue in color.
49.
Where is the crash cart located on 2-South?
Correct Answer
between the two pillars in the south end of the gym
Explanation
The crash cart is located between the two pillars in the south end of the gym on 2-South.
50.
How often is it checked?
Correct Answer
Daily
Explanation
The given correct answer states that the checking is done on a daily basis. This implies that the frequency of the checking process is daily, meaning it occurs every day.